Adult nursing test
1. Palliative surgery is surgery performed for:
A. Cosmetic improves the well-being
B. Healing remove a malignant tumor
C. Improving the quality of life without healing
D. Reconstruction of damaged tissues
2. Obesity in patients analyzed increases the risk of:
A. Surgical wound infection and pneumonia
B. Missing albumin and a tendency to anemia
C. Missing fluids and a tendency to headache
D. Surgical wound infection and increased pain
3. The cause of hypothermia) underground heat (during general
A. A decrease in metabolism, body spaces open, deliberate cooling
B. Increase metabolism, decrease in sodium, providing cold solutions
C. Increase in oxygen consumption, under-active glands, receiving
D. Decrease in oxygen consumption, increase muscle activity, advanced
4. When you receive a patient from surgery recovery room Notice to:
A. Diagnosis and type of surgery, type of anesthesia, conscious states,
B. Hemodynamic status, bowel sounds, osmotic skin, feeling legs
C. Bowel sounds, medication he received in the morning, the level of
sodium, potassium level
D. Calcium level, hemoglobin level, diagnosis and type of surgery, feeling
5. The main cause of a slowdown in breathing after surgery under general
A. Lack of fluids
B. Prolonged bed rest
C. Positive pressure ventilation
D. Pain relievers
24 hours - b) Deep Vein Thrombosis) DVT prevention of patient 6. Training
Earliest after surgery includes:
A. Lying complete
B. Lying on your side
C. Lying down with legs folded
D. Moving the legs in bed
7. normal sinus rhythm) NORMAL SINUS RHYTHEM (is:
A. Rhythm originating in 80-120 - SANODE beats per minute.
B. Rhythm originating in 60-100 - SANODE beats per minute.
C. Rhythm originating in 60-100 - AVNODE beats per minute.
D. Rhythm originating in 40-60 - AVNODE 8 beats per minute. QRS
A. Hdfolriztzih of corridors.
B. Harfolriztzih of corridors.
C. Hdfolriztzih of the rooms.
D. Harfolriztzih of the rooms.
9. As a possible complication of atrial fibrillation) ATRIAL FIBRILLATION (is:
D. Cardiac arrest.
01. The purpose of providing blockers angina is:
A. Decreasing listed angina pain.
B. Lowering the oxygen consumption by the heart muscle.
C. Raising the oxygen supply to the heart muscle.
D. Elevation of catecholamine levels.
11. Training patient who takes S.L. Nitroglycerin will include:
A. The beginning of the drug after 20 minutes.
B. You can take the medicine in a prophylactic.
C. You can take the medicine to 6 rounds in a row.
D. Must not break or chew the medication.
Tested 15 drops) - Total space medicine (100 CC in 20 mg IV Nitroglycerin
patient receives 12
) The set of 60 = 1CC drops (.Some Nitroglycerin mg is getting at:
13. The purpose of providing calcium blockers patient suffering from
angina Angina Pectoris:
A. Relaxing the arteries and reducing peripheral resistance.
B. Collapse arteries and increasing peripheral resistance.
C. Raising the filling volume and workload.
D. Raising the heart rate and increasing peripheral resistance.
14. The following signs and symptoms worsening characteristics right
heart failure, except:
A. Lower extremity edema.
B. Edema of view.
C. Congestion in the veins of the neck.
D. 15. Body weight gain. All the following modes can be given DIGOXIN
A. 2.5mEq blood potassium values \ L
B. Pulse 70 per minute, irregular
C. Blood creatinine values 1.1mg \ dL
D. Ill patient on IV FUSID
16. Which of the following characteristic worsening heart failure left?
17. The goal of treatment by IV Lasix (Fusid), Morphine Sulfate and oxygen
during pulmonary edema
A. Preload reduction, expansion of peripheral blood vessels, lowering
B. Prevention of pain, blood vessel constriction and increasing cardiac
C. Expansion of coronary vessels and slowing heart rate and respiration.
D. Coronary blood vessel constriction and improving cardiac output and
18. All of the following are given as initial treatment of acute myocardial
A. ACE blockers
19. The leading cause of death in the first hours after myocardial infarction
A. Atrial fibrillation ATRIAL FIBRILLATION
B. Fluttering rooms VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION
C. Heart failure.
D. Aneurysm ANEURYSMA.
20. The purpose of lowering the body temperature during open-heart
A. Prevent cardiac arrhythmia.
B. Lower blood pressure.
C. Lower oxygen consumption.
D. Raise your heart rate.
21. All of the following indicative of peripheral arterial disease except:
B. Pallor of the limb.
C. Foot skin ulcers.
D. Subcutaneous bleeding .. 22. Status of HYPOKALEMIA is against
granting any label following preparations, except for:
23. In order to prevent the development of Atelectasis is important for:
A. Deep breathing training
B. Unlimited amount of fluid
C. Women and Speed Training
D. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
24. All of the following are risk factors for pneumonia except:
Congestive Heart Failure A.
25 comments to - the tuberculin test will be checked for:
A. 12 hours the injection
B. 24 hours the injection
C. 48 hours of the injection
D. 96 hours of the injection
26. unexpected side effect - ISONIAZID - ISONICOTINIC ACID HYDRIDE is:
C. Hearing impairment
D. Visual impairment
27. The danger in giving oxygen flow and high concentration of patients
suffering from - COPD
She) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease)
A. Respiratory depression
B. Reduction in carbon dioxide
C. Increase in the level of carbon dioxide
D. Pulmonary died
28. The following are the complications of Asthma except:
Status Asthmaticus C.
Pulmonary d cor-29. Interference acid-base balance of the first stage of
typical Hypoxemia is:
Respiratory Alkalosis A.
B. Metabolic Alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis C.
Metabolic acidosis D.
?), Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD 30. Which of the
A. Time puff) Expirium (length
B. Time inhalation) Inspirium (length
C. Time puff) Expirium (abbreviated
D. Time inhalation) Inspirium (abbreviated
31. Which of the following characteristic Tension pneumothorax:
A. Air embolism, major blood vessels
B. Lung deviation affected side
C. Deviation barrel healthy side
D. An increase in cardiac output
32. The purpose of the provision of IV heparin patient who developed
pulmonary embolism) Pulmonary Emboly (she:
A. Dissolving the blood clot
B. Preventing attachment of platelets
C. Preventing clot formation again
D. Reduction of red blood cells
33. When treating a patient on a respirator has:
A. Strictly supine position
B. Perform Suction every two hours
C. Ensure full cylinders in 0.9% Saline 10cc
D. Make sure that the pressure in the balloon does not exceed 25 cm
34. complication of mechanical ventilation is:
A. IV of refunding
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. A decrease in cardiac output
D. Pulmonary edema
:) Bi-level positive airway pressure (PAP respirator bi-true method of about
35. Which of the following
A. Is performed by a mask that covers even and / or mouth
B. Appropriate to the patient under anesthesia
C. Can only be used in hospital
D. Requires Knesset Tracaostomi 36. According to the procedure, at the
time of Endotracheal Suction is important for the procedure:
A. Wearing gloves, mask and gown
B. Using suction catheter diameter of more than half the diameter of the
C. Injection of up to 0.9% NACL - 5cc into the tracheal tube before
D. Operation of the pumping system power of 300 mmHg
37. Smoking is harmful and is a risk factor for heart and blood vessels
A. Raises the level of - CO 2 and prevents the release of Catecholamines
B. Dilates blood vessels and increases the blood level of Catecholamines
C. Lowers Carboxihemoglobin
D. Constricted blood vessels and increases the level of - blood
38. The purpose of inserting a drain in my chest to the patient after
surgery in breast - Thoracic surgery is:
A. Creating a negative pressure in the chest
B. Creating a positive pressure in the chest
C. Chest pressure control
D. Aspiration Prevention
39. All of the following are typical complex chemical burns in the
A. Shock development
B. Appearance of upper respiratory tract edema
C. Development of esophageal stenosis
D. The expansion of the esophagus
40. Training patient suffering from Gastroesophagal Reflux general
guidance on how to:
A. Refraining from eating and drinking before bed
B. Door Economy cellulose and drinking
C. Wearing tight clothes
D. Many fat Economy
41. The applicant is treated guidance to Gastroscopy include the following
A. Receiving prophylactic antibiotics for two days
B. Fasting half an hour before the test
C. Receiving antacids about an hour before the test
D. Fasting one to two hours after the test
42. The common signs of ulcers Gastric Ulcer are:
A. Weight gain, Melena, pain half an hour - an hour after a meal
B. Weight loss, bloody vomiting, pain in half an hour to an hour after a
C. Reducing postprandial pain, bloody vomiting, pain relief Eating
D. Common pain at night, pain goes after vomiting, bloody vomit
43. The final diagnosis the presence of Helicobacter pylori do by
A. Barium swallow
B. Gastroscopy) Gastroscopy (
C. You will notice Urea) Urea Test (
D. 44. Gastric pH test patient training to reduce risk of flooding syndrome)
dumping syndrome (include guidelines for:
