A&P quiz

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A&P SYLLABUS PRACTICE EXAMS GENERAL CURRICULUM SUBJECTS • Task A6:

1. The electrolyte used in the nickel-cadmium battery is a _____ solution. a. b. c. d. Potassium hydroxide Hydrochloric acid Sulfuric acid Potassium peroxide

2. Which condition is an indication of improperly torqued cell link connections of a nickelcadmium battery? _____. a. b. c. d. Light spewing at the cell caps Low temperature in the cells Toxic and corrosive deposits of potassium carbonate crystals Heat or burn marks on the hardware

3. Most aircraft storage batteries are rated according to _____. a. b. c. d. • Open-circuit voltage and closed circuit voltage Voltage and ampere-hour capacity The maximum number of volt-amperes (power) the battery can furnish to a load Battery voltage and volts per cell

Task C12 1. The empty weight of an airplane is determined by _____.

a. Adding the gross weight on each weighing point and multiplying by the measured distance to the datum b. Adding the net weight of each weighing point and multiplying the measured distance to the datum c. Subtracting the tare weight from the scale reading and adding the weight of each weighing point. d. Multiplying the measured distance from each weighing point to the datum times the sum of scale reading less the tare weight

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2. The maximum weight of an aircraft is the empty weight plus _____. a. b. c. d. Crew, maximum fuel, cargo, and baggage Crew, passengers, and fixed equipment Crew and fixed equipment Crew

3. An aircraft with an empty weight of 2,100 lbs. and an empty weight CG of +32.5 was altered as follows: ________. A. B. C. D. Two 18 lb. passenger seats located at +73 were removed. Structural modifications were made at +77 increasing weight by 17 lb. A seat and safety belt weighing 25 lbs. were installed at +74.5. Radio equipment weighing 35 lbs. was installed at +95.

What is the new empty weight CG? _________. a. b. c. d. • +30.44 +34.01 +33.68 +34.65 Task D13 1. When flaring aluminum tubing for use with AN coupling nuts and sleeves, the flare angle should be ____ degrees. a. b. c. d. 30 37 67 45

2. Flexible lines must be installed _____. a. b. c. d. Where bends are necessary Only aft of the firewall With just enough slack to make the connection With 5 to 8 percent slack

3. What is the color of an AN steel flared-tube fitting? _____. a. Black b. Blue c. Red

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d. Green • Task F21 1. Why is ethylene dibromide added to all grades of aviation gasoline? ______. a. b. c. d. To prevent detonation at takeoff power settings To remove zinc silicate deposits from the spark plugs To scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder combustion chambers To increase the antiknock rating of the fuel

2. Identify the color of low-lead 100LL aviation gasoline ______. a. b. c. d. Blue Green Orange Purple

3. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause _____. a. b. c. d. • Vapor lock Detonation Hard starting Surface ignition Task H24 1. What power of ten is equal to 1,000,000? _____. a. b. c. d. 10 to the third power 10 to the fourth power 10 to the fifth power 10 to the sixth power

2. The result of nine raised to the fourth power is _____. a. b. c. d. 6,491 6,461 6,941 6,561

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3. Find the square of 212. ______. a. b. c. d. • 40,144 43,924 44,944 44,844 Task H25 1. How many gallons of fuel will be contained in a rectangular-shaped tank measuring 2 feet in width, 3 feet in length, and 1 foot 8 inches in depth? (7.5 gal = 1 cu ft). _______. a. 66.6 b. 75 c. 110 d. 45 2. What force (in lbs.) is exerted on the piston in a hydraulic cylinder if the area of the piston is 1.2 square inches and the fluid pressure is 850 psi? ________. a. 1,020 lbs. b. 1,220 lbs. c. 960 lbs. d. 850 lbs. 3. A rectangular-shaped fuel tank measures 60 inches in length, 30 inches in width, and 12 inches in depth. How many cubic feet are within the tank? ________. a. b. c. d. 12.5 15.0 18.5 21.0

