pmp

1. You are a project manager working on a project to market a new product. The deliverables of the project have been established, and the project work has begun. A contract to deliver the deliverables has been signed. The customer who has signed the contract has telephoned you to request additional work to be done on the project. This work will affect the budget but not the schedule of the project. This project has a high priority with your company. What should you so next? a. Do what the customer asks you to do and add the additional requirements to the original contract b. Refuse the request and send a memo to your management explaining the situation c. Respond to the customer’s request by explaining the change procedure and askingthat he or she submit a request for change d. Arrange to meet with the project team to discuss this change

2. You are the project manager for a high visibility project. The margin on this project is low,and it is extremely important that the cost estimates for the work on the project be accurate. While reviewing the cost estimates for this project you notice that one of the cost estimates for an element in the WBS is 10% higher than two previous projects for very similar work. What should you do? a. Accept the estimate because you trust all of the people on your project team, and they are responsible for estimates b. Reduce the estimate and add the additional budget to the management reserve c. Ask the person responsible for the estimate to explain the difference and bring supporting information to you d. Reduce the estimate and add the additional budget to the contingency reserve

3. You are managing a project in a foreign country. In this country there is a normalpractice for business people to exchange gifts when very large contracts, such as the one you are working on, are signed. The gift is of a greater value than your company’s policy for gift exchange will allow. You have given a gift of similar value to the customer’srepresentative already. What should you do? a. Take the gift b. Contact your company’s management and seek for assistance c. Refuse the gift graciously, explaining your company’s policy d. Ask the customer’s representative to give the gift to your manager.

4. You are the manager of a research group that is developing a new chemical material.You hire a person from a competing company who has a great deal of expertise in thisarea. The person contributes greatly to the progress of your project. Duringconversation with the person you determine that many of this person’s ideas weredeveloped by the competing company. What do you do?

a. Tell the person that he or she should not mention that the ideas came from anothercompany b. Sign a nondisclosure agreement with this person before he or she leaves yourcompany c. Accept the new ideas d. Investigate the employee for security reasons

5. You are managing a project that is in process. A large and unexpected problem occurs that will cause a delay in the schedule in excess of the contingency schedule for the project. What should you do? a. Look at other tasks in the schedule and see which ones should be reduced to allow time for this problem to be worked b. Reduce testing on the completed tasks c. Require mandatory overtime for the project team d. Speak to the stakeholders about getting additional time and budget for the project

6. You are the project manager for a large project. Some members of the project team have come to you and asked that they be permitted to work on a flexible schedule. Some of the other team members feel that it is important that all team members be on site at all times unless they are absent for business reasons. What should you do? a. Turn down the request for flexible time schedules b. Accept the request for flexible time schedules c. Arrange a meeting of the project team members and allow them to decide d. Discuss this problem with your manager and act on the results of the meeting

7. You are the project manager for a project that has high visibility. Your manager wants you to prepare a presentation for him to present at a conference. Most of the material in the presentation will be facts that are the results of your project. Your manager intends to present the material under his own name. Your name will not appear. What should you do? a. Refuse to work on the presentation unless you are listed as a coauthor b. Do the work as you were told by your manager c. Present your own presentation d. Meet with your manager’s manager and discuss the problem

8. You are managing a project and the customer’s engineer visits your facility on an inspection and general getting acquainted tour. During the tour they make the comment that the parts that are being designed should be in stainless steel instead of plain steel with enamel. What should you do?

a. Authorize the change in design to your engineers b. Continue with the present design c. Speak to the visiting engineers and discuss having an informal meeting between your engineers and the visiting engineers d. Ask the visiting engineers to submit a change proposal to the change system

9. Which of the following is the example of a conflict of interest? a. You are the fourth cousin of a vendor supplying parts to a project in your company b. You are the owner of a company that is supplying parts to a project that you are managing c. You receive a gift from a supplier of parts for your project d. A supplier tells you sensitive information, in confidence, that allows you to select another supplier for your project

10. You are the project manager for a large project that is completed on time and on budget. The customer and all of the stakeholders are pleased with the results. As a direct result of the successful completion of the project, your manager approves a bonus of $25,000 for you. There are fifteen members of the project team. One of the people in the project team has been a very low contributor to the project; the other fourteen have all been above standard. What should you do with the money? a. Keep the money yourself; you deserve it. And the manager gave it to you b. Divide the money equally among all the team members c. Ask the team members how they would divide the money d. Divide the money equally among the team members except for the substandard team member

11. One of the members of your project team comes to you and says that he heard that one of the suppliers to the project had given a substantial gift to one of the project team members in hopes that the team member would favor his company with a purchase order. The company was favored with a purchase order for the parts. What should you do? a. Talk to the person and get him or her to give back the gift b. Investigate the matter completely c. Cancel the purchase order with the supplier d. Meet with your manager and discuss the problem

12. Decomposing the major deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to provide better control is called: a. Scope planning b. Scope definition c. Scope baselining d. Scope verification

13. Any numbering system that is used to monitor project costs by category such as labor, supplies, or materials, for example, is called a. Chart of accounts b. Work breakdown structure c. Universal accounting standard d. Standard accounting practices

14. A person who is involved in or may be affected by the activities or anyone who has something to gain or lose by the activity of the project is called a: a. Team member b. Customer c. Stakeholder d. Supporter

The following should be used for questions 15 through 17. A project manager is assigned to a project early in the project lifecycle. One of the things that must be done is to do a justification for the project. Since very little information is known about the project, the estimates are considered to be rough estimates. The following table is the project manager’s estimate of the cash flow that will take place over the next five years. End of Year Cash Flow In Cash Flow Out 1 0 500,000 2 300,000 90,000 3 400,000 100,000 4 100,000 175,000 5 50,000 35,000 15. What is the payback period for this project? a. One year b. Two years c. Three years d. Four years 16. What is the net cash flow at the end of five years? a. $50,000 b. - $50,000 c. $850,000 d. $100,000 17. If the net present value for each of the cash flows were calculated at a 10% interest rate, the net present value cash flow at the end of five years would be: a. Greater than the total cash flow without the net present value applied b. Less than the total cash flow without the net present value applied c. The same as the total cash flow without the net present value applied d. Unable to be calculated with the information supplied

18. A group of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way that usually include an element of ongoing activity is called a: a. Major project b. Project office c. Program d. Group of projects

19. During the full life cycle of the project, a plot of the project’s expected expenditure will usually follow a characteristic “S” shape. This indicates that: a. There is a cyclic nature to all projects b. Problems will always occur in the execution phase c. There are high expenditure during closeout d. The bulk of the project budget will be spent in the execution phase

20. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a new product or service is called a: a. New product development b. Project c. Program d. Enterprise

PMP Questions 1 to 20

1. You are a project manager working on a project to market a new product. The deliverables of the project have been established, and the project work has begun. A contract to deliver the deliverables has been signed. The customer who has signed the contract has telephoned you to request additional work to be done on the project. This work will affect the budget but not the schedule of the project. This project has a high priority with your company. What should you so next?

a. Do what the customer asks you to do and add the additional requirements to the original contract b. Refuse the request and send a memo to your management explaining the situation

c. Respond to the customer’s request by explaining the change procedure and askingthat he or she submit a request for change

d. Arrange to meet with the project team to discuss this change

2. You are the project manager for a high visibility project. The margin on this project is low,and it is extremely important that the cost estimates for the work on the project be accurate. While reviewing the cost estimates for this project you notice that one of the cost estimates for an element in the WBS is 10% higher than two previous projects for very similar work. What should you do?

a. Accept the estimate because you trust all of the people on your project team, and they are responsible for estimates

b. Reduce the estimate and add the additional budget to the management reserve

c. Ask the person responsible for the estimate to explain the difference and bring supporting information to you

d. Reduce the estimate and add the additional budget to the contingency reserve

3. You are managing a project in a foreign country. In this country there is a normalpractice for business people to exchange gifts when very large contracts, such

as the one you are working on, are signed. The gift is of a greater value than your company’s policy for gift exchange will allow. You have given a gift of similar value to the customer’srepresentative already. What should you do?

a. Take the gift b. Contact your company’s management and seek for assistance c. Refuse the gift graciously, explaining your company’s policy d. Ask the customer’s representative to give the gift to your manager.

4. You are the manager of a research group that is developing a new chemical material.You hire a person from a competing company who has a great deal of expertise in thisarea. The person contributes greatly to the progress of your project. Duringconversation with the person you determine that many of this person’s ideas weredeveloped by the competing company. What do you do?

a. Tell the person that he or she should not mention that the ideas came from anothercompany b. Sign a nondisclosure agreement with this person before he or she leaves yourcompany c. Accept the new ideas d. Investigate the employee for security reasons

5. You are managing a project that is in process. A large and unexpected problem occurs that will cause a delay in the schedule in excess of the contingency schedule for the project. What should you do?

a. Look at other tasks in the schedule and see which ones should be reduced to allow time for this problem to be worked b. Reduce testing on the completed tasks

c. Require mandatory overtime for the project team d. Speak to the stakeholders about getting additional time and budget for the project

6. You are the project manager for a large project. Some members of the project team have come to you and asked that they be permitted to work on a flexible schedule. Some of the other team members feel that it is important that all team members be on site at all times unless they are absent for business reasons. What should you do?

a. Turn down the request for flexible time schedules b. Accept the request for flexible time schedules c. Arrange a meeting of the project team members and allow them to decide d. Discuss this problem with your manager and act on the results of the meeting

7. You are the project manager for a project that has high visibility. Your manager wants you to prepare a presentation for him to present at a conference. Most of the material in the presentation will be facts that are the results of your project. Your manager intends to present the material under his own name. Your name will not appear. What should you do?

a. Refuse to work on the presentation unless you are listed as a coauthor b. Do the work as you were told by your manager c. Present your own presentation d. Meet with your manager’s manager and discuss the problem

8. You are managing a project and the customer’s engineer visits your facility on an inspection and general getting acquainted tour. During the tour they make the comment that the parts that are being designed should be in stainless steel instead of plain steel with enamel. What should you do?

a. Authorize the change in design to your engineers b. Continue with the present design c. Speak to the visiting engineers and discuss having an informal meeting between your engineers and the visiting engineers d. Ask the visiting engineers to submit a change proposal to the change system

9. Which of the following is the example of a conflict of interest?

a. You are the fourth cousin of a vendor supplying parts to a project in your company b. You are the owner of a company that is supplying parts to a project that you are managing c. You receive a gift from a supplier of parts for your project d. A supplier tells you sensitive information, in confidence, that allows you to select another supplier for your project

10. You are the project manager for a large project that is completed on time and on budget. The customer and all of the stakeholders are pleased with the results. As a direct result of the successful completion of the project, your manager approves a bonus of $25,000 for you. There are fifteen members of the project team. One of the people in the project team has been a very low contributor to the project; the other fourteen have all been above standard. What should you do with the money?

a. Keep the money yourself; you deserve it. And the manager gave it to you b. Divide the money equally among all the team members c. Ask the team members how they would divide the money d. Divide the money equally among the team members except for the substandard team member

11. One of the members of your project team comes to you and says that he heard that one of the suppliers to the project had given a substantial gift to one of the project team members in hopes that the team member would favor his company with a purchase order. The company was favored with a purchase order for the parts. What should you do?

a. Talk to the person and get him or her to give back the gift b. Investigate the matter completely c. Cancel the purchase order with the supplier d. Meet with your manager and discuss the problem

12. Decomposing the major deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to provide better control is called:

a. Scope planning b. Scope definition c. Scope baselining d. Scope verification

13. Any numbering system that is used to monitor project costs by category such as labor, supplies, or materials, for example, is called a. Chart of accounts b. Work breakdown structure c. Universal accounting standard d. Standard accounting practices

14. A person who is involved in or may be affected by the activities or anyone who has something to gain or lose by the activity of the project is called a:

a. Team member b. Customer c. Stakeholder d. Supporter

The following should be used for questions 15 through 17. A project manager is assigned to a project early in the project lifecycle. One of the things that must be done is to do a justification for the project. Since very little information is known about the project, the estimates are considered to be rough estimates. The following table is the project manager’s estimate of the cash flow that will take place over the next five years.

End of Year Cash Flow In Cash Flow Out 1 2 3 0 300,000 400,000 500,000 90,000 100,000

4 5

100,000 50,000

175,000 35,000

15. What is the payback period for this project? a. One year b. Two years c. Three years d. Four years

16. What is the net cash flow at the end of five years? a. $50,000 b. - $50,000 c. $850,000 d. $100,000

17. If the net present value for each of the cash flows were calculated at a 10% interest rate, the net present value cash flow at the end of five years would be: a. Greater than the total cash flow without the net present value applied b. Less than the total cash flow without the net present value applied c. The same as the total cash flow without the net present value applied d. Unable to be calculated with the information supplied

18. A group of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way that usually include an element of ongoing activity is called a:

a. Major project

b. Project office c. Program d. Group of projects

19. During the full life cycle of the project, a plot of the project’s expected expenditure will usually follow a characteristic “S” shape. This indicates that:

a. There is a cyclic nature to all projects b. Problems will always occur in the execution phase c. There are high expenditure during closeout d. The bulk of the project budget will be spent in the execution phase

20. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a new product or service is called a:

a. New product development b. Project c. Program d. Enterprise

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Answers

1. C Respond to the customer’s request by explaining the change procedure and asking that he or she submit a request for change

2. C Ask the person responsible for the estimate to explain the difference and bring supporting information to you

3. B Contact your company’s management and seek for assistance

4. C Accept the new ideas

5. A

Look at other tasks in the schedule and see which ones should be reduced to allow time for this problem to be worked

6. C Arrange a meeting of the project team members and allow them to decide

7. A Refuse to work on the presentation unless you are listed as a coauthor

8. C Speak to the visiting engineers and discuss having an informal meeting between your engineers and the visiting engineers

9. B You are the owner of a company that is supplying parts to a project that you are managing

10. C Ask the team members how they would divide the money

11. B Investigate the matter completely

12. B Scope definition

13. A Chart of accounts

14. C

Stakeholder

15. C Three years

16. B - $50,000

17. B Less than the total cash flow without the net present value applied

18. C Program

19. D The bulk of the project budget will be spent in the execution phase

20. B Project

21. A project manager makes a narrative description of the work that must be done for her project. This is calle a. Project plan b. Control chart c. Statement of work d. Project objective

