Bank Clerk Question Paper

REASONING 1. The positions of the first and fifth digits in the number 53146872 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth, digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fifth digit from the right end after the rearrangement? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 1 (5) None of these 2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) Water (2) Juice (3) Petrol (4) Sugar (5) None of these 3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word? (1)' None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these 4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TROUBLE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ? (I) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these 5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group? (1) 343 (2) 64 (3) 75 (4) 27 (5) None of these 6. How many such digits are there in the number 586972 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than Three 7. What should come next in the following number series ? 987654321876543217654321 (1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 6 (5) None of these

8.. `Iron' is related to' Solid in the same way as 'Mercury' is related to ? (1) Solid (2) Gas (3) Liquid (4) Vapour

(5) None of these

9. In a certain code BRIGHT is written as JSCSGF. How is JOINED written in that code ? (1) HNIEFO (2) JPKEFO (3) JPKMDC (4) KPJCDM (5) None of these 10. In a certain code BOARD is written as 51324 and SIDE is written as 9647. How is BASE written in that code ? (1) 5397 (2),5937 (3) 5697 (4) 5297 (5) None of these Directions (11-16) : In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logicalh, follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. Give answer (5) if both conclusionsI and II follow. 11. Statements : All bulbs are tubes. Some tubes are knives. All knives are frames. Conclusions : I. Some frames are tubes. II. Some knives are bulbs. 12. Statements : Some tents are houses. All houses are buildings. Some buildings are huts. Conclusions : 1. Some huts are houses. II. Some buildings are tents. 13. Statements : Some beads are chairs. All chairs are desks. All desks are tables. Conclusions : I. Some tables are beads. II. Some desks are beads. 14. Statements : All mangoes are apples. All apples are bananas. Some bananas are grapes. Conclusions : I. Some grapes are mangoes. II. Some bananas are mangoes. 15. Statements : All books are pens. Some pens are papers. Some papers are crystals. Conclusions : I. Some crystals are pens. II. Some papers are books. 16. Statements : All goats are lions. No lion is tiger. Some tigers are horses. Conclusions : I. Some horses are goats. II. No horse is goat.

Directions (17-22) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the following questions given below : E4B%R3A6#FH@12D9©KU$WlMP5*Q8T 17. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the ninth to the left of W? (1) A (2) # (3) R (4) © (5) None of these 18. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than Three 19. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the eighteenth from the right end of the above arrangement? (1) © (2) I (3) A (4) M (5) None of these 20. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the twelfth from the left end of the above arrangement? (1) 2 (2) D (3) 9 (4) M (5) None of these 21. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) F@# (2) D19 (3) U@$ (4) %3B (5) 5QM 22. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a number ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four Directions (23-28) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 23. Town Q is towards which direction of town R ? I. Town R is towards East of town B. II. Town B is towards North to town Q. 24. How is 'never' written a code language ? 1. 'never do this' is written as 'pa da na' in that code language and 'do this again' is written as 'na ka da' in that

code language. ll.'always do this* is written as . ma pa ja- in that code language. 25. What is Ks position from the left end of a row of thirty children ? 1. D is tenth from the right end of the row and there are five children between D and K. II. There are nine children between K and M. 26. How many sons does F have ? I. B and D are the only sisters of K. II. F is mother of K. 27. Among P,Q,R,S andT each having a different height who is the shortest ? I. Q and R are taller than only P and T. 11. R is shorter than S. 28. How is M related to D ? 1. J is father of D and T. II. F is son of M and brother of D. Directions (29-34) : The symbols @, ©, $, % and * are used with different meanings as follows : 'P ©Q' means 'P is either greater than or equal to Q'. 'P $ Q' means 'P is either smaller than or equal to Q'. 'P % Q' means 'Pis neither greater than nor smaller than Q. P * Q' means -13 is greater than Q'. T @ Q' means 'Pis smaller than Q'. In each of the following question assuming the given statements to I true, find out which of the two concli sions I and II given below them is/a definitely true. 29. Statements : F * G, G @ R, R (9 K Conclusions : I. K * G II. RQF 30. Statements : E @ K, K Oa M, M * R Conclusions : I. R @ K 11. M@E 31. Statements : W$N, N%B, B*F Conclusions : I. B % W 11. B * W 32. Statements : M%T, T*J, J©D Conclusions : I. D @ T II. J @ M 33. Statements : B@H, H$N, N%F

Conclusions : 1. F © H II. N * B 34. Statements : Y * M, M % N, N $ D Conclusions : I. Y*N II. D * M Directions (35 - 40) Study the following information carefully and a saver the questions given below : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. E is second to the left of F and third to the right of A. B is third to the right of G who is not an immediate neighbour of E or F. C is second to the right of B. D is to the immediate left of A and third to the left of H. 35. What is F's position with respect to G? (1) Third to the left (2) Third to the right (3) Fifth to the left (4) Fifth to the right (5) None of these 36. Who is the fifth to the right of C (1) H (2) G

(3) E

(4) B

(5) None of these

37. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to be immediate left of the second person? (1)BE (2) FB (3)DC (4) GH (5) None of these 38. Who is third to the left of E ? (1) H (2) D 39. Who is to the immediate right of A ? (1) H (2) G 40. Who is to the immediate left of E (1) H (2) B

(3) G

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

(3) D

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

(3) G

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Problem Figure
41

Answer Figure

42

43

44

45.

46

47

48

49

50.