4. What is the square inch area of a right triangle with a height of 3 inches and a length of 4 inches? ______. a. b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 5

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5. What is the square footage of a trapezoid with a 2 feet height, the lower base being 6 feet and the upper base being 4 feet? _______. a. b. c. d. • 8 10 24 48 Task H26

1. What is the piston cubic inch displacement of a master cylinder with a 1.5 inch diameter be and a piston stroke of 4 inches? ______. a. b. c. d. • 1.7671 9.4247 7.0686 6.1541 Task I28 1. Which provides a place for indicating compliance with Airworthiness Directives manufacturer’s service bulletins? ______. a. b. c. d. Structural repair manual Aircraft overhaul manual Aircraft maintenance records Illustrated parts catalog

2. The FAA Fm 337 is used to record _____. a. b. c. d. Preventive and routine maintenance Major repairs and major alterations Minor repairs and minor alterations Airworthiness Directive compliance

3. During an annual inspection, if a defect is found which makes the aircraft unairworthy, the person disapproving must _____. a. b. c. d. Remove the Airworthiness Certificate from the aircraft Submit a Malfunction or Defect Report Provide a written notice of the defect to the owner Repair the defect before completion of the inspection

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4. Which maintenance action is an airframe major repair? ______. a. Removal, installation, and repair of landing gear tires b. Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control surfaces which affect flutter and vibration characteristics c. Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory d. The repair of portions of skin sheets 5. An aircraft owner was provided a list of discrepancies on an aircraft that was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection. Which statement is correct concerning who may correct the discrepancies? _______. a. b. c. d. Only a mechanic with an inspection Authorization An appropriately rated mechanic Any certificated repair station The owner or operator of the aircraft

6. When entering a major repair in an aircraft logbook, a mechanic must enter _____. a. b. c. d. The date the major repair was started Total time in service for the aircraft His or her name and date the work was performed Total aircraft time since the last overhaul

7. What action is required when a minor repair is performed on a certificated aircraft? _____. a. b. c. d. An FAA Fm 337 must be completed The aircraft specifications must be amended An entry in the aircraft’s permanent records is required The owner of the aircraft must report the repair to the FAA

8. After making a major repair to an aircraft engine that is to be returned to service, FAA Fm 337 must be prepared. How many copies are required and what is the disposition of the completed forms? _______. a. b. c. d. Two; both copies for the FAA Two; one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy for the FAA Three; one copy for the aircraft owner and two copies for the FAA Three; one copy for the aircraft owner, one copy for the FAA, and one copy for the permanent records of the repairing agency or individual

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9. After a mechanic holding an airframe and powerplant rating completes a 100-hour inspection what action is required before the aircraft is returned to service? ______. a. b. c. d. Obtain a renewal for the Airworthiness Certificate Make the proper entries in the aircraft’s maintenance record Complete an operational check of all systems A mechanic with an inspection Authorization must approve the inspection

• Task I29
1. When should special inspection procedures be followed to determine if any damage to the aircraft structure has occurred? ______. a. b. c. d. Progressive inspection 100-hour inspection Overweight landing Annual inspection

2. Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an annual, 100 hour, progressive inspection? ______. a. b. c. d. Any certificated airframe mechanic The owner or operator of the aircraft The person approving or disapproving for return to service The pilot performing the test flight

3. What is the means by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product may continue to be operated? ______. a. Airworthiness Directives b. Supplemental Type Certificate c. Malfunction or Defect Reports d. Technical Standards Orders 4. Which is an appliance repair? _____. a. b. c. d. Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump Repairs to a propeller govern or its control Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light circuits Cleaning of balloon burner pilot and main nozzles in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions

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Task K31

1. For all aircraft type-certificated prior to January 1, 1958, the CAA issued documents known as Aircraft Specifications, which contained technical information about the aircraft type. If an aircraft was type-certificated May 7, 1959, the information that would have been contained in the Aircraft Specifications will be in the appropriate _____. a. b. c. d. Aircraft Operation Information Letter Certificated Aircraft Bulletins Type Certificate Data Sheets Aviation Airworthiness Alerts