22. An example of scope verification is:

a. Reviewing the performance of an installed software module b. Managing changes to the project schedule c. Decomposing the WBS to a work package level d. Performing a benefit-cost analysis to determine if we should proceed

23. The process of establishing clear and achievable objectives, measuring their achievement, and adjusting performance in accordance with the results of the measurement is called a. Strategic planning b. Contingency planning c. Detailed planning d. Management by objectives 24. Configuration management is: a. Used to ensure that the description of the project product is correct and complete b. The creation of work breakdown structure c. The set of procedures developed to ensure that project design criteria are met d. A mechanism to track budget and schedule variances 25. A project manager is employed by a construction company and is responsible for the furnishing of the completed building. One of the first things that the project manager for this project should do is to write a: a. Work breakdown structure b. Budget baseline c. Project charter d. Project plan

26. A project manager is creating a work breakdown structure for her project. In the work break down structure, the lowest level of the breakdown for the project manager is called: a. Activity b. Task c. Work package d. Cost account 27. A project manager is reviewing the scope of the project and the scope baseline of the project. This includes which of the following? a. The original project schedule, budget, and scope b. The original project description and project charter c. The original scope of the project plus or minus any scope changes d. The current budget of the project 28. A project manager has just become the manager of a project. The document that recognizes the existence of the project is called:

a. The statement of work b. The project assignment c. The project charter d. The product description 29. A project manager is reviewing the work breakdown structure for her project. The WBS of the project represents: a. All the tangible items that must be delivered to the client b. All the work that must be completed for the project c. The work that must be performed by the project team d. All the activities of the project 30. A manager who manages a group of related projects is called a: a. Project manager b. Project expediter c. Program coordinator d. Program manager 31. A new project has begun. The project charter has been written and the project manager has been assigned. The project manager is preparing the work breakdown structure for the project. The WBS is typically used for: a. Explaining the scope of the project relevant to the client b. The basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project c. Showing the resource conflicts that exist in the project d. The logical relationship between tasks in the project 32. During the life of a project, the project will go through several phases – initiating, planning, execution, and closeout. Which phase of the project is likely to have the greatest amount of its funding spent? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Closeout 33. During the course of the project it is important that the stakeholders be informed of the progress of the project. One of the reports that is frequently used is a progress report. Which of the following is true about progress report? a. They allow stakeholders to judge the performance of the project according to its plan b. They are generally considered to be overkill on very small projects c. They require the use of earned value reports d. They must be produced by the project manager 34. The coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that has finite period of performance is a: a. Project charter b. Project c. Set of project objectives d. Program

35. The document that is proof of upper management’s commitment to the project and gives the authority to manage the project to the project manager is called: a. The project plan b. The project goals and objectives c. The project charter d. The project definition 36. A project manager works in a company favoring the weakest authority for the projectmanager the type of organization that holds the project manager to be the weakest is: a. Projectized organization b. Strong matrix organization c. Weak matrix organization d. Balanced matrix organization 37. A project manager has been asked by the client to meet the promise date of the project. The project manager analyzes the schedule before promising a date to the customer. The project manager uses the program evaluation and review technique to evaluate the project schedule. She decides that based on the PERT calculations she can promise a delivery date of June 30. The expected value of the project completion date is May 30. If the project manager is willing to accept a 5% probability that the project will be delivered later than June 30, what is the standard deviation of the duration of the activities on the critical path? Assume a five-day workweek. a. Ten days b. Fifteen days c. One-half month d. One month 38. A project is proposed to a customer. Price and schedule for delivery are agreed upon. The work breakdown structure is agreed to as well. The customer requests that one of the milestones of the project be completed by a certain date. The project schedule is reviewed, and it is found that the expected completion date for this milestone is considerably earlier that the date requested by the customer. The date for this milestone is which of the following? a. Consideration b. Summary activity c. Constraint d. Suggestion 39. A project manager is managing a project. The original scope baseline of the project was budgeted at $100,000. Since work on the project started there have been seventeen authorized and approved changes to the project. The changes have a value of $17,000 and the cost of investigating them prior to their approval was $2,500. What is the current budget for the project? a. $100,000 b. $114,500 c. $117,000 d. $119,500 40. In a very large project having a budget of $5 million and a project team of over one hundred persons, the project manager constructs a work breakdown structure. The project manager will do the WBS to the detail level of which of the following?

a. Task b. Activity c. WBS element d. Work package Answers: 21. C Statement of work 22. A Reviewing the performance of an installed software module 23.D Management by objectives 24.C The set of procedures developed to ensure that project design criteria are met 25. C Project charter 26. C Work package 27. C The original scope of the project plus or minus any scope changes 28. C The project charter 29. B All the work that must be completed for the project 30. D Program manager 31. B The basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project 32. C Executing 33. A They allow stakeholders to judge the performance of the project according to its plan 34.B Project 35.C The project charter

36.C Weak matrix organization 37.C One-half month 38.C Constraint 39.D $119,500 40.D Work package

41. A project manager is managing a project that has reached the end of planning phase. The work scope has been agreed to and definitive cost estimates have been completed for the project. The total estimated cost of the project is $100,000. It is reasonable to expect that the project will not cost over which of the following value? a. $100,000 b. $110,000 c. $125,000 d. $175,000

The following information and questions 42 through 51 refer to Figure 1

A schedule was developed for a project to install windows in an apartment building. The project is a rush job, and the contractor has agreed to schedule the work on a single shift basis but will work seven days per week until the job is done. The project is to begin on May 1.

42. What day in May will activity D have for its early finish date? a. May 13 b. May 6 c. May 7 d. May 5

43. What is the free float for activity F? a. 6 b. 7 c. 0 d. 8

44. What is the free float for activity D? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 0

45. What is the critical path of the project? a. A B E G H b. A B D F H c. A C G H d. A B E D F H

46. What is the late start for activity F? a. May 10 b. May 11 c. May 12 d. May 14

47. How long is the project in days?

a. Nineteen b. Twenty c. Twenty-one d. Eighteen

48. What is the early start for activity F? a. May 7 b. May 6 c. May 5 d. May 4

49. If there is a delay in activity F of six days, what is the effect on the project completion date? a. Increases one day b. No change to project completion date c. Increases two days d. Increases three days

50. What is the early finish date for activity A? a. May 1 b. May 2 c. May 3 d. May 4

51. The above diagram is called: a. Activity on arrow network diagram b. Network diagram

c. Precedence diagram d. Gantt chart

52. If a project manager were to make Thanksgiving dinner, two of the activities that might be of concern would be roasting the turkey and baking the sweet potatoes. In order to ensure that these two items will be finished cooking and will come out of the oven at the same time, what type of relationship should he or she use in the schedule between these two activities? a. Finish – finish b. Start – start c. Finish – start d. Start – finish

Questions 53 through 56 refer to the diagram in Figure 2 and the table that follows.

In a project to install concrete sewer lines there is a lot of uncertainty as to how long the durations should be for the tasks involved. The project manager has determined that the team will use the PERT technique to evaluate the project’s completion date. The diagram shows nine activities and the table shows the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates that the team has already made.

53. What is the expected value of the number of days to complete the project? a. 47.3 b. 22.0 c. 32.3 d. 48

54. It is desirable to make an estimate that has a greater than 95% chance of being correct. Which of the following ranges of time for the impletion of the project best describes this probability of being correct?

a. 33.31 to 31.36 b. 34.28 to 30.39 c. 14.39 to 33.48 d. 35.25 to 29.42

55. What is the expected value of the duration for activity B? a. 5.6 b. 2.8 c. 3.0 d. 2.6

56. What is the standard deviation for the duration of activity B? a. 1.000 b. .133 c. .166 d. 1.413

57. The project manager decided to improve the predicted completion date for the project by doing in parallel several of the activities that were scheduled to be done in sequence. This is called: a. Crashing

b. Increasing priorities c. Hurry up defense d. Fast tracking

58. Crashing the schedule means: a. Making the project shorter by any economic means b. Running the project team on overtime c. Doing activities that were in sequence in parallel d. Getting out of town before the project is in trouble

59. The original schedule (for a project, a work package, or an activity). Plus or minus approved changes, is called: a. The working schedule b. The target schedule c. The performance schedule d. The baseline schedule

60. Schedules are used in many ways. In a project to build a bridge the project manager wants to use a tool that will show the scheduled activities in such a way that it is easy to see when each activity starts and finishes and which activities are taking place at the same time. Which tool should be used? a. PERT chart b. Gantt chart c. Precedence diagram d. GERT chart

Answers:

41.B $110,000

42. B May 6

43.B 7

44. D 0

45.A ABEGH

46. C May 12

47. B Twenty

48. C May 5

49. B No change to project completion date

50. A May 1

51. C Precedence diagram

52. A Finish – finish

53. C 32.3

54. B 34.28 to 30.39

55. B 2.8

56. C .166

57. D Fast tracking

58. A

Making the project shorter by any economic means

59. D The baseline schedule

60. B Gantt chart 61. Which of the following is true? a. The critical path is the path through the network that has the highest total duration b. The critical path is the path with the least amount of free float c. The critical path is the list of activities that have zero float d. The critical path is the list of activities that have critical risks associated with them

62. Resource leveling will generally: a. Reduce the time needed to do the project b. Increase the total time necessary to do all the tasks c. Reduce the over utilization of resources d. Reduce resources to the lowest skill that is possible

63. A task was scheduled to use two persons, full time, and take two weeks to complete.Instead, the project manager was only able to assign one person to this task. At the endof two weeks, the person assigned to the task was 75% complete. What is the costperformance index? a. 0.75 b. 1.5 c. 1.33 d. .5

64. Five tasks are scheduled to be completed in sequence. Each task has a finishstartrelationship with the next task. Each has one day of total float. As of today, task one andtwo have been completed on schedule. How many days of float remain in the scheduleof these tasks?

a. Two b. One c. Zero d. Four

65. Which of the following is considered to be a simulation technique? a. PERT analysis b. GERT analysis c. Monte Carlo analysis d. Critical path method

66. The main difference between the two types (ADM, arrow diagramming method, and PDM, precedence diagramming method) of the critical path method (CPM) of scheduling is: a. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line b. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a deterministic method, whereas the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a probabilistic method c. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a deterministic method, whereas the arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a probabilistic method d. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a more accurate method

67. The project schedule is not used to determine: a. The start and finish dates of the activities

b. Occasional changes to the activity listing c. The total float of the activities d. The project’s budget

68. A project manager wants to make a trip to California by car. The project manager knows how many miles it will be to drive to California, the current price of gasoline, and how many miles the car will go on a gallon of gasoline. From this information he or she can calculate the estimated cost of the gasoline for the trip. This is a form of what kind of estimating technique? a. Definitive b. Analogous c. Parametric d. Quantitative

69. A project manager wants to make a trip to California by car. The project manager knows someone who has made this trip before. This person has a similar car to the one that the project manager has, and the person has kept good records on the money spent for fuel on the trip. The distance that the project manager will travel is 10% farther than the other person’s trip. By multiplying the cost of fuel reported by the other person by 1.1, the project manager is performing what kind of estimate? a. Definitive b. Analogous c. Parametric d. Quantitative

70. To distinguish top-down estimates from bottom-up estimates, it would be correct to say that the bottom-up estimate would be: a. Less accurate b. About equal in accuracy to the top-down estimate

c. More accurate d. No different to perform than the top-down estimate

71. A project manager and the project team identify several specific risks in a project. The expected value of these risks is estimated at $10,000. The impact on the project brought about by these risks is estimated at $40,000. What value should be entered into the management reserve for these risks? a. $10,000 b. $40,000 c. $0 d. $25,000

72. A project manager and the project team identify several specific risks in a project. The expected value of these risks is estimated at $10,000. The impact on the project brought about by these risks is estimated at $40,000. What value should be entered into the contingency reserve for these risks? a. $10,000 b. $40,000 c. $0 d. $25,000

73. What characteristic best describes the cost baseline? a. Total budget for the project b. Time-phased budget for the project c. Total budget for the project including the contingency budget d. Total budget for the project including the contingency budget and the management reserve

74. A project is formed to produce a product that will be used for transporting people. Costs that are associated with the project that occur after the delivery of the product to the customer are considered to be what kind of cost? a. Prorated cost b. Expenses c. Life cycle cost d. Expected value

75. A project team receives an approved change request from customer. The team has previously estimated that the cost to implement this change is $10,000. The customer has agreed to pay this amount for the additional work. The customer realizes that there is a 50 percent chance that this change will not work and will later be removed. What change, if any, should be made in the budget? a. The project budget should not be increased b. The project budget should be increased by $15,000 c. The project budget should be increased by $10,000 d. The project budget should be increased by $5,000

76. The act of doing anything that will help to bring future project performance into line with the project plan is called: a. Budget update b. Revised cost estimate c. Corrective action d. Contingency planning

77. Which of the following choices would be an acceptable cause for “rebaselining” a $10 million project? a. The monthly consumer price index on some of the commodities used on the project has been identified as having gone up by 1.6%, an increase of 46% over the 1.1% that had been budgeted

b. The client has authorized a $10,000 addition to the scope of the project c. The contractor’s company has instituted a quality program on which it has pledged to spend $1 million during the next year d. The productivity in the drafting department has been shown to be lower than anticipated, which has resulted in 1,000 additional hours, a 78% increase over what was budgeted

78. In terms of earned value reporting, a project is considered complete when: a. The BAC is equal to the PV b. The EV is equal to the AC c. The PV is equal to the AC d. The BAC is equal to the EV

79. The time-phased cost of the project that reflects the expenditures rather than the consumption of a resource that will be used to measure and monitor cost performance on a project is the: a. Spending plan b. Cost baseline c. WBS d. Schedule

80. A large piece of equipment is needed for the project. It will be retained and used after the project is completed. The equipment has a value of $500,000, and it has a scrap value of $50,000 at the end of its useful life of ten years. If the sum of the years’ digits method of depreciation is used, what is the depreciation that is taken at the end of the third year? a. $81,818 b. $90,900 c. $65,250 d. $72,500

Answers:

61. C The critical path is the list of activities that have zero float

62. C Reduce the over utilization of resources

63. B 1.5

64. B One

65. C Monte Carlo analysis

66. A Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line

67. D The project’s budget

68. C Parametric

69. B Analogous

70. C

More accurate

71. C $0

72. A $10,000

73. B Time-phased budget for the project

74. C Life cycle cost

75. C The project budget should be increased by $10,000

76. C Corrective action

77. B

The client has authorized a $10,000 addition to the scope of the project

78. D The BAC is equal to the EV

79. A Spending plan, which is the plan for the flow of money to pay for the project

80.C $65,250

81. Using the formula: Present value = S/(1+i)n where i is the interest rate in percentage, n isthe number of periods, and S is the starting amount, the following table is produced: Periods 1 2 3 4 5 10% 0.909 0.826 0.751 0.683 0.621 12% 0.893 0.797 0.712 0.636 0.597 14% 0.877 0.769 0.675 0.592 0.519

Based on the table, what is the value of an annual income flow of $1,300 each year overthe next three years at 12%? a. $3122.60 b. $3900.00 c. $3497.00 d. 36%

82. Lifecycle costing: a. Is a method of including all of the cost associated with the project over its entire life b. Is a federal government accounting method c. Is a method of predicting the life of a project d. Is a method of evaluating projects when they are complete

The following table and description refer to questions 83 through 89. A project manager is using the earned value reporting method to manage his project. Thefollowing table shows the data collected to date. The plan is for the project to be complete aftereight weeks. The earned value report shows data collected for the first four weeks of the project. The figure shown in the table are cumulative. Week 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 PV AC EV

1,000 1,000 1,000 3,000 2,000 2,500 5,000 5,000 6,000 7,000 9,000 7,000 13,000 17,000 19,000 20,000

83. What is the cost performance index for week 4? a. 1.000 b. 0.777 c. 1.286

d. 1.250

84. What is the schedule performance index for week 3? a. 1.200 b. 0.833 c. 1.000 d. 1.500

85. What is the BAC for the project during week 4? a. 7,000 b. 9,000 c. 5,000 d. 20,000

86. During week 5 it is found that some of the work that was reported complete in week 2was considered unacceptable. It will require $500 to fix the problem and make this workacceptable. The work is scheduled to be done in week 6. No other work is reported to becomplete during week 5. What is the EV for week 5? a. 7,000 b. 6,500 c. 9,000 d. 5,000 87. What is the cost variance for week 4? a. 0 b. -2,000 c. 2,000 d. 7,000

88. What is the schedule variance in week 2? a. 500 b. 1,000 c. -500 d. -1,000

89. What is the EAC at week 4? a. 20,000 b. 15,555 c. 25,740 d. 17,717

90. The calculation of the EAC assumes that: a. The schedule performance index will remain the same for the remaining part of theproject b. The cost performance index will remain the same for the remaining part of the project c. The BAC will be different by the end of the project d. The EAC will continuously increase for the remaining portion of the project

91. What factors need to be known in order to be able to calculate the ETC? a. Budget at completion, actual cost, and planned value b. Budget at completion, earned value, and actual cost c. Estimate at completion and planned value d. Estimate at completion and actual cost

92. A construction company is being measured by the earned value reporting method.During the project one of the tasks, installing ten elm trees, was completed. The plannedvalue for this task was $4,000, and it was completed two weeks ago. Unfortunately forthe contractor, maple trees should have been planted. The customer insists that maple trees be planted and that the elm trees be removed. As of this time the elm trees are stillin the ground, but the contractor has agreed to do the work of replacing them. Whataction should be taken on the earned value report? a. Reduce PV by $4,000 b. Reduce AV by $4,000 c. Reduce EV by $4,000 d. Make no changes since the vendor has agreed to fix the problem

93. Learning curve theory emphasize that in producing many goods: a. Cost decreases as production rates increase b. Average unit cost decreases as more units are produces c. Materials become cheaper when they are purchased in bulk d. Laborers become more productive because of technological advances

94. A project manager is considering applying learning curve theory to his project. Theproject involves designing a number of software modules that are very similar. Accordingto the cost figures that have been collected the first unit required 100 person-hours todesign and test. The second unit required 90 person-hours to design and test. Howmany person-hours will the eighth module take to design and test? a. 90 b. 100 c. 73 d. 172

95. The process required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it wasundertaken include all activities of the overall management function that determines thequality policy, objectives, and responsibilities and implements them by means such asquality planning, quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement, within thequality system. This is called: a. Quality assurance b. Quality control c. Quality planning d. Quality management

96. Decisions as to the types of projects that should be accomplished and strategic plans asto the quality of the projects that are required should be the decision of which of thefollowing? a. Project manager b. Procurement manager c. Upper management d. Stakeholders

97. According to Deming and Juran most of the quality problems that exist are due to adefect or failure in processes that are controlled by: a. The project manager b. The procurement manager c. Upper management d. Stakeholders

98. A project manager is managing a large project and must consider the application of aquality management plan. One of the critical factors in such a plan is the cost ofimplementing the plan. The project manager should: a. Invoice the client for all quality improvements b. Implement the highest quality possible regardless of cost

c. Implement quality improvements as long as the benefits outweigh the costs d. Rely on upper management to determine the quality budget

99. A project manager has discovered a problem and is trying to determine the cause. Theprocess whereby he identifies the variables that have the most influence on the projectby holding all the variables constant and changing one at a time is called: a. Product correlation b. Design of an experiment c. System integration d. Output processing

100. A control chart is being used to control a manufacturing process. As part of the control asample of five parts is taken from the manufacturing process each hour of operation.Each of the five parts is measured and the dimension is recorded on the work sheet. Thedifference between the highest and lowest measured dimension of the five parts isplotted on the control chart. This is called which of the following values? a. R b. R bar c. X d. X bar

Answers: 81. A $3122.60 82. A Is a method of including all of the cost associated with the project over its entire life 83.B 0.777 84. A 1.200

85.D 20,000 86. B 6,500 87. B -2,000 88. C -500 89. C 25,740 90. B The cost performance index will remain the same for the remaining part of the project 91. B Budget at completion, earned value, and actual cost 92. C Reduce EV by $4,000 93. B Average unit cost decreases as more units are produces 94. C 73 95. D Quality management 96. C Upper management 97. C Upper management 98. C Implement quality improvements as long as the benefits outweigh the costs 99. B Design of an experiment

100. A R 101. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs is the definition for: a. Modern quality management b. Quality assurance c. Quality d. Quality control

102. A large project is being worked on by a large company. The client is interested in knowing how the company will be able to meet the quality needs of the project. In order to satisfy this request of the client the project manager arranges a meeting between the client and the: a. General manager b. Quality control manager c. Quality assurance manager d. Chief designer

103. One of the fundamental tenets of quality management is that quality: a. Must exceed customer expectation b. Is planned in and not inspected in c. Will increase cost d. Costs must all be passed onto the customer

104. A category or rank given to products that have the same functional use but different technical characteristics is called the product’s: a. Quality

b. Functional characteristics c. Grade d. Technical characteristics

105. The quality manager of a company wishes to analyze the data that is coming to him in the form of a list of defects that have occurred in the shipping department. The report comes with defects listed chronologically as they occurred, the cost of the repair necessary to correct each defect, the person involved, and a description of the defect. The manager would like to determine which of the defects should be corrected first according to the frequency of the defect occurring. He should use which of the following quality tools? a. Cause and effect diagram b. Sampling inspection c. Pareto diagram d. Quality critical path

106. A project manager from the quality control area is trying to categorize the number of mistakes that are made in the area that paints the right front fender of the Mercedes 560 SL. She list all the possible defects on a sheet of paper and asks the inspector to make a mark each time one of the listed defects is found. This is an example of using which of the following quality tools? a. Scatter diagram b. Statistical measurements c. Check sheet d. Random sampling

107. The project management team should be aware that modern quality management complements modern project management. For example, both disciplines recognize the importance of: a. Completion in the shortest possible time frame

b. Making a maximum profit c. Having lower cost than competitor d. Customer satisfaction

108. In a manufacturing process that is being controlled by control charts there are variables occurring that will affect the process output. Variations in the process that are considered to be normal process variables are called: a. Common causes b. Uncommon causes c. Special causes d. Random causes

109. Work results, quality checklists, operational definitions, and the management plan are: a. Inputs to quality control b. Outputs from quality control c. Inputs to quality assurance d. Outputs from quality assurance

110. A control chart is being used to control a manufacturing process. As part of the control a sample of five years is taken from the manufacturing process each hour of operation. Each of the five parts is measured, and the dimension is recorded on the work sheet. The average of the five parts is plotted on the control chart. This is called which of the following values? a. X b. X bar c. Sample average d. Control average

111. A project manager for the quality department is trying to solve a problem with a machine that makes die cast aluminum parts that are used in automobiles. These parts are frequently made with defects. The project manager has decided to hold a meeting to discuss the process of making the parts. He creates a diagram that has branches that show the possible causes of the problems. Each of the branches breaks the cause down into more and more detail. This diagram is called a: a. Pareto diagram b. Fishtank diagram c. Cause and effect diagram d. Scatter diagram

112. As the manager of the production department where electrical circuits are being made you observe the inspection station where the completed printed circuit assemblies are being inspected. In this operation the inspector takes the printed circuit assembly and puts it into a fixture. The fixture is part of the testing machine that has three digital readouts. The inspector records the readings on the three digital readouts on his inspection report. This is an example of: a. Attribute inspection b. Variable inspection c. Sampling inspection d. Process control

113. One of the important advantages of using control charts in managing a production operation is that the control chart tells you when to take corrective action on the process being controlled. Another important result of using control charts is: a. The control chart identifies the special causes b. The control chart tells you when you should not take corrective action

c. The control chart shows how much the defects are costing d. The control chart shows who is responsible for the defects

114. According to the ideas behind modern quality management, quality improvements should be made: a. In large steps through detailed study of problems and then implemented as comprehensive solutions when they are funded b. In small incremental steps c. By assignment of permanent quality improvement teams d. By hiring ISO certification consultants to point out quality deficient areas

115. The Japanese developed a method of modern quality management that relies on continuing small improvements involving everyone from the top management to the lowest level worker in the organization. This is called: a. Kamban b. Kaizen c. PDCA d. Deming cycle

116. The primary benefits of meeting quality requirements are: a. Cost and delays are reduced, production improves, cost to customers goes up, and profits go up b. Cost and delays are reduced, production improves, market share increases, and profits go up c. Cost and delays are reduced, capital expenditures go down, market share increases, and profits go up d. Cost and delays are reduced, production improves, market share increases, and profits are maintained

117. When the quality management discipline is implemented, the benefits to costs ratio should at least be: a. Unable to be evaluated b. Less than one c. Of little importance d. Greater than one

118. The quality management plan provides input to __________________ and addresses quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement. a. The overall project plan b. The WBS c. The project scope d. External stakeholders

119. Project quality assurance: a. Includes policing the conformance of the project team to specs b. Provides the project team and stakeholders with standards, by which the project performance is measured c. Is a managerial process that defines the organization, design, resources, and objectives of quality management d. Provide confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality standards

120. What are the major advantages of the functional type of organization? a. Single point of contact for the customer

b. Stable organizational structure c. Project orientation d. Multifunctional teams are easy to form

Answers:

101. C Quality

102. C Quality assurance manager

103. B Is planned in and not inspected in

104. C Grade

105. C Pareto diagram

106. C Check sheet

107. D Customer satisfaction

108. A Common causes

109. A Inputs to quality control

110. B X bar

111. C Cause and effect diagram

112. B Variable inspection

113. B The control chart tells you when you should not take corrective action

114. B

In small incremental steps

115. B Kaizen

116. B Cost and delays are reduced, production improves, market share increases, and profits go up

117. D Greater than one

118. A The overall project plan

119. D Provide confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality standards

120. B Stable organizational structure

121. The project manager’s leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order: a. Disciplinary, autocratic, participative

b. Projectized, matrix, functional c. Team building, team development, responsibility assignment d. Directing, coaching, supporting, delegating

122. A company has signed a contract for new work that is different from work that it has done before. The company’s strategic plan calls for much of this kind of work in the future. It is important that it be able to bring the correct shared resources together to work on different parts of the contract. The type of organization that this suggest is a: a. Functional organization b. Contractor organization c. Matrix organization d. Pure project organization

123. The manager of a large corporation wants to sign a contract to build a nuclear power plant in Botswana several thousand miles away from the home office. The project will take several years to build and test. What type of organization will be best for managing this project? a. Functional organization b. Contractor organization c. Matrix organization d. Pure project organization

124. In matrix management organizations, if the organization maintains many of the characteristic of the functional organization and the project managers are considered more like project coordinators or expediters, it is called a: a. Strong matrix b. Project team c. Weak matrix

d. Project office

125. A project manager is selecting team members for her project team. She collects the resumes and past performance reviews for the potential team members and discusses each with their functional manager. Which of the following is not a characteristic that the project manager should use in selecting the team members? a. Previous experience b. Personal characteristics c. Personal interest d. Salary

126. A project manager is responsible for all that goes on in the project. One of the most important duties that the project manage can perform is the function of: a. Risk management b. Quality management c. Cost management d. Integration

127. The organization that is a formalized structure directed toward the support of the project community within the organization is called: a. Matrix organization b. Project office c. Project team d. Project management office

128. On a project team one of the team members has a problem collecting on a medical insurance claim. The team member comes to the project manager and explains the problem. The problem is the responsibility of the: a. Project team b. Project manager c. Executive manager d. Human resource department

129. The organization that is a formalized structure where the project teams and the project managers reside is called: a. Matrix organization b. Project office c. Project team d. Project management office

130. A conflict arises about the method to solve a difficult design problem. The project manager is seeking a method of resolving the conflict. In order to achieve the most long lasting resolution to project conflicts, which of the following approached should be used? a. Problem solving b. Compromise c. Withdrawal d. Smoothing

131. In a large organization a project expediter is being used to manage a project for an important client. The position of project expediter would be found in what kind of an organization? a. Strong matrix

b. Weak matrix c. Functional d. Projectized

132. The project manager of a project is concerned with managing cost and improving morale and is also concerned about notifying other project managers when individuals from his project team will be available to work on other projects. This is best addressed in the project’s: a. Communications plan b. Work breakdown structure c. Staffing plan d. Project schedule

133. The beginning and the end of the project is defined by: a. The project plan b. The project charter c. The team charter d. The project lifecycle

134. Herzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers. Examples of satisfiers are: a. Vacation time, assignment of a personal staff assistant b. Work satisfaction, fringe benefit c. Plush office space, performance-based salary raise d. Sense of personal achievement, work satisfaction

135. The skill of listening involves more than just hearing the sounds. One of the characteristics of a good listener is that he or she: a. Finishes the speaker’s sentences b. Take good notes c. Repeats some of the things said d. Agrees with the speaker

136. Primary outputs from team development are: a. Input to performance appraisals b. High project team morale c. Reduced project cost d. Greater customer satisfaction

137. An automotive oil change station was receiving complaints that service took too long. A coffee machine and television were installed in the waiting room and the complaints went down. This is an example of: a. Smith-Carlisle method b. Creative problem solving c. Analytical problem solving d. Decision analysis

138. A project manager is concerned about team building on her project. One of the mandatory things that she must have in order to have good team building is: a. Commitment from top level management b. Co-location of team members

c. Establishment of clear negotiated goals d. Open discussion of poor individual performance

139. The project manager of a new project wants to get things started in a positive way with the project team. The project manager wants the team members to get to know one another, to introduce the project team and the project manager to one another, to discuss the objectives and goals of the project, and to identify some of the potential problem areas. This meeting is called a: a. Project team meeting b. Project kick-off meeting c. Goal setting meeting d. Introduction meeting

140. A project manager is managing a project where there will be a number of persons working together. She wants to enhance the ability of the team to work together and perform as a team. One of the things that she can do to maximize the ability of the team to do this is: a. Cohabitation b. Co-location c. Staffing plan d. Work breakdown structure
Answers: 121. D Directing, coaching, supporting, delegating 122. C Matrix organization 123.D Pure project organization 124.C Weak matrix

125. D Salary 126. D Integration 127. B Project office 128. D Human resource department 129. D Project management office 130. A Problem solving 131. B Weak matrix 132. C Staffing plan 133. D The project lifecycle 134. D Sense of personal achievement, work satisfaction 135. C Repeats some of the things said 136. A Input to performance appraisals 137. B Creative problem solving 138. A Commitment from top level management 139. B Project kick-off meeting 140. B Co-location 141. A project manager is in need of a solution to a problem. He decides that the best thing will be to arrange a meeting to solve the problem rather than solve the problem himself or by having one of the project team members solve it individually. Generally, this will result in: a. The group taking more time than one individual

b. The solution to the problem being less accurate c. The group taking less time than one individual d. In depends on the specific problem

142. A project manager will manage a large complicated project that is located in a remote part of Africa. The project will last for five years and will have the product of producing a nuclear reactor that will generate 900 megawatts of power at start-up. The best kind of organization for managing this project is: a. Strong matrix management b. Weak matrix management c. Projectized organization d. Functional organization 143. Project human resources management is divided into which of the following? a. Organization planning, staff acquisition, and team development b. Leadership, team building, and negotiation c. Recruitment, labor relations, and personnel administration d. Team building, communication, and labor relations

144. A project manager wants to do as much as she can to help in developing her project team. A key barrier to project team development is which of the following? a. Strong matrix management structure b. Major problems that delay the project completion date or budget targets c. Team members who are accountable to both functional and project managers d. Formal training plans that cannot be implemented

145. Which of the following media can a communicator use to present information? a. Visual b. Audio and visual c. Tactile d. Visual, audio, and tactile

146. The three principal interests in maintaining good document control are: a. Timely communication, collection of performance appraisal data, and assuring proper disposal of sensitive documents b. Timely communication, maintain proper approvals, and communication cost control c. Effective communication, ability to reconstruct why decisions were made, and historical value d. Security, change management, and procedural documentation

147. A project manager wants to handle communications well in his project. In order to do this he has chosen to write a communication plan. Of the items listed below, which one is not part of the communication plan? a. Collection and filling structure b. Distribution plan c. Method for accessing information d. Project organization structure

148. Which of the following are filters that the receiver uses to filter messages? a. Language and knowledge

b. Distance c. Culture and distance d. Language, distance, culture, and knowledge

149. A project manager has many different ways of communicating. Which of the following is a good communication tools for the project manager to use? a. Sending a videotape of the project progress to the client b. Inputting a task into the project manager’s personal computer c. Writing notes on a handheld computer d. Putting the project budget into a spreadsheet 150. The use of brainstorming as a communication technique encourages which of the following? a. Team building and convergent thinking b. Divergent thinking c. Analytical results d. Use of the scientific method

151. Which of the following techniques allows for the participants to be anonymous? a. Brainstorming b. Nominal group c. Delphi technique d. Crawford slip

152. Which of the following is not a standard type of communication? a. Written b. Verbal c. Nonverbal d. Clairvoyant

153. During a project meeting a disagreement between two members of the project team began. The disagreement was over a technical detail of the project. The project manager was in attendance in the meeting. It is important that the conflicting opinion of the two team members be resolved as quickly as possible. It is even more important that the difference of opinion be resolve correctly. What should the project manager do? a. The project manager should make the decision right away to save time and not let the two disagreeing parties stay in disagreement very long b. End the meeting and give everyone a few days to cool off c. Assign someone to find out more factual information about the problem d. The project manager should suggest a compromise between the two disagreeing team members

154. In the communication model, communications between the sender and the receiver often are affected by communications barriers. These include all of the following except: a. Cultural differences b. Differences in motivation c. Educational differences d. Lack of a communications device

155. A project manager has one member of the project team working on a critical problem. The person working on the problem verbally communicates to the manager that this correction to the

problem will probably cost $1,000. Which form of communication should the project manager use to respond to the team member? a. Written b. Oral c. Form letter d. Formal 156. Who is responsible for communications for the project team? a. The human resources representative b. The representative from the management information systems department c. The project manager d. The communications department

157. Statements such as “It’s never been done before: or “It will cost a fortune” are examples of: a. Feedback b. Communication blockers c. Conflict generators d. Forcing

158. The project manager has a very complex communication to prepare for the program manager. In order to ensure that the communication will be understood as completely as possible, what method of communication should be used? a. Oral b. Written c. Nonverbal d. Oral, written, and nonverbal

159. There are many ways to organize projects. The persons involved with these projects have several titles that describe their management responsibilities. Which of the following titles describes a person who has a primary responsibility for communications? a. Project manager b. Project manager in a strong matrix environment c. Project manager in a weak matrix environment d. Project expediter

160. A project manager is responsible for performance reporting. Which of the following is not one of the tools and techniques that the project manager can use for performance reporting? a. Variance analysis b. Earned value reports c. Performance reviews d. Past project review

Answers:

141.A The group taking more time than one individual

142. C Projectized organization

143. A Organization planning, staff acquisition, and team development

144. C Team members who are accountable to both functional and project managers

145. D Visual, audio, and tactile

146. C Effective communication, ability to reconstruct why decisions were made, and historical value

147. D Project organization structure

148. D Language, distance, culture, and knowledge

149. A

Sending a videotape of the project progress to the client

150. A Team building and convergent thinking

151. C Delphi technique

152. D Clairvoyant

153. C Assign someone to find out more factual information about the problem

154. D

Lack of a communications device

155. B Oral

156. C The project manager

157. B Communication blockers

158. D Oral, written, and nonverbal

158. D Project expediter

160. D Past project review

161. A project manager discovers that there is a part of the project that contains some risk. His strategy with this risk is to subcontract the work to an outside supplier by using a firm fixed-price contract. Which of the following must the project manger do? a. The project manager should make certain that the project team does not reveal the risk to the supplier until the contract is signed b. The project manager should make every effort to make sure that the supplier is made aware of the risk after the contract is signed c. The project manager should make sure that the supplier understands the risk before the contract is signed d. The project manager should assign a member of the project team to monitor the activity of the supplier to make sure that the supplier deals with the risk properly if it occurs

162. A project manager is faced with making a decision about a risk that the team has identified. The risk involves the design of a bicycle. It has been found that the neck of the bicycle, where the

steering bearing is located and the two supporting bars of the frame come together, will corrode in a high salt environment. If this takes place the neck may fail and injure the rider. The project team decides that the design of the bicycle should be modified by using corrosion resistant materials in the design of the neck. This will eliminate the risk from consideration. This technique is called: a. Risk avoidance b. Risk acceptance c. Risk rejection d. Risk deflection

163. A problem occurs in the design of a grocery cart. In this case it is determined that the wheels will wear out much quicker in areas of heavy snow and ice because the salt will corrode the wheel bearings. Using sealed bearing wheels will significantly increase cost, and it is determined that the carts themselves will be rusty and damaged at about the same time the wheel bearings begin to fail. By injecting the wheel bearings with a high temperature grease the life of the wheel bearings is increased considerably. The project recommends using the high temperature grease. This is called: a. Risk acceptance b. Risk avoidance c. Risk mitigation d. Risk deflection

164. The contingency budget will: a. Reduce the probability of scope changes b. Reduce the probability of cost overruns c. Increase the probability of a cost overruns d. Increase the probability of scope changes

165. A risk has four possible outcomes. Given the following information, what is the expected value of this risk?

Probability Result of Risk 0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1 a. -$20,000 b. -$14,500 c. $7,000 d. -$7,000 -10,000 -7,500 -5,000 +2,500

166. The project has done its risk analysis. In the process of risk identification the project team has determined that there are risks that will probably happen that have not been identified or evaluated except by noting that other projects of this type have historically had a certain amount of risk discussed in the lessons learned of the project. This project team should set aside money to handle these risks in which financial category? a. Risk management fund b. Contingency budget c. Management reserve d. Emergency fund

167. A project manager observes that in one part of the project several activities are being completed late. All of these activities have several days of free float associated with them. These are early warnings of the risk that the project will be late in completion. They are called: a. Risk triggers b. Warning messages

c. Risk forecasts d. Schedule risks

168. The effect of risk on schedule dates for the project creates an array of dates that are possible for project completion. In a typical project the most likely date for the project will have which of the following relationships with the expected value for the project completion date? a. The most likely date will be earlier than the expected value date b. The most likely date will be later than the expected value date c. Both dates will have the same likelihood d. The most likely date and the expected value date will occur at the same time

169. A project manager is reviewing the risks of her project. One of the risks she is reviewing has an impact of $25,000 and an associated probability of 10%. The risk is associated with an activity that is the predecessor to seven other activities in the schedule. All eight activities are on the critical path. The seven other activities have a budget of $75,000. What is the expected value of this risk? a. $10,000 b. $100,000 c. $25,000 d. $2,500

170. In probability theory, what is the probability that if you roll two dice (cubes with consecutive numbers 1 to 6 on each of the six faces) you will have at least one 6? a. 1/3 b. 11/36 c. 1/36 d. 1/6

171. A project manager is looking at the risk associated with the project schedule. Realizing that if the risks occur the project will be delivered to the stakeholders late, the project manager decides to consider the risk and promise delivery later than the most likely project completion date. He then takes the time between the promise date and the most likely completion date and distributes it among the activities of the project schedule. This creates float in the schedule. This process is called: a. Schedule delay b. Critical chain scheduling c. Buffering d. Contingency scheduling

172. A project manager wants to give some guidelines to the project team as to how risk events should be described. Which of the following items would not be appropriate in describing a risk event? a. Probability that the risk will occur b. The cost of the risk should it occur c. Expected timing of the risk when it is expected to occur d. The client’s outsourcing method

173. A project manager and her project team are analyzing risk in their project. One of the things that they might do to help identify potential risks or opportunities would be to review: a. The project budget b. The goals and objectives of the project c. Lessons learned from other similar projects d. The monetary value of changes for similar projects

174. A project manager holds the first risk meeting of the project team. The client is present at the meeting. At the meeting several risks are identified and assigned to members of the project team for evaluation and quantification. The result of the meeting is: a. Expected value of the risk events b. Strategies for the risk events c. A list of potential risk events d. General statements about risk for the project

175. In the Monte Carlo technique, what is the critically index? a. The number of days the project will be late divided by the project duration b. The percent of time a given activity will be on the critical path c. The percent of time an activity will be late d. The sum of the duration of the critical path activities divided by the project expected value for duration

176. The management reserve for the project contains: a. Money to offset missing cost objectives b. Money to offset missing schedule objectives c. Money to offset missing cost or schedule objectives d. Money to handle the effects of known risks in the project

177. A project manager uses the breakeven point to justify his project. He presents this as a justification for buying a new machine. What risk does the project manager run by using this technique to justify buying a new machine for his company? a. Breakeven point will favor buying a cheap, low-quality machine b. Breakeven point will favor buying a machine that is too expensive for the work required

c. The company may not have the funds to buy the machine in spite of the justification d. The machine may not be available because the justification method takes a long time to calculate

178. Goldratt’s critical chain theory says that in order to reduce risk in schedules we should: a. Start activities in the feeder chains as early as possible b. Start activities in the feeder chains as late as possible c. Start activities in the critical chains as early as possible d. Add buffer to the critical chains

179. In managing the risk of the project schedule we are managing the risk that the project will not be delivered or completed on time. If we assume that the project’s possible completion dates are normally distributed and we promise the client the most likely of the project’s possible completion dates, what is the probability that the project will be delivered late? a. 5% b. 10% c. 50% d. 77%

180. A risk event in a project is something that can have an effect on the project: a. For the better only, a positive effect b. For the worse, a negative effect c. Both better or worse, a positive or negative effect d. Neither better nor worse, neither a positive nor a negative effect Answers:

161.C The project manager should make sure that the supplier understands the risk before the contract is signed

162. A Risk avoidance

163. C Risk mitigation

164. B Reduce the probability of cost overruns

165. D -$7,000

166. C Management reserve

167. A Risk triggers

168. A

The most likely date will be earlier than the expected value date

169. D $2,500

170. B 11/36

171. C Buffering

172. D The client’s outsourcing method

173. C Lessons learned from other similar projects

174. C A list of potential risk events

175. B The percent of time a given activity will be on the critical path

176. C Money to offset missing cost or schedule objectives

177. A Breakeven point will favor buying a cheap, low-quality machine

178. D Add buffer to the critical chains

179. C 50%

180. C Both better or worse, a positive or negative effect

181. The project team has put together a project plan for a project, and the plan has been approved by the stakeholders. The customer asks the project manager if the project can be delivered seven weeks sooner. The customer offers sufficient monetary incentive for the project manager. The project manager decides to fast track the project. This decision will: a. Increase risk b. Decrease risk c. Not affect risk d. Risk change cannot be determined