Directions (51-65): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain

ENGLISH USAGE
Directions (51-65): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Once upon a time, there was a rich merchant who had four wives. He loved the fourth wife the most and adorned her with rich robes and treated her to delicacies. He took great care of her and gave her nothing but the best. He also loved the third wife very much. He was very proud of her and always wanted to show her off to his friends. However, the merchant was always in great fear that she might run away with some other men. He loved his second wife too. She was a very considerate person, always patient and in fact was the merchant's confidante. Whenever the merchant faced some problems, he always turned to his second wife and she would always help him out and tide him through difficult times. Now, the merchant's first wife was a very loyal partner and had made great contributions in maintaining his wealth and business as well as taking care of the household. However, the merchant did not love the first wife and although she loved him deeply, he hardly took notice of her. One day, the merchant fell ill. Before long, he knew that he was going to die soon. He thought of his luxurious

wife and told himself, ―Now I have four wives with me. But when I die, I'll be alone. How lonely I'll be!" Thus. he asked the fourth wife, ―I loved you the most, endowed you with the finest clothing and showered great care over you. Now that I am dying, will you follow me and keep me company?‖ ―No way‖! replied the fourth wife and she walked away without another word. The answer cut like a sharp knife right into the merchant’s heart.The sad merchant then asked the third wife, ―I have loved you so much for all my life. Now that I am dying, will you follow me and keep me company? ‖ ―No!‖ replied the third wife! ―Life is so good over here. I am going to remarry when you die!‖ The merchant’s heart sank and turned cold. He then asked the second wife, ―I always turned to you for help and you have always helped me out. Now I need your help again. When I die, wll you follow me and keep me company?‖ ―I am sorry, I cann’t help you this time!‖ replied the second wife. ―At the very most I can only send you to your grave .‖ the answer came like a bolt of thunder and the merchant was devastated. Then a voice called out,‖ I’ll leave with you. I’ll follow you no matter where you go.‖The merchant looked up and there was his first wife. She was so skinny, almost like she suffered from malnutrition. Greatly grieved, the merchant said ―I should have taken much greater care of you while I could have !‖ Actually, we all have four wives in our lives. The fourth wife is our body. No matter how much time and effort we lavish in making it look good, it’ll leave us when we die. Our third wife is our possessions, status and wealth. When we die, they all go to others. The second wife is our family and friends .No matter how close the had been to us when we’re alive, the furthest they can stay by us is up to the grave. The first wife is in fact our soul, often neglected in our pursuit of material, wealth and sensual pleasure. It is actually the only thing that follows us wherever we go. Perhaps, it’s a good idea to cultivate and strengthen it now rather than to wait until we’re on our deathbed to lament. 51. What did the merchant want to do with his third wife ? (1) To buy good clothes for her (2) To give her away to his friends, (3) To show her off to his friends (4) To share his problems with her (5) None of these 52. What was the second wife's quality ? (1) She helped the merchant during tough times (2) She helped the merchant in his business,, (3) She made the,merchant feel proud (4) She contributed to the merchant's wealth (5) None of these 53. What does the phrase 'cut like a sharp knife' as used in the passage mean ? (1) Injure (2) Bleed (3) Dangerous (4) Hurt (5) None of these 54. Which of the following is possibly NOT a characteristic of the first wife as given in the passage ? (1) Caring (2) Beautiful (3) Thin (4) Loyal (5) All of the above are characteristics of the first wife 55. What fear did the merchant have about his third wife ?

(1) That she would kill him (2) That she would not accompany him when he died (3) That she would run away with some other men (4) That she would not look beautiful any more (5) None of these

56. What explanation did the fourth wife give for not accompanying the merchant when he was dying? (1) She wanted more money (2) She did not give any explanation. (3) She wanted to marry some-me else after the merchant's death (4) She was afraid to go with him (5) None of these 57. Why did the first wife offer to go with the merchant when he died ? (1) Because she loved him (2) Because she was afraid to stew alone (3) Because she hated the other wives (4) Ekrause she was undernourished and was going to die anyway (5) None of these 58. The author has compared the merchant’s fourth wife to our (I) Soul (2) Wealth (3) Friends 59. What does the author have to say about our soul ? (1) That it is well taken care of (2) That it can give us company only till our death (3) That it has been ignored in the chase for worldly pleasures (4) That it belongs to someone else after our death (5) None of these 60. What does the phrase ‘like a bolt of thunder' used in the passage mean ? (1) like a very bright light (2) like a pleasant feeling (3) like a loud noise (4) like a shock (5) None of these Directions (61-63) : Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 61. ADORNED (1) spent (2) dressed (3) tried (4) carried (5) necklace 62. SHOWERED (1) bestowed

(4) Status

(5) None of these

(2) cleaned

(3) pleased

(4) bathed

(5) threw

63. LAMENT (1) fear (2) tell

(3) grieve

(4) care

(5) forget

Directions (64-65) : Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 64. CONSIDERATE (1) ignorant (2) lazy 65. FURTHEST (1) longest (2) closest

(3) angry

(4) thoughtful

(5) insensitive

(3) greatest

(4) shortest

(5) wildest

Directions (66-70) : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction is required', mark (5) as the answer. 66. I woke up early in the morning and had a steamer cup of coffee. (1) has a steamer (2) has a steaming (3) had a steaming (4) had a steam, (5) No correction required 67. Tired of being harassed by the goons, I finally called the police and complained. (1) in being harassed (2) of being harass (3) in be harassed (4) of be harass (5) No correction required 68. A friendship founded on business is best than a business founded on friendship. (1) is good than (2) is better than (3) is bestest than (4) is better then (5) No correction required. 69. Right action cannot came out of nothing, it must be preceded by thought. (1) come out of (2) came out off (3) come of (4) coming out of (5) No correction required