2. If an airworthy aircraft is sold, what is done with the Airworthiness Certificate? _____. a. b. c. d. It must be endorsed by a certificated mechanic to indicate that the aircraft is still airworthy It becomes invalid until the aircraft is re-inspected and returned to service It is declared void and a new certificate is issued upon application by the new owner It is transferred with the aircraft

3. Airworthiness Directives _____. a. b. c. d. Are mandatory Present design changes Provide temporary maintenance procedures Provide suggested maintenance procedures

4. Which FAR provides information regarding instrument range markings for an airplane certificated in the normal category? _____. a. b. c. d. Part 21 Part 25 Part 91 Part 23

5. Airworthiness Directives are issued to _____. a. b. c. d. Provide temporary maintenance procedures Prescribe airman privileges and limitations Present suggested maintenance procedures Correct an unsafe condition



Task L33

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1. The following is a table of airspeed limits as given in an FAA-issued aircraft specification: Speed Category Normal operating Never-exceed Max landing gear operation Maximum flap extended Speed in Knots 260 293 174 139

The high end of the white arc on the airspeed instrument would be at _____ knots. a. b. c. d. 260 293 174 139

2. A complete detailed inspection and adjustment of the valve mechanism will be made at the first 25 hours after the engine has been placed in service. Subsequent inspections of the valve mechanism will be made each second 50-hour period. From the above statement, at which intervals (in hours) will valve mechanism inspections be performed? ______. a. 100 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75

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A&P SYLLABUS PRACTICE EXAMS AIRFRAME CURRICULUM SUBJECTS • Task E20

1. Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations? ______. a. To chemically clean the base-metal of oxide film b. To prevent overheating of the base metal c. To increase heat conductivity 2. Which statement concerning soldering is correct? ______. a. Joints in electric wire to be soldered should be mechanically secure prior to soldering b. Changeable shades of blue can be observed on the surface of a copper soldering tip when the proper temperature has been reached c. If the soldering temperature is too high, the solder will form in lumps and not produce a positive bond 3. A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has been _____. a. Fluxed b. Polished c. Tinned 4. Why should a carburizing flame be avoided when welding steel? _____. a. It removes the carbon content b. It hardens the surface c. A cold weld will result 5. A very thin pointed tip on a soldering copper is undesirable because it will _____. a. Transfer too much heat to the wk b. Have a tendency to overheat and become brittle c. Cool too rapidly 6. Acetylene at a line pressure above 15 psi _____. a. Is dangerously unstable b. Should be used when a reducing flame is necessary c. Is usually necessary when welding metal over 3/8 inch thick

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7. In gas welding, the amount of heat applied to the material being welded is controlled by the _____. a. Amount of gas pressure used b. Size of the tip opening c. Distance the tip is held from the work 8. When inspecting a butt-welded joint by visual means, _____. a. The penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal b. The penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal c. Look for evidence of excessive heat in the fm of a very high bead • Task C35

1. The maximum altitude loss permitted during a pressurized aircraft instrument static unpressurized system integrity check is _____ feet in 1 minute. a. 50 b. 100 c. 200 • Task D36

1. The operation of an angle-of-attack indicating system is based upon detection of differential pressure at a point where the air stream flows in a direction _____. a. Not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft b. Parallel to the angle of attack of the aircraft c. Parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft • Task D37

1. Fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data _____. a. Mechanically b. Electrically c. Utilizing fluid power