A. Economy many carbs, drinking during a meal, eating position
B. Economy carb, drinking during a meal, eating position orthopnea.
C. Economy many carbohydrates, avoiding drinking during a meal, eating
a half-sitting position.
D. Economy carb, avoiding drinking during a meal, eating a half-sitting
45. The main factor is economic development Diverticulitis door:
46. The main reason for the decrease in the volume of fluid in the blood in
a state of feline infectious peritonitis) Peritonitis (she:
A. Multiple diarrhea
B. Fluid from the blood into cells
C. Zonda presence drains
D. Fluid from the blood vessels into the abdominal cavity
47. Training chronic inflammatory bowel disease includes instruction in
A. Multi cellulose, low-protein, low-calorie
B. Cellulose door, multi-protein, high-calorie
C. Multi-cellular, multi-protein, low-calorie
D. Door cellulose, low-protein, high-calorie
48. Stoma (Stoma) is in good condition when it is:
A. Dry, dark red color to brown
B. Brilliant, bright pink color to white
C. Brilliant pink color to bright red
D. Dry, brown to black color
49. Training is treated with Ileostomy include the following instruction:
A. Back to normal economy postoperative week
B. Avoiding foods rich in cellulose) fibers (
C. Avoiding foods that contain vitamin K
D. Drinking little to prevent diarrhea
50. The typical picture of arterial blood gases in a thin bowel obstruction
accompanied by vomiting, is:
A. Metabolic acidosis Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic Metabolic Alkalosis hesitates
D. Respiratory Respiratory Alkalosis hesitates
51. The most common signs of descending colon cancer are:
A. Abdominal pain
B. Rectal pain
C. Changes in bowel habits
D. Loss of appetite 52. Transfer of hepatitis C virus is through:
A. Contaminated food and drinking water
B. Touch hands with an
C. Giving blood and its products of carrier
53. Instruction regarding the release of a patient with active hepatitis B
will include guidance for:
A. Food in isolation tool
B. Refraining from sex
C. Using a condom
D. Insulating substrates at
54. Characteristics of cirrhosis are:
A. Esophageal varices, ascites, liver size change, lack of vitamin K
B. Neck venous congestion, ascites, liver size change, sodium
C. Esophageal varices, edema of view, increasing the spleen, excess
D. Neck venous congestion, ascites, spleen enlargement, lack of sodium
55. complication of the presence Sengstaken Blakmore Tube patient with
liver cirrhosis is:
Hepatic encephalopathy A.
B. Bleeding esophageal varices
C. Ulceration and necrosis of the esophagus or stomach
D. Ascites Ascites
56. The patient nutritional guidance suffering from cirrhosis with ascites
and signs of brain injury include:
A. Economy many high-calorie fat
B. Economy many low calorie protein
C. Economics low-calorie, low-fat
D. Economy high-calorie, low-protein
57 days after Cholecystectomy Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy
Laparoscopic method typical
Paralytic Ileus A.
B. Normal peristalsis
C. Stomach expansion
Pyloric stenosis D.