70. One of the base laws of nature is that adaptability is the price of survival. (1) basis laws of (2) basic law of (3) base law of (4) basic laws of (5) No correction required

Directions (71-75) : In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is, wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. 'All correct' as your answer 71. Oportunities (1)/ multiply (2)/ when they are seized (3)/ and die (4)/ when they are not. All correct (5) 72. He realized (1)/ he was alone(2)/ in the house and rushed(3) / to bolt (4)/ all the doors and windows. All correct (5) 71 The information (1)/ provided (2)/ to the staff was not adecuate (3)/ and everyone retaliated. (4)/ All correct (5) 74. Worried (1)/ that he will fail in the exams, Satish stayed (2) / up the whole knight (3)/ and studied. (4)/ All correct (5) 75. Thomas could not cook (1)/ very well and thus had to stay (2)/ food from (3) / a restaurant. (4)/ All correct (5) Directions (76-80) : Rearrange -he following six sentences (A), (B) (C), D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (A) She eased out something from her waist folds. (B) Maganlal welcomed a customer early in the day. (C) Once visible, Maganlal realized it was a pair of gold bangles. (D) The woman carefully counted the money and then left. (E) He took the bangles and placed some money in the women's palm. (F) This customer was a peasant woman wearing a discoloured sari and old anklets. 76. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

77. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F 78. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

79. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ? (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F 80. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F Directions (81-90) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any). 81. Progress is impossible (1)/ without change, and those (2)/ who cannot change their minds (3)/ cannot change nothing. (4)/ No error (5) 82. She was allergic (1)/ to some medicines (2)/ and informed (3)/ the doctor about it. (4)/ No error (5) 83. He walked as faster as he could so that (2)/ he would not (3)/ miss the train to work. (4)/ No error (5) 84. She shared (1)/ all her secrets with (2) / Suman as they had been (3) / friends with childhood. (4)/ No error (5) 85. Gautam did not care (1) / so many about (2) / anything else as much (3) / as he cared for his dog. (4)/ No error (5) 86. You cannot change (1)/ people, but you (2)/ can definitely (3)/ change own. (4)/ No error (5) 87. Veena wanted to (1)/ become a surgeon (2)/ and worked very hardly (3)/ to achieve this. (4)/ No error (5) 88. Krishna ran to the (1)/ nearing grocery store to (2) / buy biscuits as his parents (3)/ were expecting guests. (4)/ No error (5) 89. As soon so (1)/ he came home, (2)/ he showered and got (3)/ ready to go out again. (4)/ No error (5) 90. She failed to remember (1)/ that it was Rema's birthday (2)/ and did not buy (3)/ a present for her. (4)/ No error (5) Directions (91-100) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. One of the good things that happened to me (91) in Patliputra (92) the friendship of the farmer's daughter. This nine year old girl (93) became very fond of me and her parents (94) her that she could keep me forever as her toy. She was very good at needlecraft and (95) clothes for her doll. In fact, on my first night there and (96) the rest of my stay in the farmer's house, I slept in her doll's cradle. That first night, they put the cradle on (97) of a shelf far away from the danger of rats. As I slowly got to learn their language. I was (98) to talk to the girl and let her know my needs and she was able to make me (99) comfortable. She made me seven shirts and was my teacher of the language. When I pointed to anything, she would (100) it by name, and soon I was able to talk easily with her.

91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.

(1) waiting (1) for (1) soon (1) handled (1) tore (1) to (1) bottom (1) possible (1) every (1) call

(2) truly (2) was (2) had (2) worried (2) tearing (2) as (2) top

(3) till (3) because (3) was (3) taught (3) making (3) for (3) coating

(4) still (4) is (4) has

(5) while (5) it (5) forever

(4) promised (5) carried (4) wore (4) of (4) height (4) able (4) high (4) help (5) make (5) if (5) wide (5) request (5) more (5) hit

(2) happiness (3) eagerly (2) thorough (3) total (2) ask (3) throw

NUMERICAL ABILITY
Directions (101-125) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ? 101. 38.7 x 14.5x6.4=?;. (1) 3564.88 (2) 3548.42 (3) 3591.36 (4) 3599.04 (5) None of these

102. 56% of 616 - ? % of 482 = 103.96 (1) 40 (2) 52 (3) 45 103. 555 x 61 - 25000 = ? (1) 8855 (2) 8558 104. 801÷10÷0.45=? (1) 172 (2) 178 105. 28/5x 20/7=? (1) 13 (2) 17 106. 48% of 718=? (1) 346.64 (2) 348.46 107. ? ÷ 69 x 26 = 754 (1) 2003 (2) 2005

(4) 50

(5) None of these

(3) 8585

(4) 8858

(5) None of these

(3) 174

(4) 176

(5) None of these

(3) 21

(4) 25

(5) None of these

(3) 342.46

(4)344.64

(5) None of these

(3) 2001

(4) 2007

(5) None of these

108. 6.8 x 8.8 x 11.9 - 202.596 ? (1) 510.5 (2) 509.5 109.17^(12)x17^(4) =? (1) 1716 (2) 1748 110. 556.65 + 65.65 + 56.65 = ? (1) 676.05 (2) 678.95 111. 3412 + 4367 + 5590 = ? (1) 13121 (2) 13245 112. 3328 - (64 x 0.80) = ? (1) 63 (2) 68 113.16.4 x ? = 590.4 (1) 31 (2) 33 114.453 x 112 – 3320^2 = ? (1) 3755 (2) 3745 115. 98678 - 45099 - 10036 = ? (1) 43543 (2) 45343 116. 16 x ? = 4704 ÷ 7 (1) 12 (2) 18 117. 3/4 of 5/6 of 7/6 of 1664 = ? (1) 648 (2) 762