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2. Who is authorized to repair an aircraft instrument? ______. 1. 2. 3. 4. A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating A certificated repairman with an airframe rating A certificated repair station approved for that class instrument A certificated airframe repair station

a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 3 and 4 c. 3 3. Which of the following instrument discrepancies would be corrected by an aviation mechanic? ______. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Red line missing Case leaking Glass cracked Mounting screw loose Case paint chipped Leaking at line B nut Will not zero out Fogged

a. 1, 4, 6 b. 3, 4, 5, 6 c. 1, 4, 5, 6 4. What does a reciprocating engine manifold pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not operating? ______. a. Zero pressure b. The differential between the manifold pressure and the atmospheric pressure c. The existing atmospheric pressure 5. The minimum requirements for testing and inspections of instrument static pressure systems required by FAR Section 91.411 are contained in _____. a. Type Certificate Data Sheets b. AC 43.13-1B c. FAR Part 43, appendix E 6. Which condition would be most likely to cause excessive vacuum in a vacuum system? _____. a. Vacuum pump overspeed b. Vacuum relief valve improperly adjusted c. Vacuum relief valve spring weak

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7. The number of shock mounts required for an original instrument panel installation is determined by the _____. a. Size of the panel b. Weight of the complete panel unit c. Number of instruments to be installed 8. Which procedure should you use if you find a vacuum-operated instrument glass loose? _____. a. Mark the case and glass with a slippage mark b. Replace the glass c. Install another instrument 9. Which instruments are connected to an aircraft pitot-static system? ______. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Vertical speed indicator Cabin altimeter Altimeter Cabin rate-of-change indicator Airspeed indicator

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 b. 1, 2, and 4 c. 1, 3, and 5 10. How many of the following instruments will normally have range markings? _____.

• • •
a. One b. Two c. Three

Airspeed indicator Altimeter Cylinder head temperature gauge

11. How would an airspeed indicator be marked to show the best rate-of-climb speed (one engine inoperative)? ______. a. Red radial line b. Blue radial line c. Green arc 12. The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge indicates _____. a. The instrument is not calibrated b. The desirable temperature range c. A low, unsafe temperature range

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13. What marking on an instrument is used to indicate whether the glass has slipped? ______. a. White index mark b. Blue radial line c. Red radial line 14. An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded to the aircraft structure to _____. a. Act as a restraint strap b. Provide current return paths c. Aid in the panel installation 15. Thermocouple leads _____. a. Are designed f a specific installation and may not be altered b. May be installed with either lead of either post of the indicator c. May be repaired using solderless connects • Task E39

1. A turn and bank instrument indicates _____. a. The longitudinal attitude of the aircraft during climb and descent b. Trim and serves as an emergency source of bank information in case the attitude indication fails c. The need for corrections in pitch and bank any time the aircraft deviates from a pre-selected attitude 2. Part of the ADF systems used on aircraft includes _____. a. VHF transmitters b. Marker beacons c. Sense and loop antennas 3. When installing coaxial cable, it should be secured firmly along its entire length _____. a. At 1-foot intervals b. Wherever the cable sags c. At 2-foot intervals

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4. For how many hours should an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) battery be capable of furnishing power for signal transmission? ______. a. 36 b. 48 c. 72 • Task E40

1. Doublers are used when antennas are installed to _____. a. Eliminate antenna vibration b. Prevent oil canning of the skin c. Reinstate the structural strength of the aircraft skin 2. The preferred location of a V antenna on light aircraft is on _____. a. The bottom of the fuselage and as far forward as possible b. Top of the cabin with the apex of the V pointing forward c. Top of the vertical stabilizer 3. The purpose of the localizer is to _____. a. Set the airplane on the proper approach angle to the runway b. Indicate the distance the airplane is from the end of the runway c. Align the airplane with the center of the runway 4. A DME antenna should be located in a position on the aircraft that will _____. a. Not be blanked by the wing when the aircraft is banked b. Permit interruptions in the DME operation c. Eliminate the possibility of the DME locking on a station

5. When bending coaxial cable, the bend radius should be at least _____ times the diameter of the cable. a. 10 b. 15 c. 20

