Comedk Question Bank

ANATOMY AND EMBRYOLOGY 1. The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secretomotor impulse involved in lacrimation is (2004) A. Chorda tympani nerve B. Deep petrosal nerve C. Greater petrosal nerve D. Lesser petrosal nerve 2. Circumvallate papilla are supplied by (2004),(2005) A. Lingual nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Vagus nerve 3. DNA is same for (2004) A. Identical twins B. Non identical twins C. All siblings D. Everybody 4. The sweat glands are supplied by only (2004) A. Parasympathetic nerves B. Sympathetic nerves C. Sensory nerves D. Motor nerves 5. Messeter muscle is a powerful muscles because of (2005) A. Bipennate arrangement of fibres B. Multipinnate arrangement of fibres C. It has multiple tendinous septa D. Its attachment to bone is unique 6. Muscles of face are derived from the mesoderm of (2005) A. 1st branchial arch B. 2nd branchial arch C. 3rd branchial arch D. 2nd and 3rd branchial arch 7. Genioglossus muscle is attached in the posterior surface of symphysis menti in the (2005) A. Mental spines B. Superior genial tubercle C. The inferior genial tubercle D. Just above the lower border of mandible

8. Liver is divided into (2005) A. 8 couinaud segments B. 7 couinaud segments C. 9 couinaud segments D. 10 couinaud segments 9. Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by (2005) A. External laryngeal nerve B. Internal laryngeal nerve C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve D. A direct branch from vagus nerve 10. The anterior triangle occupies the side of the neck in front of sternomastoid muscle. Each triangle presents boundry in front (2005) A. Anterior median line of the neck extending from symphysis menti to supras ternal notch B. The midline of the neck C. Midline of the neck uptothe sternoclavicular joint D. Posterior border of thyroid gland 11. Blood supply of coronoid process of mandible is primarily from (2006) A. Inferior alveolar artery B. Deep temporal artery C. Facial artery D. Middle meningeal artery 12. Among the muscles of TMJ, the following muscles opposes,stabilizes and antagonizes muscle force as far as the disc is concerned (2006) A. Medial pterygoid B. Temporalis C. Lateral pterygoid D. Masseter 13. Skull at birth has (2006) A. 22 bones B. 34 bones C. 45 bones D. 54 bones 14. Pterygopalatine ganglion is functionally related to (2006) A. Facial nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Maxillary nerve

15. Derivative of 2nd pharyngeal arch is (2006) A. Sphenomandibular ligament B. Stylomandibular ligament C. Anterior ligament of malleus D. Stylohyoid ligament 16. Parotid duct traverses (2006) A. Masseter B. Buccinator C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral ptrygoid 17. Deep surface of hyoglossus is related to (2006) A. Lingual nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Submandibular ganglion D. Glossopharyngeal nerve 18. Suprasternal space does not containwhich of the following structures (2006) A. Jugular arch B. Anterior jugular vein C. Sterna head of sternocleidomastoid D. External jugular vein 19. Deep part of submandibular salivary gland is in relation to (2006) A. Facial nerve B. Lingual nerve C. Accessory nerve D. Mandibular nerve 20. Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of (2006) A. External carotid artery B. Internal carotid artery C. Common carotid artery D. Subclavian artery 21. Muscles of tongue are formed by (2006) A. 1st arch mesoderm B. 2nd arch mesoderm C. Occipital myotomes D. Cervical somites

22. The structure that does not traverse parotid gland is (2006) A. Superficial temporal artery B. Posterior auricular artery C. External carotid artery D. Internal carotid artery 23. Sensory innervations of larynx as far as the vocal folds is by (2006) A. External laryngeal nerve B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve C. Internal laryngeal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve 24. Nerve of the pterygoid canal is formed by the union of (2006) A. Deep petrosal nerve with greater petrosal nerve B. Deep petrosal nerve with lesser petrosal nerve C. Greater petrosal nerve with lesser petrosal nerve D. Greater petrosal nerve with External petrosal nerve 25. Lymphatics of upper gums drain into (2006) A. Lingual nodes B. Retropharyngeal nodes C. Submandibular nodes D. Submental nodes 26. Accessory meningeal artery enters cranial cavity through (2006) A. Foramen lacerum B. Foramen rotundum C. Foramen spinosum D. Foramen ovale 27. Protraction of the mandible is brought about by (2007) A. Lateral pterygoid B. Medial pterygoid C. Temporalis D. Masseter 28. Hyoid bone is a derivative of (2007) A. 1st pharyngeal arch B. 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch C. 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal arch D. 4th pharyngeal arch

29. Mental spines provide attachment to (2007) A. Genioglossus & Geniohyoid B. Anterior & Posterior bellies of digastrics C. Mylohyoid D. Superior constricot of pharynx 30. Dacrocystitis is interruption in the drainage of (2007) A. Submandibular gland B. Parotid gland C. Lacrimal gland D. Sublingual gland 31. Lingual nerve, supplying tongue, is a branch of (2007) A. Facial nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Mandibular nerve D. Maxillary nerve 32. Failure of descent of thyroid analogue can be seen in the tongue (2008) A. In anterior T1 of dorsal aspect B. In posterior S1 of dorsal aspect C. Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum D. In the anterior T1 of the inferior surface 33. Development of mandible is by (2008) A. 1st branchial arch B. 2nd branchial arch C. 4th branchial arch D. 3rd branchial arch 34. Which of the following lobes of cerebrum is related to the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle (2008) A. B. C. D. Frontal Parietal Temporal Occipital

35. The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secretomotor impulse involved in lacrimation is (2008) A. Chorda tympani nerve B. Deep petrosal nerve C. Greater petrosal nerve D. Lesser petrosal nerve

36. Structures related to the medial surface of the hyoglossus muscle including the following EXCEPT (2008) A. Glossopharyngeal nerve B. Stylohyoid ligament C. Lingual artery D. Hypoglossal nerve 37. Which one of the following nerves is NOT encountered during submandibular gland resection (2008),(2011) A. Lingual nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Accessory nerve D. Marginal mandibular nerve 38. Umbilical cord contains (2009) A. Three arteries and one vein B. One artery and three veins C. One artery and one vein D. Two arteries and one vein 39. The abductors of the vocal cords are (2009) A. Transverse arytenoid B. Oblique arytenoid C. Lateral thyroarytenoid D. Posterior cricoarytenoid 40. Horner s syndrome include all except (2009) A. Enopthalmos B. Miosis C. Exopthalmos D. Ptosis 41. CSF is directly returned to venous system by (2009) A. Choroid plexus B. Cerebral veins C. Arachnoid villi D. Emissary veins 42. Unilateral paralysis of hypoglossal nerve leads to (2009) A. Deviation of tongue to normal size B. Deviation of the tongue to paralysed side C. No change in the position of the tongue D. Retraction of the tongue