(3) 508.5

(4) 507.5

(5) None of these

(3) 178

(4) 173

(5) None of these

(3) 682.55

(4) 684.8

(5) None of these

(3) 13369

(4) 13487

(5) None of these

(3) 65

(4) 71

(5) None of these

(3) 35

(4) 37

(5) None of these

(3) 3735

(4) 3725

(5) None of these

(3) 44353

(4) 43345

(5) None of these

(3) 24

(4) 36

(5) None of these

(3) 612

(4) 728

(5) None of these

118. 15118 -- 9238 - 1179 = ? x 77 (1) 307 (2) 305 (3) 303 119. √?+18 = √1444 (1) 441 (2) 361 120. 69% of 778 + ? = 666 (1) 129.18 (2) 131.12 12L 3397 + 3401 = ? x 66 (1) 100 (2) 102 122.7605 ÷ 45 = ? (1) 121 (2) 142 123.79296 ÷ √? =112x12 (1)3481 (2) 3721

(4) 301

(3) None of these

(3) 400

(4) 484

(5) None of these

(3) 133.24

(4) 135.36

(5) None of these

(3) 104

(4) 106

(5) None of these

(3) 16:

(4) 182

(5) None of these

(3) 3969

(4) 3249

(5) None of these

124. 88916 + 31245 = ? + 58734 (1) 61417 (2) 61427 (3) 61437 125.1276.34 - 783.11 + 217.84 ? (1) 691.07 (2) 711.07 (3) 701.07

(4) 61447

(5) None of these

(4) 681.07

(5) None of these

126. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 4095. What is the greater number ? (1) 61 (2) 63 (3) 57 (4) 59 (5) None of these 127. What is 238 times 411 ? (1) 98718 (2) 97888 (3) 98788

(4) 97818

(5) None of these

128. A car covers a distance of kms. in 9 hours. What is speed of the car ? (1) 78 kms./hr. (2) 76 kms./hr. (3) 74 kms (4) Cannot be determined(5) None of these 129. What would be the compounc - terest obtained on an amount Rs. 7500 at the rate of 9 p. c. after 3 years ? (1) Rs. 2812.7175 (2) Rs. 2612.7175 (3) Rs. 2412.7175 (4) Rs. 2212.7175 (5) None of these 130. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 4562 + 67 x (34)2 + 89 = ? (1) 74800 (2) 75800 (3) 76800 (4) 77800 (5) None of these 131. What is the least number of to`_~ added to 666 to make it a perfe:: square ? (1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40 (5) None of these 132. What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 11,975 at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. after 7 years ? (1) Rs. 4704 (2) Rs. 5705 (3) Rs. 6706 (4) Rs. 7707 (5) None of these

133. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 16 years. The ratio of their ages is 7 : 1 respectively. What is the woman's age ? (1) 4 years (2) 28 years (3) 32 years (4) 6 years (5) None of these 134. If (51)2 is added to the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 15826. What is the number ? (1) 115 (2) 114 (3) 116 (4) 113 (5) None of these 135. If (20)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 4321. What is the number ? (1) 110 (2) 111 (3) 112 (4) 113 (5) None of these 136. In an examination Utsav scores a total of 367 marks out of 545. What is his approximate percentage in the examination.? (1)74 (2) 55 (3)59 (4) 83 (5) 67

137.Mrs. Urja Mohite deposits an amount of Rs. 66,700 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 8p.c.p.a. for 4 years. What total amount will Mrs. Urja Mohite get at the end of 4 years ? (1)Rs. 21344 (2) Rs. 284583. (3) Rs. 44022 (4) Rs. 88044 (5) None of these 138. Deven invests Rs. 2,34,558 which is 25% of his annual income, in National Saving Schemes. What is his monthly income ? (1)Rs. 9,38,232 (2) Rs. 78,186 (3)Rs. 4,69,116 (4)Rs. 2,34,558 (5) None of these 139. In an examination it is required to get 296 marks out of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 222 marks and is declared failed by 10% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get ? (1) 830 (2) 810 (3) 780 (4) 760 (5) None of these 140. There are 1240 employees in an organisation. Out of which 25% got promoted. How many such employees are there who got promotion ? (1) 398 (2) 345 (3) 310 (4) 372 (5) None of these 141. The cost of 12 cabinets and 16 dressers is Rs. 18,936. What is the cost of 9 cabinets and 12 dressers ? (1) Rs. 25,248 (2) Rs. 12,624 (3) Rs. 14,202 (4) Rs. 16,832 (5) None of these

142. A canteen requires 84 kgs. of wheat for 7 days. How much kgs. of wheat will it require for the months of May and June ? (1) 716 kgs. (2) 732 kgs. (3) 748 kgs. (4) 764 kgs. (5) None of these 143.78% of a number is 2496. What is 55% of that number ? (1) 1815 (2) 1650 (3) 1760 (4) 1705

(5) None of these

144. If an amount of Rs. 2,47,608 is distributed equally amongst 76 persons, how much amount would each person get ? (1) Rs. 3,258 (2) Rs. 3,358 (3) Rs. 3,158 (4) Rs. 3,458 (5) None of these 145. If the fractions 19/21, 21/25, 25/29, 29/31 and 31/37 are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the second ? (1)19/21 (2)21/25 (3)25/29 (4) 29/31 (5) None of these 146. Find the average of the following set of scores : 568, 460, 349, 987, 105, 178, 426 (1) 442 (2)441 (3) 440