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Task G50b

1. What is a cause of generator brush arcing? _____. a. Seating brushes with No. 000 sandpaper b. Carbon dust particles c. Low spring tension 2. When ac generators are operated in parallel, the _____ must both be equal. a. Amperes and frequency b. Frequency and voltage c. Amperes and voltage 3. The starting current of a series-wound dc mot, in passing through both the field and armature windings, produces a _____. a. Low speed starting torque b. Speed slightly higher when unloaded c. High starting torque 4. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the _____. a. Strength of the magnetic field b. Number of conducts in the armature c. Speed at which the armature rotates 5. A series wound dc electric motor will normally require _____. a. More current at high RPM than at low RPM b. Approximately the same current throughout its operating range of speed c. More current at low RPM than at high RPM 6. The commutator of a generator _____. a. Changes direct current produced in the armature into alternating current as it is taken from the armature b. Changes alternating current produced in the armature into direct current as it is taken from the armature c. Reverses the current in the field coils at the proper time in order to produce direct current 7. An ammeter in a battery charging system is f the purpose of indicating the _____. a. Amperage available for use b. Total amperage being used in the airplane c. Rate of current used to charge the battery

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8. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator? _____. a. Reduce field strength b. Overcome armature reaction c. Reduce arcing at the brushes 9. A voltage regulator controls generator output by _____. a. Introducing a resistance in generator-to-battery lead in the event of an overload b. Shorting out the field coil in the event of overload c. Varying current flow to the generator field coil 10. Which type of dc generator is not used as an airplane generator? _____. a. Externally grounded b. Series wound c. Compound wound

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A&P SYLLABUS PRACTICE EXAMS POWERPLANT CURRICULUM SUBJECTS • Task A1

1. The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in the order of their occurrence are _____. a. Intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust b. Intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust c. Intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust 2. On which stroke(s) is/are both valves on a four-stroke cycle reciprocating engine cylinder open? ______. a. Exhaust b. Intake c. Exhaust and intake 3. What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft rotation in degrees? _____. a. Dial indicator b. Timing disk c. Protractor 4. During overhaul, reciprocating engine intake and exhaust valves are checked for stretch _____. a. With a suitable outside micrometer caliper b. With a contour gauge c. By placing the valve on a surface plate and measuring its length with a vernier height gauge 5. When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in a conventional reciprocating engine? _____. a. When the piston has reached top dead center of the intake stroke b. Shortly before the piston reaches the top of the compression stroke c. When the piston reaches top dead center on the compression stroke 6. Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of crankshaft travel _____. a. During which both valves are off their seats b. Between the closing of the intake valve and the opening of the exhaust valve c. During which both valves are on their seats

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7. During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an engine are usually degreased with some form of mineral spirits solvent rather than water-mixed degreasers primarily because _____. a. Solvent degreasers are much more effective b. Water-mixed degreaser residues may cause engine oil contamination in the overhauled engine c. Water-mixed degreasers cause corrosion 8. Why does the smoothness of operation of an engine increase with a greater number of cylinders? _____. a. The power impulses are spaced closer together b. The power impulses are spaced farther apart c. The engine has larger counterbalance weights 9. If the crank shaft runout readings on a dial indicator are plus .002 inch and minus .003 inch, what is the run-out (in inches)? _____. a. .005 b. Plus .001 c. Minus .001 10. Compression ratio is the ratio between the _____. a. Piston travel on the compression stroke and on the intake stroke b. Combustion chamber pressure on the combustion stroke and on the exhaust pipe c. Cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center and at top dead center 11. What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating engine? ______. a. Check magneto drop b. Determine satisfactory performance c. Determine if the fuel/air mixture is adequate 12. Which of the following is required by FAR Part 43 when performing a 100 hr inspection on reciprocating engines? ______. a. Magneto timing check b. Cylinder compression check c. Valve clearance check