43. Which papillae are completely keratinized (2009) A. Fungiform B. Filiform C. Circumvallate D. Foliate 44. The type of suture representated by sagittal suture of the cranial vault is (2010) A. Serrate B. Denticulate C. Squamous D. Plane 45. Nerve supply to the vocal cords is by (2010) A. Internal laryngeal nerve B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve C. Superior laryngeal nerve D. Internal and recurrent laryngeal nerves 46. The lingual surface of epiglottis is lined by (2010) A. Stratified squamous epithelium B. Simple squamous epithelium C. Stratified columnar epithelium D. Pseudostratified epithelium 47. Which of the following venous sinuses is more likely to be affected with thrombosis in chronic otitis media and mastoiditis (2010) A. Cavernous B. Inter cavernous C. Sigmoid D. Superior petrosal 48. Meiotic division division of male germ cells commence (2010) A. During intra uterine life B. Just before birth C. By around 6 years after birth D. By around 16 years 49. Infection from the dangerous area of face spreads via one of the following veins (2011) A. Maxillary vein B. Retromolar vein C. Superficial temporal vein D. Ophthalmic veins

50. All of the following canals open on the posterior wall of the pterygopalatine fossa EXCEPT (2011) A. Greater paltine canal B. Foramen rotundum C. Pterygoid canal D. Palatovaginal canal 51. One of the following nerve is the motor nerve for occipital belly of occipitofrontalis (2011) A. Great auricular B. Lesser occipital C. Third occipital D. Posterior auricular 52. Hypoglossal nerve supplies all the muscles EXCEPT (2011) A. Styloglossus B. Hyoglossus C. Palatoglossus D. Genioglossus 53. The first macroscopic development occurs at approximately (2011) A. 8 weeks in utero B. 10 weeks in utero C. 11 weeks in utero D. 13 weeks in utero 54. Ultimobranchial body forms (2011) A. C cells of thyroid gland B. Principal cells of parathyroid gland C. Acidophils of pituitary gland D. Pituicytes of pituitary gland 55. Mucous membrane on the buccal aspect of the upper alveolar process process is innervated by buccal nerve and (2011) A. Superior alveolar nerve B. Mental nerve C. Interior alveolar nerve D. Greater palatine nerve 56. Openings of the posterior alveolar canals are seen on (2011) A. Posterior maxillary surface B. Lateral maxillary surface C. Intra temporal surface D. Pterygopalatine fossa

PHYSIOLOGY 57. The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is believed to control the secretion of which of the following hormones (2004) A. ADH B. Oxytocin C. GH D. ACTH 58. Steroid hormones are believed to enter target cells (2004) A. Faciliated duffusion B. Carrier mediated endocytosis C. Cholesterol lined pores in the plasma membrane D. Simple diffusion 59. The skeletal muscle action potential (2004) A. Is not essential for contraction to occcur B. Has a prolonged palteau phase C. Spreads inward to all parts of the muscle via the t-tubule system D. Begins with an inward movement of K + ions 60. Which of the following statements about the action of somatom edins is true (2004) A. They inhibit protein synthesis B. They antagonize the effect of insulin C. They promote growth of bones and cartilage D. They mediate the local effects of somatostatin 61. What effect does hyperventilation have on oxygen binding affinity of hemoglobin (2004) A. PO2 and O2 affinity decreases B. PO2 and O2 affinity increases C. PO2 decreases and O 2 affinity increases D. PO2 increases and O2 affinity decreases 62. Acomegaly is a disorder of (2004) A. Excess growth hormone secretion B. Excess thyroxine secretion C. Excess ACTH secretion D. Excess FSH secretion 63. Supporting cells of taste buds are called as (2004) (2005) A. Sustenticular cells B. Taste cells C. Von Ebners cells D. Acini

64. Partially keratinized papilla is (2004) A. Fungiform B. Filiform C. Circumvallate D. Foliate

65. Open faced nucleus in a cell signifies (2004) A. That the cell is resting B. That the cell is active C. Nothing D. That the cell is in transition phase 66. Which of the following is not an effect of insulin (2004) A. Decreased gluconeogenesis B. Increased gluconeogenesis C. Increased transport of glucose into cells D. Induction of lipoprotien lipase 67. Rennin release is inhibited by (2005) A. PGI 2 B. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) C. Epinephrine D. Decreased glomerular filteration 68. Citrate is a useful anticoagulant because of its ability to (2005) A. Buffer basic groups of coagulation factors B. Bind factor XII C. Bind Vit-K D. Chelate calcium 69. Ventricular muscle receives impulses directly from the (2005) A. Purkinje system B. Bundle of His C. Right and left bundle branches D. AV node 70. After secretion of trypsinogen into the duodenum, the enzyme is converted into its active form Trypsin by (2005) A. Enterokinase B. Procarboxypeptidase C. Pancreatic lipase D. Previously secreted trypsin

71. Sensory receptors for pain are (2005) A. Pacinian corpuscles B. End organs of Ruffini C. End bulb of Krause D. Free nerve endings 72. The haemoglobin-oxygen saturation of blood entering the right ventricle is approximately (2005) A. 97% B. 85% C. 75% D. 53% 73. Function of hepatic kupffer cells is (2005) A. Formation of sinusoids B. Vitamin-A storage C. Increased blood perfusion D. Phagocytosis 74. The normal brown red colour of feaces results from the presence of (2005) A. Haeme B. Stercobilin C. Biliverdin D. Bilirubin diglucuronide 75. The normal pH of human blood is (2006) A. 7.0 B. 7.2 C. 7.35 7.40 D. 7.6 76. The following factors increase the cardiac output except (2006) A. Preload B. Afterload C. Heart rate D. Myocardial contractility 77. In clinical practise, GFR is estimated using the plasma clearance value of (2006) A. Inulin B. PAH C. Glucose D. Creatinine 78. The number of muscle fibers in a motor unit are least in (2006) A. Laryngeal muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles

C. Muscles of middle ear D. Extra ocular muscles 79. Normal Myeloid:Erythroid ratio is (2006) A. 3:1 B. 1:3 C. 4:1 D. 6:1 80. Glucose tolerance test is usually done to assess (2007) A. Acute pancreatitis B. Carcinoma of head of pancreas C. Acinar function of the pancreas D. Endocrine dysfunction of pancreas 81. Thermoregulatory response activated by cold is (2007) A. Cutaneous vasodilatation B. Anorexia C. Increased voluntary activity D. Increased respiration 82. Which of these organelles function as the digestive s ystem of the cell (2007) A. Mitochondria B. Rough ER C. Golgi apparatus D. Lysosomes 83. Thrombopoietin is produced by (2007) A. Monocytes B. Liver C. Megakaryocytes D. Megakaryoblasts 84. In determining blood pressure by the auscultatory method (2007) A. The loudest sound is the diastolic blood pressure B. Systolic pressure estimation tends to be lower than that made by the palpatory method C. The first sound is heard is the systolic blood pressure D. The sound that are heard are generated in the heart 85. Which of the following is a function of the golgi apparatus (2007) A. Modification of proteins B. mRNA synthesis C. Protein storage D. tRNA synthesis

86. Which A. B. C. D.

of the following is called Counter Current Exchanger (2008) Loop of Henle Vasa recta Collecting duct Proximal convulated tubule

87. Acute pyogenic infection produces (2008) A. Leukopenia B. Leukocytosis C. Neutropenia D. Lymphopenia 88. The receptor cells of olfactory epithelium are (2008) A. Bipolar neurons B. Unipolar neurons C. Multipolar neurons D. Stellate cells 89. Activity of osteoclasts can be modified and reg ulated by which hormone (2008) A. Calcitonin B. Thyroid C. Insulin D. Pituitary 90. Isometric relaxation ends immediately after (2008) A. AV valve closes B. When ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressure C. When ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure D. None of the above. 91. Which one of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle (2008) A. Troponin B. Myosin C. Actin D. Protein C 92. Intrinsic factor in the stomach is secreted by (2008) A. Oxyntic cells B. Chief cells C. Mast like cells D. D-cells of antrum 93. Kussmaul s respiration occurs in response to (2008) A. Decrease in pH of blood B. Increase in pH of blood

C. Obstructive pulmonary disease D. Carbon monoxide poisoning BIOCHEMISTRY 94. What is true of iron (2004) A. It is stored as ferritin B. It is absorbed by transferrin in the intestine C. Spleen is the major storage organ D. Fe++ is excreted in urine 95. A mutation is that converts an amino acid codon to a stop codon is a (2004) A. Nonsense codon B. Transversion C. Silent mutation D. Frame shift mutation 96. Which one of the following is purely ketogenic (2004) A. Proline B. Phenylalanine C. Isoleucin D. Leucin 97. Aspartate aminotransaminase is released (2004)(2005) A. By viable cells B. After cell necrosis C. Either of the above two D. None of the above 98. Scurvy is the rsult of deficiency of (2004) A. Vit A B. Vit C C. Vit B D. Vit D 99. Mature red blood cells are distinguished from most body cells by their (2004) A. Reliance on anaerobic glycolysis B. Spherical shape C. Lack of plasticity D. Relative impermeability to plasma anions 100. All cells do not devide at the same rate. Events in which phase of the cell cycle determine when a cell is going to replicate (2005) A. M phase B. G1 phase C. S phase

D. G2 phase 101. Which one of the following human tissues contains the greatest amount of body glycogen (2005) A. Liver B. Kidney C. Skeletal muscle D. Cardiac muscle The monosaccharide glucose is best described by which one of the following statements (2005) A. It usually exists in the furanose form B. It is a ketose C. It possesses an anomeric C-2 carbon atom D. It forms part of the disaccharide sucrose Which one of the following i s a precursor of both gonadal and adrenocortical hormones (2005) A. Progesterone B. Cortisol C. Testosterone D. Corticosterone Which of the following vitamins is bound to gastric intrinsic factor (2005) A. Vit- K B. Folic acid C. Vit- B12 D. Vit-D Which one of the following enzymatic reactions is directly related to Vit -K (2005) A. Activation of factor X B. Regulation of blood calcium level C. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin D. Synthesis of prothrombin Von Gierke s disease is associated with deficiency of (2006) A. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase B. Glucose 6 phosphate C. Phosphorylase in liver D. Hexokinase Deficiency of Vit C causes the following except (2006) A. Painful swollen gums B. Abnormal collagen C. Anemia D. Diarrhoea Intestinal absorption of Ca +2 is decreased by (2006)

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

A. B. C. D. 109.

Proteins Lactose Phytic acid Acidity

The class of amino acids that contains only non -essential amino acids is (2007) A. Acidic B. Basic C. Aromatic D. Branded chain Serum Creatine Kinase-3 (CK-3) is elevated in (2007)(2009) A. Muscular dystrophy B. Myocardial infarction C. Alcoholic cirrhosis D. Brain tumors The enzyme known to cause spontaneous thrombosis as an adverse reaction is (2007) A. Tyrosine kinase B. Aromatase C. Asparaginase D. Collagenase Transport form of iron is (2007)(2008) A. Transferrin B. Ferritin C. Apoferritin D. Lactoferrin The main component of hyperlipidemia a mojor risk factor for atherosclerosis is A. High densely lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol B. Intermediate densely lipoprotein (IDL) cholesterol C. Low densely lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol D. Very low densely lipoprotein (VLDL) cholesterol The enzyme phosphofructokinase -1 is strongly activated by A. Cyclic AMP B. Adenosine triphosphate C. Citrate D. Fructose 2,6 bis phosphate Transcription is the synthesis of A. Single stranded complimentary copy of DNA B. Double stranded complimentary copy of DNA C. Complimentary copy of RNA

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

D. Complimentary copy of rRNA 116. Non polar lipids act as A. Electric insulators B. Ions C. Non electric insulators D. Electrolytes Cofactor required for lipoprotrein lipase activity A. Apo A II B. Apo C II C. Apo C III D. Apo B II Thr first plasma protein to be generated after severe protein deficiency A. Albumin B. Globulin C. Fibrinogen D. Thrombin Hemochromatosis presents with all EXCEPT A. Micronodular cirrhosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Skin pigmentation D. Hepatitis Burning feet syndrome occurs due to deficiency of A. Niacin B. Pantothenic acid C. Riboflavin D. Folic acid The uptake of glucose by the liver increases following a carbohydrate meal because A. There is increased phosphorylation of glucose by glukokinase B. GLUT-2 is stimulated by insulin C. Glukokinase has a low Km for glucose D. Hexokinase in liver has a high affinity for glucose Which of the following events do not occur in rods in response to light A. Structural changes in rhodopsin B. Activation of transducin C. Decreased intracellular cGMP D. Opening of Na + channels Which of the following enzyme provides a link between glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

117.