58. All these drugs are recommended for treating pain due to biliary
59. The common signs of pancreatic head cancer are:
A. Jaundice, weight gain, diarrhea, alopecia
B. Jaundice, weight loss, loss of appetite, onset of diabetes
C. Pallor, weight loss, constipation, onset of diabetes
D. Pallor, weight gain, loss of appetite, hair loss 60. The immediate
complication of acute pancreatitis is:
A. Decrease in sugar
B. Increase in the level of calcium
C. Breathing patterns violation
D. Pulmonary embolism
61. Risk factors for fecal stones are:
A. Making enemas and taking candles
B. Changes in bowel habits and drinking
C. Constipation, drink and Economics minority fiber door
D. Powerful economy cellulose, drinking and diarrhea minority
: The index is used (Body Mass Index) BMI 62
A. Evaluation of Fluid
B. Nutritional Assessment
C. Accumulation of fluid in the body
D. Accumulation of muscle mass
63. According to the procedure all of the following diagnostic measures are
feeding Zonda location unconscious patient who is not
A. PH Test
B. Performing chest X-ray
C. Washing the probe with 0.9% Saline
(Computer Tomography) C.T D.
64. The signs and symptoms of shock mode sub-volumes - Hypovolemic
Shock, phase compensation They Compensatory Stage
A. L.d right - a little lower, a decrease in breathing, heart rate above 150,
red skin, hot and humid
B. Elite L.d, the number of normal breathing, heart rate below 60, clammy
C. L.d decline, rise in breathing, pulse 80, hot and dry skin
D. L.d right - a little lower, rise in breathing, heart rate above 100, cold
and pale skin
65. to the developing state of shock sub-volumes - Hypovolemic Shock
A. A lack of fluids, blood
B. Dehydration, heart failure
C. Diarrhea, spinal cord injury
D. Vomiting, sensitivity to drugs
66. The most common solution is given stun mode:
D. No matter the type of solution
67. Compensation Renin Angiotensin System will operate in a Aldosteron:
A. Excess fluid, decreased perfusion, blood pressure increases
B. Lack of fluids, normal perfusion, blood pressure increases
C. Excess fluid, normal perfusion, decreased blood pressure, d. Lack of
fluids, decrease perfusion, hypotensive
68. The most relevant laboratory tests evaluate the state of fluid in the
Hematocrit, Natrium, Urea, osmolarity A.
Hemoglobin, osmolarity, Kalium, Natrium B.
Creatinin, Hematocrit, Calcium, Natrium C.
Hemoglobin, Creatinin, Phosphore, Kalium D.
69. The primary function of the sodium is:
A. Save vascular fluid volume
B. Save fluid inside the cell volume
C. Regulation and function of smooth muscle skeleton
D. Regulation of heart muscle activity
70. The rationale for the provision of Calcium Gluconate in a Hyperkalemia
is because calcium:
A. Reduces the level of potassium in the blood
B. Potassium operation increases the heart muscle
C. Raises blood pressure
D. Potassium neutralizes the action of the heart muscle
71. B - Hypokalemia likely to appear:
72. All of the following are complications caused by giving TPN - Total
Parenteral Nutrition except:
A. Changes Alktrolitrim
B. Increase in the level of sugar
73. The immediate cessation of central line with TPN solution - Total
Parenteral Nutrition may cause:
74. Signs and symptoms of air embolism are:
A. Hyperventilation, strong rapid pulse, blood pressure increases
B. Dyspnea, central cyanosis, weak pulse, blood pressure drop
C. Rise in blood pressure, abnormal breath sounds, decrease in CVP
D. Drop in blood pressure, abnormal breath sounds, increase urine output
75. All of the following are immediate complications of central line
insertion into a vein sub bolts) Subclavia (except:
B. Air embolism
C. D arrhythmias. Sepsis
76. The most common cause inflammation of the vein Phlebitis is:
A. Concentrated solution
B. Deviation from a vein
C. Cessation of the infusion
D. Diluted solutions
CVP 77 will be high in all modes except for the following: _
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Edema of view
C. Chronic kidney disease
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
78. According to the procedure for giving blood, affixing a sticker with the
patient information on the tube for a blood sample to perform type
A. At the nurse station before taking a blood sample
B. After taking a blood sample, while putting the test tube test cart
C. Before taking a blood sample, when preparing the test tube
D. At the bedside while taking a blood sample
79. According to the procedure for giving blood, blood that can not be
during 5 hours after arrival Department has:
A. Keep in the fridge Department
B. Throw away special
C. Put in freezer
D. Restore blood bank
80. According to the procedure for giving blood, when developing a blood
transfusion reaction, immediate intervention is:
A. Slow the rate of giving blood and notify your
B. Slow the rate of giving blood and report additional registered nurse.
C. Stop the infusion and give solution 0.9% NACL new set and notify your
D. Stop the infusion and give the same set of 0.9% NACL and report
additional registered nurse.