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13. During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine, a deposit of small, bright, metallic particles which do not cling to the magnetic drain plug is discovered in the oil sump and on the surface of the oil filter. This condition _____. a. May be the result of abnormal plain type bearing wear and is cause for further investigation b. Is probably a result of ring and cylinder wall wear and is cause for engine removal and/or overhaul c. Is normal in engines utilizing plain type bearing aluminum pistons and is not cause for alarm 14. Which of the following is most likely to occur if an overhead valve engine is operated with inadequate valve clearances? ______. a. The valves will remain closed f longer periods than specified by the engine manufacturer b. The valves will not seat positively during start and engine warm-up c. The further decrease in valve clearance that occurs as engine temperatures increase will cause damage to the valve-operating mechanism 15. A hissing sound from the exhaust stacks when the propeller is being pulled through manually indicates _____. a. A cracked exhaust stack b. Exhaust valve blow-by c. Worn piston rings 16. Reduced air density at high altitude has a decided effect on carburetion resulting in a reduction of engine power by _____. a. Excessively enriching the air/fuel mixture b. Excessively leaning the air/fuel mixture c. Reducing fuel evaporation 17. Which of the following would most likely cause a reciprocating engine to backfire through the induction system at low RPM operation? _____. a. Idle mixture too rich b. Clogged derichment valve c. Lean mixture

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Tasks E-17 & E18

1. The E-gap angle is usually defined as the number of degrees between the neutral position of the rotating magnet and the position _____. a. Where the contact points close b. Where the contact points open c. Of greatest magnetic flux density 2. What will be the results of increasing the gap of the breaker points in a magneto? _____. a. Retard the spark and increase its intensity b. Advance the spark and decrease its intensity c. Retard the spark and decrease its intensity 3. When timing a magneto internally, the alignment of the timing marks indicates that the _____. a. Breaker points are just closing b. Magnets are in the neutral position c. Magnets are in the E-gap position 4. In an aircraft ignition system, one of the functions of the capacitor is to _____. a. Regulate the flow of current between the primary and secondary coil b. Facilitate a more rapid collapse of the magnetic field in the primary coil c. Stop the flow of magnetic lines of force when the points open 5. When will voltage in the secondary winding of a magneto, installed on a normally operating engine, be at its highest value? ______. b. a. Just prior to spark plug firing Toward the latter part of the spark duration when the flame front reaches its maximum velocity c. Immediately after the breaker points close

6. When the switch is off in a battery ignition system, the primary circuit is _____. a. Grounded b. Opened c. Shorted 7. As an aircraft engine’s speed is increased, the voltage induced in the primary coil of the magneto _____. a. Remains constant b. Increases c. Varies with the setting of the voltage regulator

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8. How many secondary coils are required in a low-tension system on an 18-cylinder engine? ______. a. 36 b. 18 c. 9 9. A magneto switch is connected _____. a. In series with the breaker points b. Parallel to the breaker points c. In series with the primary capacitor and parallel to the breaker points 10. The spark is produced in a magneto ignition system when breaker points are _____. a. Fully open b. Beginning to open c. Fully closed 11. What is the purpose of using an impulse coupling with a magneto? _______. a. To absorb impulse vibrations between the magneto and the engine b. To compensate for backlash in the magneto and the engine gears c. To produce a momentary high rotational speed of the magneto 12. When using a timing light to time a magneto to an aircraft engine, in what position should the magneto switch be placed? _______. a. BOTH b. OFF c. LEFT or RIGHT (either one) 13. What is the difference between a low-tension and a high-tension engine ignition system? _____. a. A low-tension system produces relatively low voltage at the spark plug as compared to a high tension system b. A high-tension system is designed for high-altitude aircraft, while a low-tension system is f low-to-medium-altitude aircraft c. A low-tension system uses a transformer coil near the spark plugs to boost voltage, while the high-tension system voltage is constant from the magneto to the spark plugs

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Task H28

1. The application of carburetor heat during engine operation will _____. a. Decrease the weight of the fuel/air change b. Decrease the volume of air in the cylinder c. Increase the density of air in the cylinder 2. If a fire starts in the induction system during the engine starting procedure, what should the operator do? _______. a. Turn off the fuel switches to stop the fuel b. Continue cracking the engine c. Turn off all switches 3. The action of a carburetor airscoop is to supply air to the carburetor, but it may also _____. a. Cool the engine b. Keep fuel lines cool and prevent vapor lock c. Increase the pressure of the incoming air by ram effect • Tasks J32a & J32b