118.

119.

120.

121.

122.

123.

A. B. C. D. 124.

Lactate dehydrogenase Pyruvate kinase Citrate synthase Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Under metabolic conditions associated with a high rate of fatty acid oxidation, the liver produces A. Glutamate B. Acetoacetate C. Cholesterol D. Glycine Insulin increases the activity of A. HMG CoA reductase B. HMG CoA lyase C. HMG CoA synthase D. Thiolase Squamous metaplasia in the respiratory epithelium is induced by deficiency of (2010,2011) A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin C The nitrogen content in a 50 gm of a dietary protein is mos likely to be (2011) A. 5 gm B. 8 gm C. 10 gm D. 16 gm Ehrlich test is done to detect (2011) A. Bilirubin B. Urobilinogen C. Bile salts D. Protein Ubiquitin is involved in (2011) A. Intracellular proteolysis B. Electron transport chain C. Transport of ATP D. Protein folding

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130. 131.

DENTAL MATERIALS

132.

The compressive strength of dentin is approximately (2004) A. 468 MPa B. 162 MPa C. 350 MPa D. 266 MPa Crystalline materials as compared to amorphous materials have (2004) A. No space lattice B. Less stability C. Well defined melting point D. Hydrophobic property Hardening solutions are used with impressions made of (2004) A. Hydrocolloids B. Impression compound C. Elastomers D. Zinc oxide eugenol

133.

134.

135. The phenomenon by which porcelain appears different under varying condition of color is called (2004) A. Mesomerism B. Metamerism C. Refractive index D. Translucency

136.

The type -1 gypsum product is also called (2004) (2005) A. Impression plaster B. Type -1 stone or Hydrocal C. Type -2 stone or Densite D. Model plaster pH of which cement remains below 7 even one month after insertion into the cavity (2004) A. GIC B. Zn Phosphate C. Resin cement D. Silicate cement Who was the first person to introduce Cast Inlay restoration into Dentistry (2004) A. William H Taggart B. Micheal Buonocore C. G V Black D. Bowen The best pickling solution for gypsum bonded investment is (2004) (2005) (2011)

137.

138.

139.

A. B. C. D. 140.

Hydrochloric Acid Nitric acid Sulfuric acid Phosphoric acid

The alloy that possess super elasticity is (2005) A. Nitinol B. Stainless steel C. Cobalt-Chromium-Nickel D. Gold-Palladium Which lasers can be used to cure composite resins (2005) A. Argon B. Nd:YAG C. Er:YAG D. CO2 Back pressure porosity in casting is due to (2005) A. High casting pressure B. Low investment permeability C. Small size and improper direction of sprue D. Sprue Frozen slab technique is applicable to (2005)(2011) A. Zinc phosphate cement B. GIC C. Zinc oxide eugenol cement D. Resin cement Casting flux is used to (2005) A. Prevent the oxidation of material during melting B. Increase the melting point of the flux C. Prevent the contamination of the metal and the liner D. All the above The setting expansion of gypsum products can be reduced by (2005) A. Increased spatulation B. Adding potassium sulphate C. Less water/powder ratio D. Allowing setting under water The cements which adhere to the tooth are (2005) A. Silicate and GIC B. ZnO Eugenol and GIC C. GIC and Zn polycarboxylate

141.

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

D. GIC and Zn phosphate 147. Dimensional stability of hydrocolloid impressions may be achieved by (2005) A. Using less water/powder ratio B. Storing the impression under water C. Prolonged manipulation D. Using humidor Gases dissolved in molten metals are liberated when cooled, giving rise to (2005) A. Suck back porosity B. Gas inclusion porosity C. Localized shrinkage porosity D. Micro porosity For esthetic areas where high luster is required the restoration used usually (2005) A. Glass Ionomer restoratives B. Hybrid resin composites C. Microfilled rsin composites D. Macrofilled resin composites The water /powder ratio of alginate is (2005) A. 100 ml of water + 60 gm of powder B. 40 ml of water + 40 gm of powder C. 40 ml of water + 15 gm of powder D. 15 ml of water + 40 gm of powder Percentage of gold in a high noble gold alloy is (2005) A. < 25% B. 25% C. >40% D. 00% The solid solution of silver and mercury is called (2005) A. 1 B. 2 C. 1 D. The main form of iron carbide in 18:8 stainless steel is (2005) A. Martensite B. Austenite C. Ferrite D. Pearlite To make vinyl polysiloxane hydrophilic, the following is added (2005) A. Mineral oil

148.

149.

150.

151.

152.

153.

154.

B. Surfactant C. Water D. Plasticizer

PHARMACOLOGY 155. Ketamine is a (2004) A. Short general anesthesia B. Local anesthetic agent C. Anti depressive agent D. Hypnotic agent Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine (2004) A. Decreased blood pressur e caused by hexamethonium B. Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine C. Tachycardia caused by exercise D. Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetycholine An untoward effect that is common to all phenothiazines is (2004) A. A marked increase in the blood pressure B. Rigidity and tremor at rest particularly with prolonged use C. Suppression of prolactin D. Nausea Which drug may be administered even when the patient is on alcoholic beverages (2004) A. Animal charcoal B. Glibenclamide C. Chloral hydrate D. Cefixime Serum Sickness is caused by all of the following drugs except (2004) A. Aspirin B. Penicillins C. Sulphonamides D. Choloroquine

156.

157.

158.

159.

160.