81. Which of the following physiological changes occurring in NREM?
A. Rise in blood pressure
B. Peripheral vascular contraction
C. Decrease in metabolism to 30%
D. Increase in activity in the gastrointestinal tract
Pulse 82. Nimos apical region of:
C. Cutting the heart.
83. What is the nursing intervention in a patient needed Hypothermia?
A. The patient's skin cooling
B. Cover the patient and providing hot drinks
C. Cover the patient with alcohol-soaked compresses d. Unlimited amount
84. Which of the following factors to - Hypotension?
A. NSAIDs family medication
B. Thiazides family medication
C. Peripheral vascular contraction suddenly
D. Physical or mental stress
85. alternate volume breath right - Tidal Volume, irregular and slow pace is
Cheyne Stocks D.
86. In some cases the patient needs care here?
A. High fever and diarrhea
B. Fasting and feeding tube drains
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Over the age of 80 with dentures
87. According to procedure, decision authority to administer medicines
OTC is the procedure:
A. Practical nurse.
B. Registered Nurse.
C. A registered nurse with a bachelor's degree.
D. A registered nurse with a personal permission.
88. which of the following ways a drug delivery is the fastest absorption:
90. According to the procedure, the counting of dangerous drugs in the
medicine cabinet will be directed:
A. Once a day.
B. At the beginning of each shift.
C. Once in 48 hours.
D. 91 weekly. When you come to give the medication to the patient, she
removed her neighbor in the shower room. How should you
Act in accordance with the procedure:
A. Keep the glass medicine cabinets and have your neighbor to keep the
B. Take a shot with the drug and return later
C. Into the shower and give her the medicine
D. Ask another nurse to give the drug at the end of the bathing
92. As part of the hospitalization the patient expresses his desire to take
his medication alone, how the nurse
A. Assess the ability of the patient to take the medication alone
B. Tell the patient that hospitalization alone does not take drugs
C. Allow the patient to do what he wants
D. Take medication and store cupboard Department
93. What measures you take to avoid needle stick?
A. Closing at the end of the injection needle
B. Only President syringe tray
C. Using double gloves
D. Preparatory keeping distance from the nurse syringe medicine
94 patients with low body resistance, be sure to:
A. Patient isolation from the environment.
B. Isolation patient's respiratory secretions.
C. Double gloves treatment.
D. Isolation discharge the patient's digestive system.
95. For a more patient readiness is expected when:
A. Has just received medication for the pain he felt strong
B. Long examination was repeated in the course of 6 hours and fasting
C. Reported anxiety and extreme restlessness seems
D. Ask about the side effects of medication
96. All are the complications of treatment by Morphine Controlled Release
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Increased tendency to sleep at the beginning of treatment
C. Urinary retention
97. pain assessment should be performed for each patient according to
the guidelines of the Ministry of Health:
A. At least once a day.
B. Only when in pain.
C. According to department procedures.
D. 98 if necessary. All of the following are true regarding the method (PCA
(patient controlled analgesia except:
A. An increase in the consumption amount of analgesic drugs
B. Reducing the patient's anxiety level
C. Reducing complications after surgery
D. Weaning the patient's clinical team
99 patients after acute myocardial infarction bedridden. Prevention of
Deep Vein development (DVT
Thrombosis (you going to recommend it:
A. Walking exercises several times a day
B. Get out of bed in the morning armchair few hours
C. Lie on your back with a pillow under your feet
D. Avoid all unnecessary movement
100. The main cause pressure wound healing contributor:
A. Low level of serum Albumin
B. Hemoglobin level higher than 11gm \ Dl
C. Reducing the pressure from the wound
D. Increasing carbohydrate intake