(4) 439

(5) None of these

147. The difference between 78% of a number and 59% of the same number is 323. What is 62% of that number ? (1) 1071 (2) 1178 (3) 1037 (4) 1159 (5) None of these 148. The total number of students in a school is 8670. If the number of boys in the school is 4545, then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school ? (1) 303 : 275 (2) 275 : 303 (3) 11 : 12 (4) 12 : 11 (5) None of these

149. The average of 4 consecutive even numbers is 103. What is the product of smallest and the largest number ? (1) 10400 (2) 10504 (3) 10605 (4) 10600 (5) None of these

150. The owner of a watch shop charges his customer 22% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 8,906 for a wrist watch then what was the cost price of the wrist watch ? (1) Rs. 7,300 (2) Rs. 7,500 (3) Rs. 7,700 (4) Rs. 7,900 (5) None of these

General Awareness with special reference to banking industry
151. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding non-convertible debentures (NCD)? (1) NCD is a debt instrument issued by a financial institution way of private placement. (2) NCD is a debt instrument issued by a corporate (including NBFCs) way- of private placement. (3)NCD is debt instrument issued by a corporate (including NBFCs) way of public issue. (4) NCD is an equity instrument issued by a corporate (including NBFCs) way of private placement. (5) None of these 152. What is the minimum and maximum maturity period in case of non-convertible debentures ? (1) minimum 7 days and maximum 12 months (2) minimum 7 days and maximum 3 months (3) minimum 90 days and maximum 12 months (4) minimum 6 months and maximum 12 months (5) None of these 153. For retail electronic payment system such as NEFT/RTGS/ECS, the clearing houses or processing centres are to recover the following charges from the originating bank for return transactions, with effect from 1st July 2011 : (1) 50 paise exclusive of senice tax (2) 25 paise exclusive of service tax (3) 20 paise exclusive of service tax (4) 10 paise exclusive of service tax (5) None of these

154. When a person resident in India leaves India for Nepal or Bhutan for taking up employment, or for carrying on business or vocation outside India or for any other purpose indicating her / his stay outside India for an uncertain period, her / his existing account should be designated as a Account. (1) Continue to be a Resident account (2) Non-resident ordinary (3) Resident foreign currency account (4) RFC domestic account (5) None of these

155. When a person resident in India leaves India for a country (other than Nepal or Bhutan} for taking on business or vocation outside India or for any other purpose indicating her / his stay outside India for an uncertain period, her/his existing account should be designated as a Account. (1) Continue to be a Resident account (2) Non-resident ordinary (3) Resident foreign currency account (4) RFC domestic account (5) None of these 156. A joint liability group and a self help group has approached the bank to open a bank account: (1) banks can open non-interest bearing current account only (2) banks can open non-interest bearing saving account only (3) banks can open a normal saving bank account (4) banks cannot open an account (5) None of these 157. In order to minimise the instances of frauds, the banks have been advised by RBI to take which of the following actions (A) have in place "staff rotation" policy (B) have in place policy for "mandatory leave" for staff' (C) internal auditors/concurrent auditors must be specifically required to examine the implementation of these policies (D) decisions taken/ transactions effected by officers and staff not rotated/ availing leave as per policy, should be subjected to comprehensive examination by the internal auditors/inspectors/concurrent auditors. (1) Only (A), (B) and (C) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) and (C) (4) All of the above (5) None of these

158. Exposure ceiling in respect of a single borrower in case of an infrastructure company can be (1) maximum 15% of the networth of the bank (2) minimum 15% of the capital fund of the bank (3) maximum 20% of the capital fund of the bank (4) minimum 25% of the capital fund of the bank (5) None of these 159. Which of the following statements is not correct in respect of exposure in the form of bills discounted under LC issued by other bank ? (1) exposure will be taken as exposure towards the LC issuing bank and not the borrower unless the discounting is under reserve (2) exposure will be taken as exposure towards the LC issuing bank and the borrower both (3) exposure will be taken as exposure towards the borrower (4) All are correct (5) None of these

160. Which of the folio-wing statements is not correct regarding exposure (lending and investment including non-fund based exposure) to NBFCs? (1) single NBFC : 15% (2) single NBFC-Asset Finance Companies : 15% (3) single infrastructure finance companies: 15% (4) single infrastructure finance companies where is for on-lending to infrastructure sector : 20% (5) None of these 161. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Certificate of Deposit ? (1) it is a negotiable money market instrument (2) it is a usance promissory note (3) it is issued only in physical form and not in demat form (4) it is issued at a discount to face value (5) All are correct 162. Which of the following in not correct regarding transferability of Certificate of Deposits (CDs)? (1) can be freely transferred any time (2) CDs in physical format can be transferred by endorsement and delivery (4) CD is ric- transferable being- a market instrument. (5) None of these 163. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding commercial paper ? (1) it is a negotiable money market instrument. (2) it is a usance promissory note. (3) it is issued only in physical form and not in demat form. (4) it is issued at a discount to face value. (5) None of these

164. As per section 2(4) of the Sale of Goods Act, goods represented by the documents create a right by virtue of either law or trade or usage, to possess the goods represented by the documents. The said goods represented by the documents are transferable by and/or delivery of the documents: (1) Assignment (2) Hypothecation (3) Pledge (4) Endorsement (5) None of these 165. A , though appears to be anegotiable instrument, is not a negotiable one, but only quasi negotiable, since the bona fide transferee for value can be affected by defects in the title of the transferor. (1) Document of Title to Goods (2) Cheque (3) Bill of Exchange (4) Promissory Note (5) None of these