All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer chemotherapy regimen except (2005) A. B. C. D. Procarbazine Vincristine Mechlorethamine Methotrexate

161. Granulocytopenia, GI tract irritation, gingival hyperplasia, and facial hirsutism are all possible side effects of which of the following anticonvulsant drugs (2005) A. Phenobarbitol B. Carbamazepine C. Acetazolamide D. Phenytoin sodium 162. Clavulanic acid is given in combination with amoxicillin in order to (2005) A. Reduce the risk of allergic reactions B. Prolong the half life of amoxicillin C. Reduces the severity of diarrhoea D. Extend amoxicillin s antibacterial spectrum PATHOLOGY 163. All cells do not devide at the same rate. Events in which phase of the cell cycle determine when a cell is going to replicate (2004) A. M phase B. G1 phase C. S phase D. G2 phase 164. The term poikilokaryosis means (2004) A. Division of both nucleus ana cytoplasm B. Division of nucleus without division of cytoplasm C. Division of cytoplasm D. Fading of nuclei Physiologic programmed cell death is known as (2004) A. Apoptosis B. Lysis C. Autolysis D. Autopsy Mast cells (2005) A. Possess receptors for complement components B. Can synthesize TNFC. Release histamine D. Antigen recognised by IgA Which of the following is not a pigment disorder (2005) A. Vitiligo B. Melesma C. Freckle D. Seborrheic keratosis The most striking haematological finding in Agranulocytosis is (2005)

165.

166.

167.

168.

A. B. C. D. 169.

Decreased absolute neutrophil count Increased absolute neutrophil count Decreased absolute basophil count Increased absolute monocyte count

Sago spleen is the term used to describe the gross appearance of spleen in (2005) A. Hypersplenism B. Amyloidosis C. Chronic myelocytic leukemia D. Chronic malaria Mercury is toxic because it (2005) A. Complexes with haemoglobin to form methaemoglobin B. Inhibits haemoglobin synthesis, producing anemia C. Inhibits anaerobic glycolysis D. Binds to sulfhydryl groups

170.

171. A cell that contains hemosiderin, derived from RBCs that have been extravasated into the tissues, is (2005) A. Siderophage B. Melanophage C. Plasma cell D. Lymphocyte 172. Lepra cells seen in leprosy are (2005) A. Lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. Vacuolated histiocytes D. Neutrophils Virchow s lepra cells are seen in (2005) A. Tuberculoid leprosy B. Indeterminate leprosy C. Borderline tuberculoid leprosy D. Lepramatous leprosy

173.

MICROBILOGY 174. The distinguising characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is (2004) A. Erythema B. Necrosis C. Induration D. Vasculitis

175. Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces (2004) A. Capsule B. Flagella C. Pili D. Mesosomes 176. The binding site for complement on the immunoglobin molecule is in the (2004) A. VL domain B. CL domain C. CH-1 domain D. CH-2 domain The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is (2004) A. Mannitol fermentation B. Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes C. Detection of coagulase D. The catalase test Human immunoglobins are divided based on (2004) A. Functional differences B. Antigenic affinity C. Complement fixation D. Structural differences

177.

178.

179. In HIV infection, diffuse lymphadenopathy in aperson who is clinically well is usually a sign of which of the following (2004) A. Lymphoma B. Kaposi s sarcoma C. Tuberculosis D. PGL(Persistent Generalized Lymphadenopathy) 180. Tuberculin test screeens for (2004) A. Humoral immunity B. Cell mediated immunity C. Complement function D. Phagocyte dysfunction

181. Following active immunisation with tetanus toxoid injection, how often should a boost er dose be given (2004) A. Every year B. Every 2 years C. Every 5 years D. Twice a year

182.

Sulphur granules are a diagnostic feature of (2004) A. Histoplasmosis B. Sulfide poisoning C. Actinomycosis D. Toxoplasmosis Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of (2005) A. Ultraviolet rays B. Ultrasonic vibrations C. Infrared rays D. Gamma rays

183.

184. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be prevented if the mother is injected, at parturition, with an antibody called (2005) A. Blocking antibody B. Rh (D) Immunoglobin C. Antilymphocyte globulin D. Antilymphocyte serum 185. A test that can be used fro typing of class -1 histocompatibility antigen is (2005) A. Cell mediated lympholysis (CML) B. Donor- recipient mixed lymphocyte response C. Primed lymphocyte typing D. Antibody and complement mediated cytotoxicity Hepatitis-C belongs to which one of the following virus groups (2005) A. Picona virus B. Herpes virus C. Hepadna virus D. Flavi virus ORAL ANATOMY & HISTOLOGY 187. How many pulpal horns are there in the mandibular second primary molar (2004) A. 3 B. 6 C. 4 D. 5 188. First permanent molars begin to calcify at (2004) A. 6 months of intrauterine life B. Birth C. Before decidous incisors D. About 1 year after birth The eruption age of maxillary permanent lateral incisor is (2004)

186.

189.

A. B. C. D. 190.

08-09 years 06-07 years 10-11 years 08-09 months

Which of the following serum enzymes is the most sensitive index of neo osteogenesis (2004) A. Acid phosphatase B. Alkaline phosphatase C. LDH D. Lipase The stain used for exfolliative cytology (2004) A. Weigert stain B. Van Gieson stain C. Periodic Acid Schiffs stain D. Papaniculaou stain Which of the following is non keratinocyte (2004)(2005) A. Langhan s cell B. RBC C. Langerhan s cell D. Grey cell Keratohyaline granules are more evident in (2004) A. Keratinized B. Non-keratinized C. Parakeratinized D. Orthokeratinized The following is a special stain for collagen (2004) A. Haematoxylin & eosin B. Leishman s C. PAS D. Mallory s Cementicles are found in the (2004) A. Gingiva B. PDL C. Alveolar bone D. Cementum Where do we see Actin and Myosin (2005) A. Serous cells B. Mucous cells C. Myoepithelial cells

191.

192.

193.

194.

195.

196.

D. Demilunes 197. The Plexus of Rashkov is present in which of the following zones in pulp (2005) A. Cell free zone B. Cell rich zone C. Odontoblastic zone D. Pulp core In which of the following the mucosa is keratinized (2005) A. Hard palate B. Buccal mucosa C. Labial mucosa D. Soft palate Morphological stages of tooth development are explained based on (2005) A. Shape of enamel organ B. Shape of the tooth germ C. Functions of the enamel organ D. Shape of the dental papilla What line is formed when primary curvatures of dentinal tubules meet (2005) A. Schreger line B. Contour line of Owen C. Von Ebner s line D. Imbrications lines of Pickerel Glands of Blandin and Nuhn are the (2005) A. Palatine glands in the posterolateral region of the hard palate B. Anterior lingual glands located near the apex of the tongue C. Labial and buccal mucosa D. Glossopalatine glands Perikymata are believed to be the external manifestations of (2005) A. Striae of retzius

198.

199.

200.

201.

202.