182. A project team evaluates risk in the project. As an outcome there are some positive and negative risks that are identified and evaluated. To evaluate the worst case for the project the project team should evaluate and summarize: a. All of the risks affecting the project b. Only the negative risks c. The negative risks minus the positive risks d. The positive risks minus the negative risks

183. The Project Management Institute decided to hold its annual meeting in New Orleans, Louisiana. The conference represents a substantial amount of PMI’s operating budget for the year. PMI identified a risk of hurricanes during the month of September, when the conference was to be held. PMI decided to purchase convention insurance to offset the loss of convention revenue if a hurricane caused cancellation of the conference. This is a risk management strategy called: a. Avoidance b. Deflection or transference c. Acceptance d. Mitigation

184. During the project lifecycle, in which part of the lifecycle will risk be the lowest? a. Initiation b. Planning c. Execution d. Closeout

185. The Monte Carlo technique can be used to:

a. Determine the amount of contingency budget needed for the project b. Determine the amount of the management reserve c. Determine the critically index for an activity in the schedule d. Determine the risk index for a risk in the project

186. A project manager must make a narrative description of the project. This narrative description covers the items that will be supplied under the contract with the client. It is called: a. The project plan b. The statement of work c. The exception report d. The progress report

187. A project manager discovers that there is a part of the project that contains some risk. His or her strategy with this risk is to subcontract the work to an outside supplier by using a firm fixedprice contract. Which of the following is true? a. The supplier will include an allowance for the risk in the contracted price b. The supplier will lose money on the contract c. The project manager will have to compensate the supplier if the risk occurs d. The project manager will assist the supplier with the project team if the risk occurs

188. A project manager discovers that there is a part of the project that contains some risk. His or her strategy with this risk is to subcontract the work to an outside supplier by using a firm fixedprice contract. The project manager should: a. Make certain that the project team does not reveal the risk to the supplier until the contract is signed b. Make every effort to make sure that the supplier is made aware of the risk after the contract is signed

c. Make sure that the supplier understands the risk before the contract is signed d. Assign a member of the project team to monitor the activity of the supplier to make sure that the supplier deals with the risk properly is it occurs

189. The project manager is considering contracting some of the work of the project to a service bureau. The service bureau has been used in the past by this project manager. The manager has several choices of contracts that can be used to subcontract this work. Which of the following is not a type of contract that the project manager might choose? a. Firm fixed price b. Make or buy c. Cost plus incentive fee d. Unit price

190. A project manager is employed by a construction company and is responsible for the furnishing of the completed building. One of the first things that the project manager for this project should do is to write a: a. Work breakdown structure b. Budget baseline c. Project charter d. Project plan

191. A contractor is working on a fixed price contract that calls for a single, lump sum payment upon satisfactory completion of the contract. About halfway through the contract, the contractor’s project manager informs the contract administrator that financial problems are making it difficult for the contractor to pay employees and subcontractors. The contractor asks for partial payment for work accomplished. Which of the following actions by the buyer is most likely to cause problems for the projects? a. Starting to make partial payments to the contractor

b. Making no payments to the contractor c. Paying for work accomplished to date d. Negotiating a change to the contract

192. Under a blanket order arrangement, which of the following is correct? a. The cost of carrying the inventory is borne by the buyer b. The seller delivers all of the material ordered at one time c. Payments for all of the material are made at one time d. At the end of the blanket order, prices are adjusted for the actual amount of material delivered

193. Forward buying will: a. Decrease storage cost b. Decrease capital investment c. Decrease transportation costs d. Decrease inventory

194. Which of the following would not be a part of the procurement management process? a. Purchasing b. Contract negotiations c. Inspection d. Marketing

195. The equivalent of cost-reimbursable contracts is frequently termed:

a. Back-charge contracts b. Fixed-price contracts c. Progress payment contracts d. Cost-plus contracts

196. The project team has delivered a deliverable to the customer. The deliverable contains defects that are easily correctable. There is a good relationship with the customer and the customer agrees to make the repairs and correct the defects on the item and invoice supplier for the work that was done. This is considered to be a: a. Bid cost reduction b. Payment authorization c. Back charge d. Release payment

197. A project manager decides to go out for bids on some of the project work that must be done as part of the contract to do a project for another customer. The bids are received and evaluated, and the seller with the lowest bid is selected. The cost of the contract to the project can further be reduced by what action? a. Illegal methods b. Procurement leverage c. Selecting another seller d. Contract negotiation

198. A buyer extends a formal invitation that contains a scope of work that seeks a response that will describe the methodology and results that will be provided to the buyer. This is called: a. Invitation to bid b. Request for information

c. Request for proposal d. Request for bid

199. A project manager wants to subcontract part of the project. This part of the project is quite complicated, and there are many ways that the work can be done. What method of request for seller responses should be used by the project team? a. Request for bid b. Request for quotation c. Request for proposal d. Request for information

200. The project team is considering whether to purchase a service or do it themselves. One of the items that should not be considered in their analysis is: a. The seller’s price b. The cost and availability of floor space at the team’s facility c. The seller’s technical staff d. A competitor’s method of outsourcing

Answers:
181. A Increase risk 182. B Only the negative risks 183. B Deflection 184. D Closeout

185. C Determine the critically index for an activity in the schedule 186. B The statement of work 187. A The supplier will include an allowance for the risk in the contracted price 188. C Make sure that the supplier understands the risk before the contract is signed 189. B Make or buy 190. C Project charter 191. D Negotiating a change to the contract 192. D At the end of the blanket order, prices are adjusted for the actual amount of material delivered 193. C Decrease transportation costs 194.D Marketing 195. D Cost-plus contracts 196. C Back charge 197. D Contract negotiation 198.C Request for proposal 199.C Request for proposal 200.D A competitor’s method of outsourcing

201. During testing, multiple defects were identified in a product. The project manager overseeing this product's development can best use which tool to help prioritize the problems?

A. Pareto Diagram

B. Control Chart

C. Variance Analysis

D. Order of Magnitude estimate

202. You are the manager of an aircraft design project. A significant portion of this aircraft will be designed by a subcontracting firm. How will this affect your communications management plan?

A. More formal verbal communication will be required.

B. Performance reports will be more detailed.

C. More format written communication will be required.

D. Official communication channels will significantly increase.

203. What officially creates the project?

A. The project initiating document.

B. The kickoff meeting.

C. The project charter.

D. The statement of work.

204. Refer to the table. What is the critical path?

A . Start A B C I Finish

B. Start A B H I Finish

C. Start D E H I Finish

D. Start F G I Finish

205. The Delphi technique is a way to:

A. Analyze performance.

B. Gather expert opinion.

C. Resolve conflict.

D. Estimate durations.

206. The work authorization system makes sure that

A. All the work and only the work gets performed.

B. Work gets performed in the right order and at the right time.

C. Work is done completely and correctly

D. Functional managers are allowed complete control over who is assigned and when.

207. Your team is hard at work on their assigned project tasks when one team member discovers a risk that was not identified during risk planning. What is the FIRST thing to do?

A. Halt work on the project.

B. Update the risk management plan.

C. Look for ways to mitigate the risk.

D. Assess the risk.

208. The activity duration estimates should be developed by:

A. The person or team doing the work.

B. The project manager

C. Senior management.

D. The customer.

209. The project plan should be all of the following EXCEPT:

A. A formal document

B. Distributed to stakeholders in accordance with the communications management plan

C. Approved by all project stakeholders.

D. Used to manage project execution.

210. You have been asked to take charge of project planning for a new project, but yo have very little experience in managing projects. What will be the best source of help for you?

A. Your education.

B. You on-the-job training.

C. Historical information.

D. Your functional manager.

211. The majority of the project budget is expended on"

A. Project plan development

B. Project plan execution

C. Integrated change control

D. Project communication.

212. Corrective action is:

A. Fixing past anomalies

B. Anything done to bring the project's future performance in like with the project management plan.

C. The responsibility of the change control board

D. An output of project plan execution.

213. Outputs of Direct and Manage Project Execution include:

A. Deliverables and performance reports.

B. Deliverables and corrective action.

C. Deliverables and work performance information

D. Performance reports and requested changes.

214. Your original plan was to construct a building with six stories with each story costing $150,000. This was to be completed in 4 months. However, the project has not gone as planned. 2 months into the project, earned value is $400,000. What is the budget at completion?

A. 450,000

B. 600,000

C. 800,000

D. 900,000

215. Project Integration is primarily the responsibility of"

A. The project team.

B. The project manager.

C. Senior management.

D. The project sponsor.

216. One of your team member has discovered a way to add an extra deliverable to the project that will have minimal impact on the project schedule and cost. The project cost performance idex is 1.3 and the schedule performance index is 1.5 The functionality was not included in the scope. How should you proceed?

A. Conform to the project scope and do not add the deliverable.

B. Deliver the extra work to the customer service since it will not increase their cost.

C. Reject the deliverable because you are behind schedule.

D. Ask senior management for a decision.

217. If a project manager is unsure who has the authority to approve changes in project scope, she should consult:

A. The customer.

B. The scope statement.

C. The sponsor.

D. the scope management plan.

218. An end user has just requested a minor change to the project that will not impact the project schedule. How should you, the project manager, respond?

A. Authorize the change quickly to ensure that the schedule can truly remain unaffected.

B. Deny the change to help prevent scope creep.

C. Evaluate the impact of change on the other project constraints.

D. Submit the change request to customer for approval.

219. Which of the following tools is NOT used in initiating a project?

A. Project selection methods.

B. Project management methodology

C. Expert judgement

D. Earned value analysis.

220. You overheard a causal conversation between two team members in which one confides to the other some problems he is having in completing his part of the project work. You realise that the work being discused in on the project's critical path and that the information you overheard could mean a significatint delay for the project. what should you do?

A. Let the team member know that you heard his conversation and discuss the work probelms with him immediately.

B. Begin analysing ways to compress the project scheudle in anticipation of the potential delay.

C. Ask a third team member to get involved immediately and encourage the two other team members to come to you with the delay.

D. Ask human resources for help in resolving the problem. Answers: 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. B

7. D 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. C 19. D 20. A

221. The process of Contract Administration falls under which process group

Planning Closing Monitoring and Control Executing

222. Sam Consultancy has a large internal project to be initiated. To staff this project, Sam Consultancy is working with People Consultancy to provide three resources for six months. The

resources will be part of the team managed by Sam Consultancy for six months. Which contract type should be used by Sam Consultancy?

Purchase Order Cost plus Fee Fixed cost Time and Material

223. Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a leading computer store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?

Purchase Order Cost plus Fee Fixed cost Time and Material

224. Tree Consultancy is getting 200 computers installed from a vendor. The vendor will be paid the cost involved and a 10% incentive. Which contract will be used in this case?

CPPC CPIF CPFF Fixed Cost

225. Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow vendors to get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase of Project Management is in progress.

Request Seller Process Plan Contracting Select Sellers Contract Administration

226. Process Analysis is a function of:

Performance Analysis Quality Metrics Process Improvement Plan Quality Improvement Plan

227. Root Cause Analysis relates to:

Process Analysis Quality Audits Quality Control Measurements Performance Measurements

228. Trend Analysis is often performed using:

Cause and Effect Diagram Control Charts Pareto Chart Run Chart Scatter Diagram

229. A Pareto diagram can be best described as:

Cause and Effect Diagram Scatter Chart Control Chart Histogram

230. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering drawings. The QA team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise can BEST be described as example of:

Inspection Statistical Sampling Flowcharting Control Charting

231. Reserve Analysis a technique NOT used in:

Cost Estimating Cost Budgeting Cost Control Estimating Activity Duration

232. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?

Cost Variance Management Overhead Management Contingency Reserve Schedule Variance

233. Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:

Develop Project Management Plan process Cost Estimating process Cost Budgeting process Cost Control process

234. A particular project in the domain of civil construction requires that every on-site worker be insured. Which of the following inputs BEST conveys this requirement to the Cost Estimation process so that the insurance cost is estimated and subsequently budgeted:

Enterprise Environmental Factor Organizational Process Assets Project Scope Statement Project Management Plan

235. _____________ is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget:

Activity Cost Contingency Reserve Management Contingency Reserve Management Overheads Project Management Planing

236. ___________ is not part of the Earned Value calculations.

Known Unknowns Unknown Unknowns Project Budget Amount of work completed

237. What is the BEST way to make an accurate forecasting of ETC?

Manual Forecasting of cost of remaining work. BAC – EV (BAC – EV)/CPI EAC - AC

238. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:

Project is on budget and on schedule Schedule Variance Index is 1 There is no schedule variance There is no cost variance

239. Trend Analysis is BEST described as:

Analyzing performance of similar projects over time Examining project performance over time Calculating Earned Value Calculating Cost Variance

240. Which of the following is not done as part of Performance Measurements?

Calculating Planned Value Calculating Earned Value Calculating ETC Calculating Cost Varianc6e Answers:

221. C.

222. D.

223. A.

224. A.

225. A.

226. C.

227. A.

228. D.

229. D.

230. B.

231. C

232. C

233. A

234. C

235. B

236. B

237. A

238. D

239. B

240. B

241. Jeff always delivers his projects on time and within budget. He believes that his success can be explained by the fact that he makes all of the project decisions himself and then enforces those decisions with an iron hand. His management style is best described by

A. Kurt Lewin’s Force Field theory.

B. McGregor’s Theory X.

C. Elizabeth Duffy’s Arousal Theory.

D. McGregor’s Theory Y.

242. One of the following items is not used in assessing the completion of the project scope. Which one?

A. The product requirements.

B. The project management plan.

C. The project scope statement.

D. The WBS and WBS dictionary.

243. Hard logic is also known as

A. Mandatory dependencies

B. Preferred dependencies

C. External dependencies

D. Discretionary dependencies

244. Contract negotiation is the process

A. of clarifying and developing a mutual agreement on the structure and requirements of the contract.

B. of clarifying and developing a mutual agreement on the responsibilities and authorities that will govern contract administration.

C. in which parties with different interests reach an acceptable agreement through communication and compromise.

D. bargaining with the seller concerning resources, information and activities in order to come to terms that can be incorporated into the final contract.

245. A checklist is

A. an ordered listing of quality items that must be verified before the quality control step is completed.

B. an inspection list that is used when no evidence exists that the quality level of the product being submitted is better or worse than the specified quality level.