166. In a , there is transfer of interest in the property to the creditor but in to repay money and no transfer of interest. (1) Mortgage, hypothecation (2) Pledge, Mortgage (3) Either (1) or (2) (4) Both (1) and (2) (5) None of these

, there is only obligation

167. The limitation period for filing a suit for sale of mortgaged property from the data the mortgage debt becomes due is (1)12 years (2) 30 years (3) 3 years (4) 5 years (5) None of these

168. Under the RBI Act, 1934, it has sole authority to issue coins/ notes of denominations of (1) Currency Notes of Rs. 2 and above (2) One Rupee Note (3) One Rupee Coin (4) Fifty Paisa Coin (5) None of these 169. Under Basel II Accord, the minimum required capital ratio as stipulated by RBI continues to be : (1)8% (2) 9% (3)10% (4) 12% (5) None of these 170. With a view to facilitate greater use of Indian Rupees in trade transactions, RBI has allowed (during July 2011) to hedge currency risk in respect of imports and exports to and from India invoiced in Rupees, to which category of persons? (1) resident importers (2) resident exporters (3) non-resident importers and exporters (4) All the above (5) None of these 171. For which of the following products, RBI has allowed (during July 2011) to hedge currency risk in respect of imports and exports to and from India invoiced in Rupees? (1) forward forex contracts with rupee as one of the currencies (2) foreign currency Indian rupee options (3)currency options involving USD and Euro (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) None of these 172. Which of the following countries in August 2011 decided to push for full convertibility of its currency and eventually swing open the country's capital account? (1) India (2) China (3) France (4) Japan (5) None of these

173. Banks are to ensure that while preparing their Annual Branch Expansion Plan (ABEP), they should allocate at least 23 percent of the total number of branches proposed to be opened during a year in un-banked rural (Tier 5 and Tier 6) centres. For this purpose, the un-banked rural centre means : (1) a rural (Tier 5 and Tier 6) centre having population below 10000 (2) a rural (Tier 5 and Tier 6) centre having population below 2000 (3) a rural (Tier 5 and Tier 6) centre that does not have a brick and mortar structure of any scheduled commercial bank for customer based banking transactions. (4) a rural (Tier 5 and Tier 6) centre that does not have brick and mortar structure of any bank or primary cooperative society. (5) None of these 174. RBI has decided that the total investment by banks in liquid/ short term debt schemes (by whatever name called) of mutual funds with weighted average maturity of protfolio of not more than one year, will be subject to a prudential cap of of their as on March 31 of the previous year. (1) 3%, net worth (2) 5% capital fund (3) 10% net worth (4) 12.5% capital fund (5) None of these 175. The process of crystallisation of export bills means, which of the following ? (1) return of the export bills due to non-payment by the drawee (2) permission to the drawee for delivery of goods without making payment (3) conversion of the foreign currency liability into the home currency liability by selling the FC back to the exporter (4) initiation of legal action against the exporter for the overdue export bill (5) None of these 176. Popular Bank with a view to expand its business in Australia, opened an account with Commonwealth Bank of Australia in Australian Dollars in Melbourne. This account for the Commonwealth Bank will also be known as (1) NOSTRO account (2) VOSTRO account (3) LORO account (4) Mirror account (5) None of these 177. A high value customer issued few cheques of above Rs. one crore from his account, which have been dishonoured. due to insufficiency of funds. No further cheque book facility can be permitted by the bank if : (1) 10 or more such cheques are dishonoured (2) 6 or more such cheques are dishonoured in a calendar year (3) 6 or more such cheques are dishonoured in a financial year (4) 4 or more such cheques are dishonoured in a financial year (5) None of these

178. In the Kissan Credit Card account of a farmer, the account has shown credit balance. What interest is to be paid for this? (1) no interest is payable as it is an overdraft account (2) no interest is payable as the balance will be treated as in a current account (3) saving bank interest will be paid. (4) FD interest as applicable for corresponding maturity shall be paid. (5) None of these 179. In which of the following circumstances, the banker-customer relationship will be that of an agentprincipal ? (1) payment of cheque from account of the customer (2) collection of cheque for the customer for credit to his account after collection (3) for renting out a locker to the customer (4) accepting the articles for safe custody. (5) None of these 180. Which of the following loan account falls in the purview of base rate system ? (1) DRI advance (2) MSE advance (3) Loan to a staff member (4) Loan against deposit (5) None of these

181. In which of the following cases, a letter of credit will be classified as red-clause letter of credit ? (1) where provision for opening another LC is made on the strength of original LC (2) where provision for transfer of the original LC by beneficiary is made (3) where provision for providing preshipment credit and storage of goods in warehouse is made (4) where provision for providing preshipment credit is made (5) None of these

182. Which of the following features of a derivative is not correct ? (1) derivatives refer to a future price (2) value of derivative depends upon the spot price (3) derivative is a financial instrument to mature in future (4) All are correct (5) None of these 183. In an interest rate swap, the shifting of basis of calculation of interest can be: (1) from fixed rate to floating rate (2) from floating rate to fixed rate (3) from floating rate based on one benchmark to a floating rate based on another benchmark (4) Any of the above (5) None of these