GENERAL MEDICINE 203. Megaloblastic anemia occurs due to (2004) A. Iron deficiency B. Folate deficiency C. Vit C deficiency D. Protein deficiency

204. A patient with a history of ankle edema, shortness of breath and orthopnea is probably suffering from (2004)

A. B. C. D. 205. A. B. C. D. 206. A. B. C. D. 207.

Asthama Emphysema Cardiac decompensation Constrictive pericarditis Features of hypothyroidism do not include (2004) Obesity Hypertension High TSH level Increased risk of infections Nephrotic syndrome is characterised by following manifestation except (2004) Proteinuria Hyperlipidemia Edema Hypertension

The commonest cuase of massive upper GIT bleeding is (2004) A. Gastri ulcer B. Erosive gastritis C. Gastritis carcinoma D. Duodenal ulcer Which of the following results in a prolonged bleeding time (2004) A. Hemophilia C B. Hemophilia B C. thrombocytopenia D. Hemophilia A Which one of the following is a sex linked disorder (2004) A. Thalassemia B. Kleinfelter s syndrome C. Hemophilia D. Neurofibromatosis Acromegaly is a disorder of (2005) Excess growth hormone secretion Excess thyroxine secretion Excess ACTH secretion Excess FSH secretion

208.

209.

210. A. B. C. D. 211.

Occupational disease of lung caused by inhalation of sugar cane dust is called as (2005) A. Byssinosis B. Bagassosis C. Anthracosis

D. Silicosis 212. The drug of choice for prompt relief of an ongoing attack of angina precipitated by exercise or emotional stress is (2005) A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Sublingual nitroglycerin D. Sublingual nifedipine 213. Which of the following is associated with cyanotic congenital heart disease (2005) A. Cor triatriatum B. Tetralogy of fallot C. Mitral stenosis D. Primary pulmonary hypertension Clubbing of the fingers (2005) A. Always indicates heart disease B. Is common in cirrhosis of the liver C. Warrants a search for sickle cell anemia D. Is seen in pulmonary A-V fistula Platelet count is raised in (2005) A. Osteopetrosis B. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Thiazide therapy GENERAL SURGERY 216. The most common site of metastasis from the mandibular sarcoma is (2004) A. Lung B. Liver C. Spleen D. Heart Horner s syndrome does not include (2004) A. Ptosis B. Anhydrosis C. Flushing D. Mydriasis A cold nodule in thyroiditis scan mean (2004) A. Nodule which is cold B. Hyperactive nodule C. Nodule which is non functioning and malignant D. Nodule which has no signs of inflammation

214.

215.

217.

218.

219.

The 5-year survival rate for patients with esophageal carcinoma who have been treated surgically is (2004) A. 60% B. 45% C. 30% D. 10% The most important aspect in treating Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is to (2004) A. Administer heparin B. Administer platelets C. Treat the underlying disease process D. Achieve normal levels of fibrinogen All of the following components or qualities of stored blood tend to decrease over time except (2004) A. Red blood cell activity B. Potassium concentration C. pH D. Platelet activity Level-III neck nodes are (2005) A. In the submental triangle B. In the posterior triangle C. In the midline from hyoid to suprasternal notch D. Around the middle 1/3 rd of internal jugular vein

220.

221.

222.

223. Important components of collagen synthesis, wound strength and contraction include all of the following except (2005) A. Fibroblasts B. Myofibroblasts C. Vitamin-C D. Vitamin-D

224.

Keloid scars (2005) A. Usually occur in the Caucasian race B. Often occur in wounds which have healed perfectaly without complications C. Surgical treatment as a single modality has the least recurrence D. Radiation should not be administered as it is a non -malignant condition.

225. Hypothyroidism should be treated with daily administration of which of the following thyroid hormone preparations (2005) A. Thyroid extract B. Thyroglobulin

C. Thyroxine(T4) D. Triiodothyronine(T 3)

ORAL PATHOLOGY 226. If the tooth is present at the time of birth it is kn own as (2004) A. Neonatal tooth B. Perinatal tooth C. Natal tooth D. Postnatal tooth Tetracycline drug ingestion in children is not recommended till the age of (2004) A. 6 Years B. 8 Years C. 4 Years D. 12 Years Upon stretching the buccal mucosa, white lesion that disappears is (2004) A. OSMF B. Leukoedema C. White sponge nevus D. Lichen planus Reed-Sternberg cells are a feature seen in (2004) A. Non Hodgkin s lymphoma B. Hodgkin s lymphoma C. Burkitt s lymphoma D. Ewing s sarcoma

227.

228.

229.

230. Which histopathological type of OKC is commoner, more invasive and has a greater tendency for recurrence (2004)(2005) A. Ortho keratinized B. Para keratinized C. Non keratinized D. Kis keratinized 231. In early carious lesion the first structure to show evidence of destruction is the (2004) A. Enamel prism B. Interprismatic substance C. Enamel tufts D. Enamel lamellae Features of Grinspan s Syndrome include (2004) A. Leukoplakia and hypertension B. Candidiasis and diabetes mellitus

232.

C. Leukoplakia and hypotension D. Lichen planus and diabetes mellitus 233. Which of the following is a pseudocyst (2004) A. Mucous retention cyst B. Radicular cyst C. Aneurysmal bone cyst D. Dentigerous cyst Glossodynia is (2004) A. Pain in the tongue B. Burning of the tongue C. Swelling of the tongue D. White patch on the tongue Nikolsky s sign is positive in (2004) A. Pemphigus B. Lichen planus C. Leukoplakia D. Leukoedema The most common salivary gland tumor is (2004) A. Basal cell adenoma B. Mixed cell carcinoma C. Pleomorphic carcinoma D. Pleomorphic adenoma Target lesions are characteristically seen in (2004) A. Neurofibromatosis B. Erythema multiforme C. Erythema nodosum D. Pemphigus Talon s cusp is characteristic of which syndrome (2004) A. Edward s syndrome B. Kleinfelter s syndrome C. Rubinstein taybi syndrome D. Down s syndrome Head shape in down syndrome is typically (2004) A. Mesocephalic B. Dolicocephalic C. Brachycephalic D. Acephalic

234.

235.

236.

237.

238.

239.