C. a technical list of measured variables or counted data for decision making in a quality process review.

D. a structured tool used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed.

246. Developing the answers to questions such as “Who needs what information”, “What form is appropriate” and “Who is responsible for its preparation” is part of which process?

A. Communications planning

B. Information distribution

C. Project plan execution

D. Scope planning

247. Questions such as “What products are available in the marketplace” and “What is the current balance between supply and demand” are related to what input to procurement planning?

A. Availability assessment.

B. Cost/benefit analysis.

C. Market conditions.

D. Competitive fit analysis.

248. Inspections are

A. a statistical sampling and examination.

B. activities undertaken to determine whether results conform to requirements.

C. recorded data concerning the results of inspection actions.

D. performed during the manufacturing or repair cycle to help prevent defects from occurring.

249. Which process in integration management uses inputs from the largest number of of other PMBoK processes?

A. Develop Project Management Plan.

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution.

C. Monitor and Control Project Work.

D. Integrated Change Control.

250. The cost baseline is usually not changed unless

A. the basis for the original cost estimate is found to be false and the project must be re-estimated.

B. significant cost deviations have been reported and it is desired to have future cost reports be based on an “as of” date.

C. the revision is the result of an approved scope change.

D. the time baseline is also changed.

251. Qualitative numbers

A. cannot be measured numerically.

B. cannot be meaningfully added together.

C. are ones that are measured by reference to a standard that is external to the system.

D. are less reliable than quantitative numbers.

252. In estimating the total amount of material resources required for a project you must first estimate the amount of waste to be expected. You will most likely find this information in which process input?

A. Resource requirements

B. Historical information

C. Parametric modeling

D. Supporting detail

253. Which of the following statements is not true about stakeholder analysis?

A. A methodical and logical view of the stakeholder’s information needs should be made.

B. Care should be taken to include all information that may be of interest to one or more stakeholders.

C. The analysis should consider methods and technolgies suited to the project that will provide the information needed.

D. The sources needed to meet stakeholder information needs should be identified.

254. The project plan is usually developed by

A. senior management of the performing organization.

B. the customer.

C. the project manager.

D. the project management team.

255. Which of the following is not true about error in project quality management?

A. It is an unavoidable component of all project work.

B. It is more costly than the design and planning work that would be necessary to prevent it.

C. It is a source of learning rather than a basis for disciplinary warnings or actions.

D. It is a reflection of inadequate project planning.

256. Which of the following inputs to contract administration is not based on the seller’s work deliverables?

A. Reports on what work has been started, is in progress or is finished.

B. Change requests.

C. Reports on cost, schedule and technical performance.

D. Inspection reports.

257. Doing activities in parallel that would normally be done sequentially in order to achieve project objectives or to deal with resource allocation problems is called

A. Crashing

B. Accelerating

C. Fast Tracking

D. Objectives management

258. Which of the following is usually not considered a goal of portfolio management?

A. To maximize the value of the portfolio by careful examination of candidate projects and exclusion of those no meeting strategic objectives.

B. To balance the portfolio among incremental and radical investments.

C. To manage the effective and efficient use of resources.

D. To ensure that the relationship between projects in the portfolio clearly reflects strategic objectives.

259. Which of the following is not true about the relationship between the activity definition processes and the WBS?

A. These processes may identify deliverables missing from the WBS

B. These processes may identify inaccurate descriptions in the WBS

C. These processes may result in WBS changes that require additional scope definition work.

D. The WBS provides the key input to these processes but is not part of any of its outputs.

260. All of the following are true concerning the product description except

A. it is another term for the Statement of Work (SOW).

B. it describes the ultimate end product of the project.

C. it provides important information about any technical issues that are relevant to procurement planning.

D. it is usually included in the Request for Proposal (RFP). ANSWERS: 241. B, McGregor’s Theory X asserts that the average person dislikes work inherently and that effective management lies in threats, intimidation and minimal involvement of the individual in work decisions. Ward, “McGregor’s Theory X and Y” 242. A, The product requirements are the basis for assessing the completion of the PRODUCT scope. [5.0]

243. A, “Mandatory dependencies are those that are inherent in the nature of the work being done. … [They] are also sometimes referred to as hard logic.” [6.2.2.4] 244. A, “Contract negotiation clarifies the structure and requirements of the contract so that mutual agreement can be reached prior to signing the contract.” [12.4.2.1] 245. D, “A checklist is a structured tool, usually component-specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed.” [8.1.3.3] 246. A, “Communications planning involves determining the information and communication needs of the stakeholders: who needs what information, when they will need it, how it will be given to them, and by whom.” [10.1] 247. C, The procurement planning process must consider what products and services are available in the marketplace, from whom, and under what terms and conditions. [12.1.1.1] 248. B, “An inspection is the examination of a work product to determine whether it conforms to standards.” The standards are derived from the requirements as defined in the scope definition process. [8.3.2.9] 249. A, “Develop Project Management Plan” provides the integration function for all other processes in the planning group. Every planning process therefore potentially provides input to this process. [4.0] 250. C, “Budget updates are changes to an approved cost baseline. These values are generally revised only in response to approved changes in project scope.” [7.3.3.2] 251. B Qualitative numbers may also be measured numerically, so the primary distinction between qualitative and quantitative numbers is that qualitative numbers cannot be meaningfully added together. For example, if two one gallon pails of water are poured into a two gallon container, the density of water in the two gallon container remains at 1.0 252. B Parametric modeling and Supporting detail are not inputs to the cost estimating process. Resource requirements focuses on the “quantities for each element” rather than the specific question on waste percentage. [7.1.1.2] 253. B “Care should be taken to avoid wasting resources on unnecessary information or inappropriate technology.” The ’tipping’ word in this question that makes it false is “...include ALL information…” [19.1.2.1] 254. D Senior management and the customer may be involved in some aspects of project planning (notably approval) but would not develop the project plan alone. It is an invitation for disaster for the project manager to develop the project plan without input

from the team, and normally he or she would delegate significant parts of the technical planning to the team specialists. [4.3] 255. A According to the PMBOK, “The cost of preventing mistakes is always much less than the cost of correcting them…” [8.0] 256. B Change requests are an output of Contract Administration. The input is Approved Change Requests. Change requests will most often originate from the seller and only very rarely because the buyer, based on the work deliverables, wishes to make some change. [12.5.1] 257. C Fast tracking is defined as “A specific project schedule compression technique that changes network logic to overlap phases [or activities] that would normally be done in sequence.” [Glossary] 258. D There is not necessarily a relationship between projects in a portfolio. Answer D is actually one of the goals of PROGRAM management. [1.6.2] 259. D WBS updates are one of the critical outputs of the Activity Definition process. [6.1.2.1, 6.1.3.3] 260. A The product description is generally broader that a statement of work. [12.1.1.2]

PMP Questions 281 - 300
281. What does RDU stand for? A. Really Dumb User B. Ready for Download Use C. Remaining Duration unassisted D. Remaining Duration

282. Who is responsible for risk identification, risk quantification, risk response development, risk Monitor and Control? A. Project Communications Management B. Project human resource Management C. Project Procurement Management D. Project Risk Management

283. Three Point Statistical Estimating Formula Group. Expected Value =

A. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) x 6 B. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6 C. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) x Pessimistic ) divided by 6 D. (Optimistic + (4 + Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6

284. Two Point Delphi Estimate, The Best and Worst Case effort calculation: A. Calculate (Best + Worst) / 2 B. Calculate (Best +2 ) / Worst C. Calculate (2 + Worst) / Best D. none of the above

285. What does TQM stand for? A. Time Quality Managed B. Target Quality Management C. Total Quality Management D. Time Quote Management

286. Examples of Projects include: A. Implementing a new business procedure or process B. Constructing a building or facility C. Designing a new transportation vehicle D. All of the Above

287. Projects are undertaken at all levels of the organization? A. True B. False C. Both True and False D. Neither true nor false

288. 7. ________ means that every project has a definite beginning and a definite end. A. Overall B. Project Chart C. Temporary D. Duration

289. The smallest unit of time used in scheduling the project is known as: A. Calendar Unit B. Scope unit C. Time Measurement D. All of the Above

290. Who should be involved in the project planning phase? A. The Project Manager. B. The customer. C. The Sub-contractors/vendors. D. The project team members. E. All of the above.

291. The successful project managers spend most of their time: A. Planning with their personnel. B. Planning with top management. C. Talking with personnel. D. Studying project results.

292. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) contracts provide: A. A reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed upon percentage of the estimated cost as profit.

B. A reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid proportionately as the contract progresses. C. The supplier with a fixed price for a delivered performance plus a predetermined fee for superior performance. D. None of the above.

293. Project success depends on a no. of interrelated factors, including time, cost and scope control. The success of any project depends primarily on: A. Customer acceptance. B. Customer satisfaction. C. Customer compromise in defining its needs. D. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating.

294. Which of the following is the most efficient means of product quality inspection: A. Acceptance sampling. B. 100% inspection. C. Variable lot inspection. D. A and C.

295. Constructive Team Role includes : A. Investigates, clarifier and closer. B. Compromise, blocker and closer. C. Initiate, encourage and gate keeper. D. Investigates, recognize and summary.

296. Pareto Analysis, cause and effect diagrams and flow charts are used in quality. A. Control. B. Assurances. C. Planning. D. Verification.

297. In a multi-cultural environment, it is critical to establish a corporate culture that facilitates: A. Problem-solving through different approaches. B. Learning and communication. C. Partnerships, strong alliances and joint ventures. D. Negotiations.

298. A condition which will lead an organization towards conflict is: A. Conflict of interest. B. Differentiation in organization C. Resolved prior conflicts. D. Both A and B. E. All of the above.

299. The contemporary view of conflict is that: A. Conflict is bad. B. Conflict is caused by trouble makers. C. Conflict should be avoided. D. Conflict is often beneficial. E. A, B and C.

300. In general a project charter covers: A. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedule, and any imitations that top management wants to apply. B. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, detailed project schedules, estimates, and detailed procurement schedules responsibilities, a project schedule, and any limitations that top management wants to apply. C. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational apply. D. Project scope, objectives, available resources, responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedules, and any limitations that top management wants to apply.

Answers 281. D 282. D 283. B 284. A 285. C 286. D 287. A 288. C 289. A 290. E 291. C 292. A 293. B 294. A 295. C 296. A 297. B 298. D 299, D 300. D (1) A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style: 1. 2. 3. 4. Hierarchal Authoritarian Charismatic Associative

Answer:C (2) You are in charge of developing a new product for an organization. Your quality metrics are based on the 80th percentile of each of the last three products developed. This is an example of: 1. 2. 3. 4. Statistical sampling Metrics Benchmarking Operational definitions

Answer: C (3) The two closing procedures are called: 1. 2. 3. 4. Contract close out and scope verification Contract close out and Close Project Project closure and product verification Project closure and lessons learned

Answer: B (4) During the schedule development process the Project Manager may have to go through several iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. All of the following are tools and techniques that may be used during this process: 1. 2. 3. 4. Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements Resource Leveling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendars Duration compression, Resource Leveling Heuristics, PERT GERT, PERT, Leads and Lags

Answer:C (5) Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period, but seldom resolves the issue in the long term? 1. 2. 3. 4. Problem solving Withdrawal Forcing Smoothing

Answer:B (6) The receiver filters messages based on all but the following: 1. Culture 2. Semantics

3. Language 4. Distance 5. Knowledge Answer: D (7) How much time does the typical project manager spend communicating both formally and informally? 1. 2. 3. 4. 40-60% 50-70% 60-80% 75-90%

Answer: D (8) Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except: 1. 2. 3. 4. Team building Analysis of alternatives Convergent thinking Uninhibited verbalization

Answer: C (9) The critical element in a project's communication system is the: 1. 2. 3. 4. Progress report Project directive Project manager Customer

Answer: C (10) System integration consists of: 1. 2. 3. 4. Assuring that the pieces of a project come together at the right time Planning for contingencies that may occur throughout the life cycle of the project The pieces of the project function as an integration unit a and c

Answer: D (11) Performance reviews are held to: 1. Correct the project manager's mistakes.

2. Provide for answers for upper levels of management 3. To assess project status or progress 4. To apprise the project costs and cost trends of the project Answer: C (12) A complex project will fit best in what type of organization? 1. 2. 3. 4. Functional Cross-functional Matrix Balanced

Answer:C (13) Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work package at the fourth level in a WBS where the top level code is 1.0? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 1.4 1.1.1.1 1.2.3.4 a and c b and c

Answer:E (14) Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Scope Planning Initiation Scope Change Control Scope Definition Create WBS

Answer:E (15) The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. phase exit kill point stage gate a and c all of the above

Answer:E (16) Project scope is: 1. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. 2. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service. 3. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract. 4. a and b 5. all of the above Answer:A (17)The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often known collectively as: 1. 2. 3. 4. The work package codes The project identifiers The code of accounts The element accounts

Answer:C (18) The sender of a message is responsible for: 1. 2. 3. 4. Confirming the message is understood Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message Scheduling communication exchange Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner

Answer: A (19) What are the best uses of PERT: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Used in the planning phase to do " what if for the project. Assist in the controlling of changes to the project. Is used in the process of preparing a WBS for the project. To measure future consequences of activities. a and d.

Answer: E (20) Change requests can occur due to: 1. An external event such as a change in government regulation. 2. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product. 3. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.

4. a and c 5. all of the above Answer:E (21) A project plan is: 1. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control. 2. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. 3. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied. 4. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company. Answer:A (22) Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report? 1. 2. 3. 4. Gantt chart Milestone chart Fishbone diagram Network diagram

Answer:C (23) The most important criteria in selecting project selection method is: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Ease of use Cost of using it Available expertise Capability Realism

Answer:E (24) What is Team Development? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Setting up a team of people with the skills set that are required Sending you project team to a PMI seminar Motivating your project team members Enhancing the ability of stakeholders to contribute as individuals Enhancing the ability of the team to function as a team

Answer:D&E (25) 3 major processes in Project HRM:

1. 2. 3. 4.