184. The floating rate is linked to a benchmark rate. Which of the following statement, in this regard is not correct ? (1) the benchmark rate is a risk free interest rate determined by the market (2) the benchmark is acceptable both to the borrower and the lender (3) for USD funds, the benchmark is normally LIBOR (4) In Indian rupee market, the benchmark is the 91 days treasury bills rate only (5) None of these 185. The Economic Survey 2010-11, tabled by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee in Parliament on February 25, 2011, pointed out that Gross Fiscal Deficit is 4.8% of GDP in 2010-11 as against percent of GDP in the previous year. (1)5.8 (2)6.1 (3)6.3 (4)6.6 (5)None of these 186. Saina Nehwal, in June 2011, failed to complete the hat-trick of titles at the Indonesia Open Super Series after losing to Chinese in the final in Jakarta. (1) Jing Mo (2) Chu Ping Li (3) Wang Yihan (4) Zhang Lin (5) None of these

187. teachers and public service workers. on June 30, 2011, swapped classrooms and offices for picket fines as thousands walked off the job to protest pension cuts_ ( 1) Greek (2) German (3) French (4) British (5) None of these

188. The Centre. in May 2011, decided to allow MPs to provide assistance to the physically challenged in their constituencies. up to Rs lakh a rear from their MP-LAD fund. ( 1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 15 (4) 10 (5) None of these

189. After a gap of four years, India and Pakistan. in Mav 2011, resumed talks in Islamabad on the navigation project also known as the Wullar Lake project. (1) Tulbul (2) Sir Creek (3) Kutch (4) Sikdar (5) None of these 190. The Union Cabinet's Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on April 29, 2011, approved a Rs.7,000crore project to clean the . (1) Ganga (2) Yamuria (3) Kosi (4) All of the above (5) None of these 191. was, on May 16, 2011 sworn in as Chief Minister of the Union Territory of Puducherry for a third term by Lieutenant-Governor Iqbal Singh. (1) R. Mudaliar (2) N. Reddy (3) P. Kartik (4) N. Rangasamy (5) None of these 192. Which country, on April 30, 2011, decided to enforce first-of -its-kind law to ban smoking in public? (1) France (2) China (3) Russia (4) Afghanistan (5) None of these

193. The third joint meeting of the U.S.-China bilateral Strategic and Economic Dialogue was held in May 2011. (1) New York (2) Shanghai (3) Beijing (4) Washington (5) None of these

194. The Economic Survey 2010-11, tabled by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee in Parliament on February 25, 2011, called for (A) Efficient taxation of goods and services by a new GST (B) Raising revenues (C) Installing stronger safeguards and measures to accelerate financial inclusion . Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (1) Only (B) (2) Both (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) (4) All of the above (5) None of these 195. Automotive sealing manufacturing company, SEALYNX Automotive of —, was acquired by the Ruia Group on May 16, 2011. (1) France (2) Belgium (3) Luxembourg (4) Sweden (5) None of these 196. M C Mary Kom (48kg), on May 9, 2011, finished on top in the Asian Cup Women's Boxing tournament in Haikou, China, beating Kim Myong Sim of in the final. (1) Malaysia (2) South Korea (3) North Korea (4) China (5) None of these

197. Former New Zealand test cricketer mountain Mount Everest. (1) Adam Parore (2) Martin Crowe (3) Jeff Crowe (4) Richard Hadlee (5) None of these

on May 21, 2011, reached the summit of the world's tallest

198. According to the Economic Survey 2010-11, tabled in Parliament on February 25, 2011, during AprilNovember 2010 sector performed well while the power generation, cement and fertilizer production, railway freight traffic and cargo handling at major ports have grown at comparatively lower rates. (1) Telecom (2) Crude oil prod (3) Civil aviation (4) Al1 of the above (5) None of these

199. British-born Sierra Leonean novelist for her novel, The Memory of Love. (1) Aminatta Foma (2) Minal Deng (3) Rosy Maria (4) Nita Blaire (5) None of these

on May 21, 2011, won 2011 Commonwealth Writers' Prize

200 .Girish A. Koushik, on May 21, 2011, won the Asian Youth Chess championship (under-14) chess title in Subic ( ). (1) Philippines (2) Indonesia (3) Malaysia (4) Singapore (5) None of these

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
201. Which type of memory holds only the program and data that the CPU is presently processing ? (1) CMOs (2) ROM (3) RAM (4) ASCII (5) None of these 202. A button that makes character either upper or lower case and numbers to symbols. (1) monitor (2) shift key (3) icon (4) mouse (5) None of these

203. Pick the odd one (1) Mouse (2) Scanner

(3) Printer

(4) Keyboard (5) None of these

204. Programs designed specifically to address general-purpose applications special purpose applications are called (1) operating system (2) system software (3) application software (4) management information systems (5) None of these 205. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a (1) program (2) command (3) user response (4) processor (5) None of these 206. The communications device that allows the computer to access a network is called card. (1) modem (2) video (3) sound (4) network (5) None of these 207. A screen list of options in a program that tells you what is in that program (1) screen (2) icon (3) menu (4) backup

(5) None of these

208. is data that has been organised or presented in a meaningful fashion. (1) A process (2) Storage (3) Software (4) Information (5) None of these

209. A contains buttons and menus that provide quick access to commonly used commands. (1) menu bar (2) tool bar (3) window (4) find (5) None of these 210. Letters, numbers, and symbols found on a keyboard are (1) Icon (2) Screen (3) Keys (4) Menu 211. What menu is selected to print ? (1) File (2) Tools (3) Special

(5) None of these

(4) Edit

(5) None of these

212. Programs or a set of electronic instructions that tell a computer what to do (1) Menu (2) Monitor (3) Hardware (4) Software (5) None of these 213. A(n) contains commands that can be selected. (1) pointer (2) menu (3) icon