240. One of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder (2005) 241. Among pre-malignant oral lesion (2005) 242. Bohn s nodules are (2005) 243. The tissue of which lesion has been described as resembling a blood soaked sponge with large pores (2005) 244. The peripheral lesion that would most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is 245. Dentinal union of two embryologically developing teeth is referred to as 246. Which of the following is not true about primary HSV infections 247. Psorolane Ultra Violet A (PUVA) therapy is advised in 248. Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following 249. Treacher collin s syndrome is 250. Port wine stain is a characteristic feature of 251. Common cariogenic bacteria is 252. Multinucleated giant cell and perivascular cuff ing are features seen in 253. Early invading bacteria in carious lesions are called 254. Herpangina is caused by 255. Xerostomia is seen in all of the following except 256. Loss of tooth surface because of chemo mechanical action is known as 257. Chocolate colored fluid is seen in the cystic space of 258. Of the following conditions, the one which is not considered to be premalignant is 259. Rushton bodies are seen commonly in 260. Break up time test is done in 261. The commonest intraosseous salivary gland neoplasm is 262. Lock Jaw indicates 263. Blood borne seeding of bacteria into an area of previously damaged or irritated pulp with resultant inflammation is known as 264. Albers Schonberg disease is 265. The cells which give the starry sky appearance in Burkitt s Lymphoma are 266. Sequestrum means

ORTHODONTICS

267.

Leeway space of nance is utilized in (2004) A. Early mesial shift of first permanent molars B. Incisal liability C. Late mesial shift of first permanent molars D. Secondary spacing of first permanent molars Functional matrix theory was hypothesized by (2004) A. Scott B. Sicher C. Petrovic D. Moss

268.

269.

Following is a feature of Angle s class II Division 2 (2004) A. Open bite B. Retrusion of maxillary centrals C. Protrusion of maxillary centrals D. Mesio-occlusion of upper 1 st molar Which of the following landmarks are not located in the mandible (2004) A. Pogonion B. Gnathion C. Menton D. Porion Maxillary protraction head gear is used for (2004) A. Maxillary skeletal retrusion B. Mandibular skeletal protrusion C. Bimaxillary protrusion D. Skeletal open bite Abnormally thick maxillary labial frenum results in (2004) A. Maxillary midline diastema B. Imbrication of incisors C. Labial inclination of incisors D. Anterior deep bite Which of the following permanent tooth is least extracted for orthodontic treatment (2004) A. Canines B. Permanent maxillary 1st molar C. 1st premolars D. 2nd premolars Hyalinization of the periodontal ligament, due to excessive orthodontic forces results in (2004) A. Frontal resorption B. Undermining resorption C. Cementum remaining intact D. Dentine remaining intact Dominant movement of root with relativ ely less movement of the crown is called (2004) A. Couple B. Torque C. Intrusion D. Extrusion SNB angle describes the relationship of the (2004) A. Maxilla to the cranial base B. Mandible to the cranial base

270.

271.

272.

273.

274.

275.

276.

C. Maxilla to the mandible D. All of the above 277. A major criterion to differentiate between a true Angle s Class III and a pseudo Angle s Class III is (2004) A. Degree of anterior cross bite B. Presence of bilateral cross bite C. Existence of a forward shift of the mandible during closure D. Occlusal relationship between maxilla and mandible The most accepted theory of tooth eruption is (2004) A. Hydrodynamic theory B. Clone theory C. Periodontal ligament traction theory D. Vascular theory PEDODONTICS 279. Treatment for Ellis class III fracture of anterior tooth in a 12 year old patient, reported after 72 hours is (2004) A. Pulpotomy B. RCT C. Indirect pulp capping D. Direct pulp capping 280. Hand Over Mouth Exercise (HOME) is an effective behavioural modification technique in the age group (2004) A. 3-6 years B. Under 3 years C. 6-9 years D. Above 9 years PERIODONTICS 281. Bulk of lamina propria of the gingiva is made up of collagen type (2004) A. I B. II C. III D. IV

278.

282. Which of the following suture technique can be used to suspend the period ontal flap at the desired level (2004) A. Figure of eight suture B. Suspensory ligation C. Continuous ligation D. Interdental ligation

283.

Angulation of a periodontal instrument refers to the (2004) A. Angle between the face of the blade and the shank B. Angle between shank or he shaft C. Angle between the face of the blade and the tooth surface D. Angle between the shank and the tooth surface Ramping can be done for a (2004) A. One wall angular defect B. Two wall angular defect C. Three wall angular defect D. Four wall angular defect Langerhan s cells are absent in (2004) A. Junctional epithelium B. Sulcular epithelium C. Oral epithelium D. All the above

284.

285.

RADIOLOGY 286. Which of the following is most radio resistant (2004) A. Early precursor cells of erythroblastic series B. Muscle cells C. Fibroblasts D. Vascular endothelial cells What is the function of the lead foil in the film packet (2004) A. Moisture protection B. To give rigidity C. Absorb the backscatter radiation D. Protection against florescence Which of the structures appear radiopaque (2004) A. Maxillary sinus B. Nasal fossa C. Nasal septum D. Mental foramen In the bisecting technique, the film is placed (2004) A. Parallel to the tooth B. As close to the tooth as possible C. Parellel to the bisector D. Perpendicular to the bisector

287.

288.

289.

PROSTHODONTICS 290. Bennett movement is (2004) A. Direct lateral side shift of the mandible that occurs simultaneously with lateral mandibular excursion. B. Direct lateral sideshift of the mandible that occurs simultaneously with medial mandibular excursion. C. Direct medial sideshift with medial mandibular exc ursion D. Direct lateral side shift with medial mandibular excursion Centric relation refers to the position of the condyles in (2004) A. Posterior most position B. Posterior and superior position C. Anterior and superior position D. Anterior most position Cross section form of lingual bar major connector is (2004) A. Full pear shape B. Half pear shape C. Round shape D. Flat shape Combination clasp consists of (2004) A. Wrought wire reciprocal arm and cast retentive arm B. Wrought wire retentive arm and cast rediprocal arm C. Wrought wire reciprocal arm and wrought retentive arm D. Cast reciprocal arm and cast retentive arm The finish line for a PFM anterior restoration is (2004) A. Facially shoulder with bevel lingually chamfer B. Facially shoulder with bevel and linguallly shoulder C. Facially chamfer and lingually knife edge D. Facially chamfer and lingually shoulder The pontic design of choice in the appearance zone of maxillary and mandibular ridge is (2004) A. Hygienic B. Modified ridge lap C. Saddle D. Conical Instructing the patient to say ah with short vigorous bursts will help in visualizing (2004) A. Soft palate B. Posterior vibrating line C. Anterior vibrating line D. Junction of hard and soft palate

291.

292.

293.

294.

295.

296.

297.