Staff recruitment, project staff planning and team building HR planning, Acquire Project Team and Develop Project Team Rewarding, salary reviews and penalties Staff acquisition, staff training, staff deployment

Answer:B (26) A project is defined as: 1. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan. 2. An endeavor, which is planned, executed, and controlled; performed by people; and constrained by limited resources. 3. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service. 4. An objective based effort of temporary nature. Answer:C (27) General management encompasses: 1. Planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling the operations of an ongoing enterprise. 2. Business policy, financial management, business economics, contract administration, and legal services necessary for operating an enterprise. 3. Business strategy, planning and controlling, organizational behavior, procurement, and personnel administration required for managing the ongoing aspect of a business venture. 4. Organizational development, staffing, marketing and sales, procurement, and contract administration as part of an ongoing organization. Answer:A (28) Project management processes can be organized into: 1. 2. 3. 4. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and administration Designing, developing, testing, and implementing Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and implementation Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing

Answer:D (29) ___________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan. 1. 2. 3. 4. Stakeholder requirements Project performance Schedule progress Cost and schedule

Answer:B (30) A project kick off meeting is usually conducted to: 1. 2. 3. 4. Setup project team and announce the PM assignment To draft project charter Build up team spirit Define project scope and develop WBS

Answer:A (31) Which of the following is not an external-unpredictable risk? 1. 2. 3. 4. Changes in government regulations Natural hazards Unexpected environmental side effects Inflation

Answer:D (32) Maslow ranked Human needs from the highest to lowest: 1. 2. 3. 4. Self actualization; self promotion; social; security and physiological needs Self esteem; self actualization; social; security and physiological Self actualization; self esteem; social; security and physiological Self fulfillment; self esteem; social; security and physiological

Answer:C (33) Which of the following statements concerning contract type is correct? 1. 2. 3. 4. A fixed price contract contains the most risk for the buyer. Cost reimbursable contracts offer sellers the highest profit potential. Lump sum contracts offer sellers the greatest profit potential. Unit price contracts are illegal in many jurisdictions.

Answer:C (34) Herzberg identified factors, which, if present, will lead to increased motivation. A typical factor would be: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Good supervision Job security Regular promotions Good salary A dental plan

Answer:C (35) Your customer ask for a small change in the project, which was not budgeted in the project. It is a small effort as compared to the total project and you need the goodwill for a multimillion dollar on the pipeline. You will 1. 2. 3. 4. Refuse to do the work Agree to do the work at no charge Do the work and bill him later Assess the cost and schedule impact and tell them you will decide later

Answer:D (36) You are responsible for ensuring that your seller's performance meets contractual requirements. For effective contract administration, you should: 1. 2. 3. 4. Hold a bidders conference Establish the appropriate contract type Implement the contract change control system Develop a statement of work

Answer:C (37) The three major causes of change on a project are: 1. Replacement of the project manager or key project team members; changes in priorities by senior management; and contractual difficulties. 2. Changes in the relative importance of time, resources, or cost ; new knowledge about the deliverable; and technological uncertainty 3. Errors in the initial assessment of how to achieve the goal of the project; new information about the project deliverable; and a new mandate 4. Unavailability of resources promised by the functional managers; cost overruns; and changes in customer requirements Answer:C (38) The purpose of the review of deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is to: 1. Determine how many resources are required to complete the project according to the project baseline 2. Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance 3. Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables 4. Determine whether the project should continue to the next phase Answer:D

(39) Your project is in the final test stage, the user acceptance test. It meets all the product specs and is under planned costs. In term of schedule, this project is ahead. Your customer meet you and requested that he will not accept the product unless you make several changes. What you should do is: 1. Get the list of the changes and estimate all of them. If the total cost is still within the baseline, you just do it 2. Estimate the costs and send this to your customer requesting contract modification 3. Ask the customer to file a Change request 4. Sit with the customer to review the product specs and tell him/her that you have completed the project. Answer:C (40) The delphi Method is best suited for: 1. 2. 3. 4. Decision-making Cost Control Overhead rate estimating Team discussions

Answer:A (41) Which of the following methods is least likely to be used for explaining project planning guidelines to the team? 1. 2. 3. 4. Project Office Memo Project office directive Project team meeting Formal project report

Answer:D (42) Projects are initiated in response of: 1. 2. 3. 4. Stakeholder's pressure Business needs Technological obsolescence All of the above

Answer:D (43) The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the: 1. Owner

2. Sponsor 3. Customer 4. Client Answer:A (44) A document or tool which describes when and how human resources will be brought onto and taken off the project team is called a: 1. 2. 3. 4. Staffing Management Plan Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM ). Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS). Resource Assignment Chart

Answer:A (45) In which type of organization is team building likely to be most difficult? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Functional Projectized Matrix Project expediter Project coordinator

Answer:C (46) A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project scope definition is called: 1. 2. 3. 4. Scope Definition Matrix Responsibility Assignment Matrix Roles Assignment Matrix Project Scope and Roles Matrix

Answer:B (47) Which of the following are outputs from the Communications Planning process? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Project records Communications management plan Performance reports Formal acceptance b and c

Answer:B

(48) The receiver filters messages based on all but the following: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Culture Semantics Language Distance Knowledge

Answer:D (49) The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the process of: 1. 2. 3. 4. Networking Transmitting Encrypting Promoting

Answer:B (50) The three major types of communication are: 1. 2. 3. 4. Written, verbal, and non-verbal. Verbal, formal documentation, informal documentation. Verbal, written, and graphic. Verbal, written, and electronic.

(51) All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Memos Verbal circulation of a rumor Videos Body language Inputting data into a spreadsheet

Answer:E (52) Communication is the PRIME responsibility of a Project: 1. 2. 3. 4. Manager in a weak matrix Manager in a projectized environment Coordinator Expeditor

Answer:D (53) What are the four parts of the communications model?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Sending, Receiving, Decoding, and Comprehending Sender, Message, Medium, Receiver Communicator, Message, Receiver, Decoder Communicating, Transmitting, Receiving, Comprehending

Answer:B (54) In negotiating with functional department managers, project managers often find themselves using what two-party conflict management approach? 1. 2. 3. 4. Win-Lose Win-Win Lose-Lose None of the above

Answer:C (55) A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and formulates solutions as a group is called: 1. 2. 3. 4. Autocratic Consultation in a group Consensus One-to-one consultation

Answer:C (56) A type of organization in which the project manager has little formal authority and basically acts as a staff assistant to an executive who is ultimately responsible for the project is called: 1. 2. 3. 4. Functional Weak matrix Project coordinator Project expediter

Answer:D (57) Create WBS process belongs to: 1. 2. 3. 4. Initiation Process Group Planning Process Group Executing Process Group Monitoring & Controlling Process Group

Answer: B

(58) In which of the following organizations is the project manager role likely to be part-time? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Weak matrix Functional Balanced matrix a and b All of the above

Answer:C (59) Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes except: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Risk Quantification Risk Identification Risk Analysis Risk Response Development Risk Response Control

Answer:E (60) Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about contingency reserves is false? 1. A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part. 2. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns. 3. Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns. 4. Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines. Answer:C (61) Which of the following is true about pure risk? 1. The risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a contract or insurance policy. 2. Pure risks involve the chance of both a profit and a loss. 3. No opportunities are associated with pure risk, only losses. 4. a and c 5. a and b Answer:D (62) A contingency plan is: 1. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur.

2. 3. 4. 5.

A workaround A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part. a and c a and b

Answer:A (63) Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response categories? 1. 2. 3. 4. Mitigation Acceptance Avoidance Analysis

Answer:A (64) Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk? 1. 2. 3. 4. Unknown unknowns Known unknowns business risks pure risks

Answer:A (65) Which of the following is considered during the Procurement Planning Process? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Whether to procure How to procure and how much to procure What and when to procure b and c all of the above

Answer:E (66) From a buyer's standpoint, which of the following is true? 1. Procurement planning should include consideration of potential subcontracts 2. Procurement planning does not include consideration of potential subcontracts since this is the duty of the contractor. 3. Subcontractors are first considered during the Solicitation Process 4. none of the above Answer:A

(67) Which of the following is true about procurement documents? 1. Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers. 2. Invitation for Bid and Request for Proposal are two examples of procurement documents. 3. Procurement documents should be structured to facilitate accurate and complete responses from prospective sellers. 4. b and c 5. all of the above Answer:E (68) Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selection? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Weighting system Screening system Selecting system none of the above all of the above

Answer:A (69) Which of the following are examples of indirect costs? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Salaries of corporate executives Salaries of full-time project staff Overhead costs a and b a and c

Answer:E (70) Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller? 1. 2. 3. 4. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract Cost plus-incentive-fee contract Fixed-price-incentive contract Firm-fixed-price contract

Answer:D (71) In which of the following contract types is the seller's profit limited? 1. Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract 2. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract 3. Fixed-price-plus-incentive

4. b and c 5. none of the above Answer:D (72) A cost-plus-percentage-cost (CPPC. contract has an estimated cost of $120,000 with an agreed profit of 10% of the costs. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. What is the total reimbursement to the seller? 1. 2. 3. 4. $143,000 $142,000 $140,000 $132,000

Answer:A (73) A fixed-price-plus-incentive-fee (FPI. contract has a target cost of $130,000, a target profit of $15,000, a target price of $145,000, a ceiling price of $160,000, and a share ratio of 80/20. The actual cost of the project was $150,000. How much profit does the seller make? 1. 2. 3. 4. $10,000 $15,000 $0 $5,000

Answer:A (74) Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontract? 1. The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills that the contractor does not have. 2. The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work effort. 3. The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contractor. 4. all the above 5. a and c Answer:E (75) Which type of bilateral contract is used for high dollar, standard items? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Purchase order Request for proposal (RFP. Invitation for bid (IFB. Request for quotation (RFQ. all of them are appropriate

Answer:C (76) In which stage of the negotiation meeting are points of concession identified? 1. 2. 3. 4. Probing Closure Agreement Scratch bargaining

Answer:D (77) Which of the following is NOT a method of government procurement? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Assistance Sealed Bidding Competitive proposals Acquisition Small purchases No answer provided

Answer:D (78) The "rule of seven" as applied to process control charts means that : 1. 2. 3. 4. If there are seven points on one side of mean, then an assignable cause must be found. Seven consecutive points are ascending, descending, or the same. At least seven inspectors should be in place for every thousand employees. A process is not out of control even though seven measurements fall outside the lower and upper control limits.

Answer:A (79) There is project with CPI of 0.81 and TCPI=1.00001 this project is: 1. 2. 3. 4. Overbudget and cannot recover Underbudget Overbudget and early in its evolution No interference cam be made

Answer:D (80) A collection of generally sequential project phases whose name and number are determined by the control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project, is called: 1. Project life cycle 2. Product life cycle

3. Project life event 4. All of the above Answer: A (81) What does RDU stand for? 1. 2. 3. 4. Really Dumb User Ready for Download Use Remaining Duration unassisted Remaining Duration

Answer: D (82) Who is responsible for risk identification, risk quantification, risk response development, risk Monitor and Control? 1. 2. 3. 4. Project Communications Management Project human resource Management Project Procurement Management Project Risk Management

Answer: D (83) Three Point Statistical Estimating Formula Group. Expected Value = 1. 2. 3. 4. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) x 6 (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6 (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) x Pessimistic ) divided by 6 (Optimistic + (4 + Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6

Answer: B (84) Two Point Delphi Estimate, The Best and Worst Case effort calculation: 1. 2. 3. 4. Calculate (Best + Worst) / 2 Calculate (Best +2 ) / Worst Calculate (2 + Worst) / Best none of the above

Answer: A (85) What does TQM stand for? 1. Time Quality Managed 2. Target Quality Management

3. Total Quality Management 4. Time Quote Management ANSWER: C (86) Examples of Projects include: 1. 2. 3. 4. Implementing a new business procedure or process Constructing a building or facility Designing a new transportation vehicle All of the Above

ANSWER: D (87) Projects are undertaken at all levels of the organization? 1. 2. 3. 4. True False Both True and False Neither true nor false

ANSWER: A (88) 7. ________ means that every project has a definite beginning and a definite end. 1. 2. 3. 4. Overall Project Chart Temporary Duration

ANSWER: C (89) The smallest unit of time used in scheduling the project is known as: 1. 2. 3. 4. Calendar Unit Scope unit Time Measurement All of the Above

ANSWER: A (90) Who should be involved in the project planning phase? 1. The Project Manager. 2. The customer. 3. The Sub-contractors/vendors.

4. The project team members. 5. All of the above. Answer: E (91) The successful project managers spend most of their time: 1. 2. 3. 4. Planning with their personnel. Planning with top management. Talking with personnel. Studying project results.

Answer: C (92) Cost Plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) contracts provide: 1. A reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed upon percentage of the estimated cost as profit. 2. A reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid proportionately as the contract progresses. 3. The supplier with a fixed price for a delivered performance plus a predetermined fee for superior performance. 4. None of the above. Answer: A (93) Project success depends on a no. of interrelated factors, including time, cost and scope control. The success of any project depends primarily on: 1. 2. 3. 4. Customer acceptance. Customer satisfaction. Customer compromise in defining its needs. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating.

Answer: B (94) Which of the following is the most efficient means of product quality inspection: 1. 2. 3. 4. Acceptance sampling. 100% inspection. Variable lot inspection. A and C.

Answer: A (95) Constructive Team Role includes :

1. 2. 3. 4.

Investigates, clarifier and closer. Compromise, blocker and closer. Initiate, encourage and gate keeper. Investigates, recognize and summary.

Answer: C (96) Pareto Analysis, cause and effect diagrams and flow charts are used in quality. 1. 2. 3. 4. Control. Assurances. Planning. Verification.

Answer: A (97) In a multi-cultural environment, it is critical to establish a corporate culture that facilitates: 1. 2. 3. 4. Problem-solving through different approaches. Learning and communication. Partnerships, strong alliances and joint ventures. Negotiations.

Answer: B (98) A condition which will lead an organization towards conflict is: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Conflict of interest. Differentiation in organization Resolved prior conflicts. Both A and B. All of the above.

Answer: D (99) The contemporary view of conflict is that: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Conflict is bad. Conflict is caused by trouble makers. Conflict should be avoided. Conflict is often beneficial. A, B and C.