(4) button

(5) None of these

214. Microcomputer hardware consists of three basic categories of physical equipment (1) keyboard, monitor, hard drive (2) system unit, input/output, memory (3) system unit, input/output, secondary storage (4) system unit, primary storage, secondary storage (5) None of these 215. A piece of hardware that is used to enter information into the computer by using keys (1) keyboard (2) monitor (3) hard disk (4) icon (5) None of these 216. Example of non-numeric data is (1) Employee address (2) Examination score (3) Bank balance

(4) All of these(5) None of these

217. Date and Time are available on the desktop at (1) Keyboard (2) Recycle Bin (3) My Computer

(4) Task bar

(5) None of these

218. Periodically adding, changing and deleting file records is called file 1) updating (2) upgrading (3) restructuring (4) renewing (5) None of these 219. Capital letters on a keyboard are referred to as (1) caps lock key (2) grownups (3) big guys these

(4) upper case letters

(5) None of

220. Devices that make up a computer system that you can see or touch (1) menu (2) print (3) software (4) hardware

(5) None of these

221. An output device that lets you see what the computer is doing (1) a disk drive (2) monitor-screen (3) shift key (4) printer

(5) None of these

222. Bit is short for (1) binary system

(2) digital byte

(3) binary digit

(4) binary unit (5) None of these

223. A symbol on the screen that represents a disk. document or program that you can select (1) keys (2) caps (3) icon (4) monitor (5) None of these 224. A is an example of an input device. (1) keyboard (2) monitor (3) Mouse (4) central processing unit

(5) Both (1) and (3)

225. A computer cannot "boot" if it does not have the (1) Compiler (2) Loader (3) Operating System (4) Assembler

(5) None of these

226. A command that takes what has been typed into the computer and can be seen on the screen and sends it to the printer for output on paper . (1) print (2) return (3) jump (4) attention (5) None of these 227. A CPU contains (1) a card reader and printing device (2) an analytical engine and control unit (3) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit (4) an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader (5) None of these

228. Powerful key that lets you exit a program when pushed (1) arrow keys (2) space bar (3) escape key (4) return key

(5) None of these

229. The ability of an OS to run more than one application at a time is called (1) multitasking (2) object-oriented programming (3) multi-user computing (4) time-sharing (5) None of these 230. Which of the following statements best describes the batch method of input ? (1) Data is processed as soon as it is input. (2) Data is input at the Lime it is collected. (3) Data is collected in the form of source documents. placed into groups, and then input to the computer (4) Source documents are not used (5) None of these 231. The term used to define all input and output devices in a computer system is (1) Monitor (2) Software (3) Shared resources (4) Hardware

(5) None of these

232. Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer system are called (1) Entry codes (2) Passwords (3) security commands (4) code words (5) None of these 233. The part of a computer that coordinates all its functions is called its — (1) ROM program (2) system board (3) arithmetic logic unit (4) control unit (5) None of these 234. represents raw facts, whereas is data made meaningful. (1) Information, reporting (2) Data, information (3) Information, bits (4) Records, bytes (5) None of these

235. What is the name for the process that is used to convert a series of instructions, or program, written in a high-level language into instructions (or a program) that can be run on a computer ? (1) Assembling (2) Compiling (3) Translating (4) Uploading (5) None of these 236. The benefit of using computers is that (1) Computers are very fast and can store huge amounts of data JZ Computers provide accurate output even when input is incorrect (3) Computers are designed to be inflexible (4) All of the above (5) None of these 237. The function of CPU is (1) to provide external storage of text (2) to communicate with the operator (3) to read, interpret and process the information and instruction (4) to provide a hard copy (5) None of these 238. What characteristic of read-only memory (ROM) makes it useful ? (1) ROM information can be easily updated (2) Data in ROM is nonvolatile, that is, it remains there even without electrical power (3) ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data storage. (4) ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of computers. (5) None of these

239. is the process of carrying out commands. (1) Fetching (2) Storing (3) Decoding

(4) Executing

(5) None of these

240. Which of the following peripheral devices displays information to a user ? (1) Monitor (2) Keyboard (3) Secondary storage devices (4) Secondary storage media (5) None of these 241. The "desktop" of a computer refers to (1) the visible screen (2) the area around the monitor (3) the top of the mouse pad (4) the inside of a folder (5) None of these

242. What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common resource in a computer network? (1) keyboards (2) speakers (3) floppy disk drives (4) printers (5) None of these 243. To "maximize" a window means to (1) fill it to capacity (2) expand it to fit the desktop (3) put only like files inside (4) drag it to the Recycle Bin (5) None of these 244. The "home page" of a web site is (1) the largest page (2) the last page (3) the first page (4) the most colourful page (5) None of these 245. A personal computer is (1) MC (2) SC

(3) YC

(4) PC

(5) None of these

246. To put information in a file on a magnetic disk, or in a computer's memory, so it can be used later(1) store (2) ship (3) shift (4) centre (5) None of these 247. Saving is the process of (1) copying a document from memory to a storage medium (2) making changes to a document's existing content (3) changing the appearance, or overall look, of a document (4) developing a document by entering text using a keyboard (5) None of these 248. Printed information, called presented on a display device. (1) soft copy (2) carbon copy exists physically and is a more permanent form of output than that (3) hard copy (4) desk copy (5) None of these

249. To find a saved document in the computer's memory and bring it up on the screen to view (1) reverse (2) rerun (3) retrieve (4) return (5) None of these

250. The Internet is a system of (1) Software bundles (2) Web page (5) None of these

(3) Web site

(4) Interconnected Networks