Central incisor tooth arrangement in a tapering arch (2004) A. Rotation of incisors on their long axis inward at the distal aspect B. Rotation of incisors on their long axis outward at the distal aspect C. Rotation of incisors on their long axis inward at the mesial aspect D. Central incisors almost in a straight line Atmospheric pressure as a factor of retention is effective only (2004) A. If saliva is present B. If adequate peripheral seal is present C. If principle of mucostatics is applied D. If good neuromuscular co-ordination is present Bucco-lingual widths of poeterior teeth should be (2004) A. Equal to the width of the natural teeth they replace B. Greater tha nthe width of the natural teeth they replace C. Lesser than the width of the natural teeth they replace D. Width of artificial posterior teeth is a matter of the operator s prefrence

298.

299.

CONSERVATIVE DENTISTRY 300. Short bevel extends (2004) A. In almost 1/3 of the enamel B. All of the enamel and ½ of the dentin C. All of the enamel only D. 1/3 of the enamel only Dentin bonding agents usually contain (2004) A. Only hydrophobic component B. Only hydrophilic component C. Hydrophobic and hydrophilic components D. Lycophilic and lycophobic components Cavity varnish can be used under (2004) A. Zn phosphate cement B. Zn polycarboxylate cemeny C. GIC D. Composite veneer restoration What is the recommended force for condensation of dental amalgam (2004) A. 35 lbs B. 03 lbs C. 15 lbs D. 25 lbs The highest incidence of pulp necrosis associated with (2004)

301.

302.

303.

304.

A. B. C. D.

Class V preparations on root surface Inlay preparations Partial veneer preparations Full crown preparations ENDODONTICS

305.

The bleaching material used for Night Guard vital tooth bleaching is (2004) A. Superoxol B. Anesthetic ether and hydrochloric acid C. Sodium bicarbonate D. Carbamide peroxide Currently, one of the popular root end filling materials in great vogue is (2004) A. Calcium hydroxide B. GIC C. Microfilled composite resin D. Mineral Trioxide Aggregate(MTA) The prognosis for teeth with root fracture is best when the fracture occurs in the (2004) A. Coronal 1/3rd of root B. Middle 1/3rd of root C. Apical 1/3rd of root D. Coronal ½ of root The periapical lesion that would most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is (2004) A. Periapical abscess B. Periapical cyst C. Periapical granuloma D. Condensing osteitis Apexification is the treatment of choice for a permanent tooth with wide open apex when (2004) A. The pulp is necrotic B. The pulp is vital C. The pulp and root canals are calcified D. There is a traumatic pulp exposure during cavity preparation Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an inter -appointment intracanal medication because of (2004) A. Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue B. Its antimicrobial property C. Its ability to stimulate hard tissue formation D. Its powerful bleaching effect In class III Ellis fracture (2004) A. Only enamel is involved B. Enamel and dentin are involved

306.

307.

308.

309.

310.

311.

C. Enamel, dentin and pulp are involved D. Non vital pulp 312. Instrument used primarily to extirpate the pulp is (2004) A. K file B. H- file C. Barbed broach D. Reamer Blood born seeding of bacteria into an area of previously damaged or irritated pulp with a resultant inflammation is known as (2004) A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Anachoretic pulpitis C. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis D. Ulcerative pulpitis

313.

ORAL SURGERY 314. The first sensation to be lost following administration of local anesthetic is (2004) A. Proprioception B. Pain C. Touch D. Temperature Treatment of choice of a linear non displaced fracture of the body of mandible with full complement of teeth is (2004) A. Kirschner wire B. Circumferential wiring C. External pin fixation D. Inter dental fixation With overdose of LA agent, one would observe (2004) A. Hypertension B. Hypotension C. No change in BP D. Cardiac arrhythmias Sagittal split ostectomy is procedure done for (2004) A. Maxillary deformities B. Mandibular deformities C. Condylar deformities D. Deformities in which occlusion is not involved The most common dislocation of TMJ is (2004) A. Anterior

315.

316.

317.

318.

B. Posterior C. Medial D. Lateral 319. The following microorganism is considered to be responsible for dry socket (2004) A. Pseudomonas B. Treponema denticola C. Spirochetes D. Streptococcus viridians Rubber Band extraction is a method of extraction i n a patient having (2004) A. Bleeding disorders B. Myocardial infarction and angina pectoris C. Supernumerary teeth D. Impacted teeth Which muscles make up the pterygomandibular raphae (2004) A. Masseter anteriorly and palatopharyngeus posteriorly B. Masseter anteriorly and medial pterygoid posteriorly C. Buccinators anteriorly and superior constrictor posteriorly D. Buccinator anteriorly and medial constrictor posteriorly Commonly used suture material for closure of intraoral wounds is (2004) A. Nylon B. Silk C. Catgut D. Chromic catgut The most significant adverse consequence of accidental i.v. administration of local anesthetic is (2004) A. Bronchoconstriction B. Hepatic damage C. Nerve damage D. Seizures COMMUNTY DENTISTRY 324. The health promotional phase in public health was between the years (2004) A. 1880 1920 B. 1920 1960 C. 1960 1980 D. 1981 2000 The Physical Quality of Life Index(PQLI) ranges between (2004) A. 01 10

320.

321.

322.

323.

325.

B. 00 C. 00 D. 50 326.

50 100 100

Sensitivity of a test is its ability to identify (2004) A. True negative B. False positive C. False negative D. True positive The point at which the chlorine demand of water is (2004) A. Break point B. Back wash C. Loss of head D. Chlorine demand The number of people in a group receiving a lecture should not be more than (2004) A. 60 B. 50 C. 40 D. 30 The Bhore Committee on health survey and development submitted its report in (2004) A. 1943 B. 1946 C. 1962 D. 1963 The first country to adopt salt fluoridation was (2004) A. France B. Germany C. Jamaica D. None In Snyder s test, saliva is said to be highly cariogenic if the color change is observed at hrs (2004) A. 24 B. 48 C. 72 D. 96 Clinical wastes in hospitals are to be disposed in which color bags (2004) A. Yellow B. Black C. Green D. Red

327.

328.

329.

330.

331.

332.

333.

The permissible level of E.Coli (number/ml)in potable water is (2004) A. 20 B. 15 C. 10 D. 0 The index used to record the plaque score is (2004) A. PMA index B. Silness and Loe index C. Green And Vermillion index D. Russell s index Proxa brushes are recommended to be used in which of the following type of embrasure (2004) A. Type I embrasure B. Type II embrasure C. Type III embrasure D. All the above

334.

335.

336.