1. Which of the following defects would likely cause a hot spot on a reciprocating engine cylinder? _______. a. Too much cooling fin area broken off b. A cracked cylinder baffle c. Cowling air seal leakage 2. What part of an air-cooled cylinder assembly has the greatest fin area per square inch? _______. a. Cylinder barrel b. Rear of the cylinder head c. Exhaust valve port 3. Why is high nickel chromium steel used in many exhaust systems? ______. a. High heat conductivity and flexibility b. Corrosion resistance and low expansion coefficient c. Corrosion resistance and high heat conductivity

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4. On turbine-powered airplanes, how much reverse thrust is usually required for minimum braking requirements? _______. a. At least 50 percent of the full forward thrust of the engine b. At least 75 percent of the full forward thrust of the engine c. At least 25 percent of the full forward thrust of the engine • Task K35 1. What are the rotational speed and blade pitch angle requirements of a constant-speed propeller during takeoff? ______. a. Low-speed and high-pitch angle b. High-speed and low-pitch angle c. High-speed and high-pitch angle • Task K37 1. On aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated constant-speed propellers, all ignition and magneto checking is done with the propeller in which RPM position? _____. a. High b. Low c. High pitch 2. Oil leakage around the rear cone of a hydromatic propeller usually indicates a defective _____. a. Piston gasket b. Spider-shaft oil seal c. Dome-barrel oil seal • Task K38

1. Propeller blade tracking is the process of determining _____. a. The plane of rotation of the propeller with respect to the aircraft longitudinal axis b. That the blade angles are within the specified tolerance of each other c. The positions of the tips of the propeller blades relative to each other

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2. What is the basic purpose of the three small holes (No. 60 drill) in the tipping of wood propeller blades? ______. a. To provide a means f inserting balancing shot when necessary b. To provide a means f periodically impregnating the blade with preservation materials c. To allow the moisture which may collect between the tipping and the wood to escape (vent the tipping) 3. One of the reasons for local etching of a propeller blade during repair of a min crack is to _____. a. Avoid removing excess metal in making the repair b. Keep from leaving burnishing marks on the metal c. Remove the alodine coating 4. It is important that nicks in aluminum alloy propeller blades be repaired as soon as possible in order to _____. a. Maintain equal aerodynamic characteristics between blades b. Eliminate stress concentration points c. Equalize the centrifugal loads between the blades 5. Min surface damage located in a repairable area, but not on the leading trailing edges of aluminum blades, may be repaired by first _____. a. Filing with a riffle file b. Filing with a half round flat file c. Rough sanding and applying a proper filler 6. After proper removal of aluminum blade damage, the affected surface should be polished with _____. a. Fine wool b. Very fine sandpaper c. Powdered soapstone

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A&P SYLLABUS ANSWER KEY GENERAL CURRICULUM SUBJECTS Task A6: 1. C 1. A 2. D 3. B Task C12: 1. C 2. C 3. C Task D13: 1. B 2. D 3. A Task F21: 1. C 2. A 3. C Task H24: 1. D 2. D 3. C Task H25: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. B A A B B Task I28: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. C B C D B C C B B

Task I29: 1. 2. 3. 4. C C A A

Task K31: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. C D A D D

Task L33: 1. D 2. A

Task H26:

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A&P SYLLABUS ANSWER KEY AIRFRAME CURRICULUM SUBJECTS Task E20: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. A A C B C A B B 14. B 15. A Task E39: 1. 2. 3. 4. B C C B

Task C35: 1. B Task D36: 1. A Task D37: 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. A

Task E40: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. C B C A A

Task G50b: 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. B

A&P SYLLABUS ANSWER KEY POWERPLANT CURRICULUM SUBJECTS Task A1 1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. C Tasks E-17 & E18 1. B 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C Task H28 1. A 2. B 3. C Tasks J32a & J32b 1. 2. 3. 4. A C B A

Task K35 1. B Task K37 1. A 2. B Task K38 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. C C A B A B

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