Answer: D (100) In general a project charter covers:

1. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedule, and any imitations that top management wants to apply. 2. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, detailed project schedules, estimates, and detailed procurement schedules responsibilities, a project schedule, and any limitations that top management wants to apply. 3. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational apply. 4. Project scope, objectives, available resources, responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedules, and any limitations that top management wants to apply. Answer: D (101) A project manager has increased project costs by US $75,000, but completed the project six weeks earlier than planned. What tool is best described here? 1. 2. 3. 4. Resource leveling Duration compression Crashing Fast tracking

Answer: C (102) Which of the following is most true? 1. Lag is the maximum amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the early start of its successor. 2. Lag may be determined by making a forward pass. 3. Lag is waiting time. 4. Lag is the maximum amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the project. Answer: C (103) As project manager you should dedicate a primary focus to: 1. 2. 3. 4. Managing changes immediately as they surface. Formally documenting all changes. Communicating authorized changes to senior management and key stakeholders. Preventing unnecessary changes.

Answer: D (104) The behavioral responsibilities of a project manager may also include dealing with: 1. Regulatory Personnel

2. The legal environment 3. Environmental Issues 4. All of the above Answer: D (105) The major purpose of project status reports is to: 1. 2. 3. 4. Organize and summarize the information so that all stakeholders were informed Inform upper management of the project problems Inform the client about the changes that have completed Provide information to management and client

Answer: A (106) Most project management leadership theories focus on all of the following except : 1. 2. 3. 4. Personal characteristics of the project manager Personal traits of the subordinates Behavioral styles of the project manager Usefulness of authority and power and leadership

Answer: B (107) Preliminary Cost estimates are developed during the______ phase of the project: 1. 2. 3. 4. Conceptual Planning Implementation Execution

Answer: A (108) Historical records during close-out are useful to __________ and ____________ for future projects: 1. 2. 3. 4. Predict trends, highlight problems. Analyze successes, shortfalls Analyze strengths, document results Justify results, set standards

Answer: A (109) Your client informs that his company has a problem with the current design specs of your product and how it will interface with the existing systems. If this occurs, it could be a major problem for your project. The client is coming to your office in one week to discuss the problem

and to see what your team can do to overcome this setback. All previous meetings were informal with this client, but now he wants a formal meeting. What should you do to prepare for this meeting 1. Update the schedules and assume an active role since the client has not given you the specifics of the potential problem 2. Make sure that the team has increased productivity so the client can see how efficient your team is performing 3. Assemble the team and ask them to prepare an agenda for topics to discuss 4. Make sure that each team member has his assignment in preparation for any handouts and needed plans Answer: C (110) The definitive terms of a contract are written during which of the following contract phases? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Contract phase Post award phase Award phase Pre award phase Requirement phase

Answer: C (111) A document that formally recognizes the existence of a project is a : 1. 2. 3. 4. Gantt Chart WBS Project Charter Scope statement

Answer: C (112) Some organizations are now using 6 Sigma for quality control compared to the usual: 1. 2. 3. 4. 2 sigma 3 sigma 4 sigma 5 sigma

Answer: B (113) Reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the possibility of its occurrence is: 1. Risk avoidance 2. Risk acceptance

3. Risk mitigation 4. Contingency planning Answer: A (114) In which of the following project management process groups are the most time and money typically spent? 1. 2. 3. 4. Initiating Planning Executing Controlling

Answer: C (115) ______ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so: 1. 2. 3. 4. Initiation Process Solicitation Process Scoping Process Planning process

Answer: A (116) A supplier has withdrawn from your project. A new supplier has been retained. His labor forces are due to arrive at the job site tomorrow. You should : 1. 2. 3. 4. Meet with the supplier and his forces and establish yourself as the authority in charge. Bring your team in for introductions and establish a communications exchange Bring out the communication management plan Bring out the project plan.

Answer: A (117) A new project manager is about to begin creating the project's scope of work. One stakeholder wants to add many items to the scope of work. Another stakeholder only wants to describe the functional requirements. The project is important for the project manager's company but a seller will do the work. Which of the following would you advise the project manager to do? 1. 2. 3. 4. The scope of work should be general to allow the seller to make its own decisions. The scope of work should be general to allow clarification later. The scope of work should be detailed to allow clarifications later. The scope of work should be as detailed as necessary for the type of project.

Answer: D

(118) After the kickoff meeting, two team members engage in a casual conversation about the project objectives and deliverables. It is clear they heard different messages during the meeting. One member is so adamant that the other member gives up arguing the point. After talking to the project manager, the second member confirms that the first member is mistaken. At this point, what is the BEST course of action? 1. The second team member should send the other team member an e-mail describing what he discovered. 2. At the next project meeting, the team member should ask the mistaken team member to describe his interpretation so the project manager can get everyone on the same page. 3. The project manager should send out an e-mail to the team restating the project objectives and deliverables. 4. At the next project meeting, the project manager should spend time reviewing a documented scope statement with the goal of identifying this and other false assumptions. Answer: D (119) During project execution, a project team delivers a project deliverable to the customer. However, the customer neither acknowledges the deliverable nor says if it is acceptable, although an approval is required. What is the BEST thing to do? 1. 2. 3. 4. Continue with the project Document the situation Contact management for help Call a meeting of the team

Answer: C (120) You are managing a six months project and have held bi-weekly meetings with your project sponsors. After five-and-a-half months of work, the project is on schedule and budget, but the sponsors are not satisfied with the deliverables. This situation will delay the project completion by one month. The MOST important process that could have prevented this situation is: 1. 2. 3. 4. Risk monitoring and control. Schedule control. Scope planning. Scope change control.

Answer: C (121) When you are closing out a project, what must you do? 1. 2. 3. 4. Perform project feedback on the team Obtain sign off from the customer Review project documentation for completeness Update the project plans

Answer: B (122) Financial controls that need to be considered for project plan development do not include: 1. 2. 3. 4. Time reporting Standard contract provisions Process audits Accounting codes

Answer: C (123) A project manager has been working on a project for six months with the same team yet the team still shows a lack of support for the project. The best thing for the project manager to do would be to? 1. 2. 3. 4. Re-evaluate the effectiveness of the reward system the project manager has put in place talk to each team member's boss Re-plan the project Tell the team he needs its support

Answer: A (124) A project has several teams. Team C has repeatedly missed several deadlines in the past causing Team D to have to crash the critical path several times. As the project leader for Team D, what should you do? 1. 2. 3. 4. Meet with management alone Meet with the project manager alone Meet with the project manager and management Meet with the project manager and the team C leader

Answer: D (125) The current update to the schedule performance report shows no schedule variance. Based upon the reporting, you have told the client that the project is on time. However, your team members know that a major milestone has just been missed and that the project will not meet its startup date. This is an indication of poor? 1. 2. 3. 4. Communication management planning Scope management planning Team trust Schedule planning

Answer: A

(126) A project manager is assigned a project with a team that has already been selected. The first thing the project manager should find out about the team is? 1. 2. 3. 4. What is each team member's favorite color Each team member's objectives for working on the project A list of each team member's tasks Each team member's role in the project plan

Answer: D (127) An advisor to a new project manager tells the project manager to create lessons learned at the end of a project. A lessons learned includes? 1. 2. 3. 4. Any variances and the causes of the variances Reports from the customer Reports from management A list of all the plans

Answer: A (128) A project management professional can compare earned value performance data to all of the following project management tools EXCEPT: 1. 2. 3. 4. Critical path analysis Technical performance metrics Risk mitigation plans Forecasted final costs and schedule estimates

Answer: D (129) The project is completed and the final deliverable given to the customer but the customer refuses to take any action to give final acceptance on the project. The project manager should? 1. 2. 3. 4. Repeatedly ask for final acceptance Ask the team for assistance Document the situation Do nothing because there is nothing that can be done

Answer: C (130) Your new product development project has resulted in a highly successful new product. The property, equipment, materials, and personnel of your project are now being integrated into the functional organization. Your project is being terminated by: 1. Extinction 2. Addition

3. Integration 4. Starvation Answer: C (131) The Precedence Diagramming Method : 1. has finish-to-start task relationships and provides the flexibility of lead and lag time to the activities; 2. has the activity on the node; Answer: A (132) Gantt charts are great for: 1. 2. 3. 4. Showing tasks relationships Tracking actual vs planned Good communications with customer, management and project teams b and c

Answer: D (133) Ultimate responsibility for quality management in the project rests with the? 1. 2. 3. 4. Project engineer Purchasing agent Quality manager Team members

Answer: D (134) Design of experiments? 1. 2. 3. 4. identifies which variables have the most influence on a quality outcome identifies which variables have the least influence on a quality outcome determines what a quality outcome is is a method for research and development

Answer: A (135) You are a project manager for a major information systems project. Someone from the quality department comes to see you about beginning a quality audit of your project. The team, already under pressure to complete the project as soon as possible, takes objection to the audit. You should explain to the team that the purpose of a quality audit is? 1. part of an ISO 9000 investigation

2. to check if the customer is following its quality process 3. to identify lessons learned that can improve performance on the project 4. to check the accuracy of the costs submitted by the team Answer: C (136) You manage a project whose team members have diverse skills and expertise. You want to encourage your staff to pool its knowledge on project issues to make the best decisions possible. The most appropriate management style to use is: 1. 2. 3. 4. Laissez-faire Democratic Autocratic Directive

Answer: A (137) The types of power that have substantial influence on both subordinates and upper management are: 1. 2. 3. 4. Formal & expert Reward & penalty Expert & referent Formal & referent

Answer: C (138) Your preferred resource is not available at the time needed. What is the best thing to do? 1. 2. 3. 4. Negotiate with management to get the resource Assess your alternatives Begin the task early Use reserves to increase resources assigned to those tasks.

Answer:B (139) An important piece of hardware will be late. What is the first thing to do? 1. 2. 3. 4. Discuss with team Use schedule reserves Use alternate vendor Go to customer or management

Answer: A

(140) A project has experienced significant delays due to equipment problems, staff attrition, and slow client reviews. The project is 40% complete and has used 60% of the available calendar time. What is the FIRST thing you should do? 1. 2. 3. 4. Re-baseline the schedule to reflect the new date Analyze the critical path activities for potential to fast track or crash the schedule Document the lack of progress and associated issues to management Identify tasks that have required more time than planned

Answer: D (141) A functional manager wants to make a change to the time associated with a task, but there is not enough reserve to accommodate the change. Who should authorize the change? 1. 2. 3. 4. Senior management The functional manager The project manager The team member performing the work

Answer: C (142) During the course of a project you have motivated team members, managed conflict, performed personnel administrative functions and negotiated for more resources. These are examples of: 1. 2. 3. 4. General Management Project Human Resource Management Project Execution A Projectized organization

Answer:A (143) You have been promoted to Manager, Continuous Process Improvement. Your new position: 1. 2. 3. 4. Is a project because the work will be performed by people Is not a project because Continuous Process Improvement will continue indefinitely Is a project because it is constrained by limited resources Is a project because improvements must be planned, executed, and controlled

Answer:B (144) Which of the following is not a Project Management knowledge area? 1. Project Quality Management 2. Project Procurement Management 3. Project Configuration Management

4. Project Risk Management Answer: C (145) The state of being totally answerable for the satisfactory completion of a specific assignment is called: 1. 2. 3. 4. Authority Accountability Responsibility Fiduciary

Answer:B (146) You are responsible for the communication controls for the Genesis series of satellites. Your current assignment is: 1. 2. 3. 4. Project management Functional management Facility management Program management

Answer:D (147) Work packages are used to : 1. 2. 3. 4. Represent units of work at a level where work is performed. Distinguish one package from all others assigned to a single functional group. Limit work to be performed to relatively short periods of time. All of the above.

Answer: D (148) Network planning methods(PERT/CPM/PDM): 1. 2. 3. 4. Are usually too complicated for practical use on most projects Require highly trained specialists for effective use Always require computer support to be practical Are based on flow charts and they allow observation of what happens to the project schedule when changes occur to a task's start and stop dates

Answer: D (149) Earned value can be described as: 1. The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the current date

2. The sum of the labor costs that have been incurred on the project date 3. A method of measuring project performance 4. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date Answer: C (150) A role of the change control board is to: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. issue change requests represent top management interests in initiating innovation review the impact of change requests on project costs, schedule, and specifications schedule changes into PERT networks identify new areas of project work

Answer: C (151) Quality control is: 1. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them 2. monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance 3. evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards 4. taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project customer 5. assuming the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury Answer: B (152) Cost of quality is a concept that includes: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. the cost necessary for ensuring conformance to requirements the life cycle cost of the project all research and development costs related to the project only the cost of the quality control function A and B

Answer: A (153) The pillars) of quality is (are) : 1. 2. 3. 4. Quality is free Doing it right the first time Zero defects Process improvement

5. B and C Answer: E (154) Quality assurance is: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. top management's intention regarding quality functions determining implementation of the quality policy actions to provide confidence of satisfying quality requirements responsibilities and processes which implement quality management all of the above

Answer: C (155) The zero defects concept: 1. is a performance standard for management 2. is a motivational technique that promotes "doing it right the first time" 3. is used by management to communicate to all employees that everyone should do things right the first time 4. A and C 5. B and C Answer: D (156) When appointed, a project manager has the inherent forms of legitimate power conveyed to him. The three forms of legitimate power are: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. absolute, direct, and indict direction, coordination, and liaison formal, informal, and persuasive formal, reward, and direct formal, reward, and penalty

Answer: E (157) The five types of conflict resolution are listed below and represent, in general order of importance, the methods a project manager should use to manage conflict. The one used most often by project managers to resolve conflict is: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. confrontation compromise smoothing forcing withdrawal

Answer: A (158) The process of getting a group of diverse individuals to work effectively together as a team is the definition of 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. leadership project management the project manager's responsibilities implementation team building

Answer: E (159) Which contract type should be used by the owner on a high risk project? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Cost plus percentage of cost Cost plus incentive fee Lump sum Fixed price plus incentive fee C and D

Answer: C (160) PMI suggests which of the following behaviors as part of contract negotiations? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Probing, scratching, and small bites Sniffing and smelling (olfactory) Touching and caressing (tactile) Mind-reading and extra-sensory perception None of the above

Answer: A (161) Project risk is characterized by three factors: 1. 2. 3. 4. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake Occurrence, frequency and cost

Answer: C (162) Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP: 1. Project Management Policy of Ethics 2. Project Management Professional Standards

3. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards 4. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct Answer: D (163) Which is not another term for contract? 1. 2. 3. 4. Agreement Purchase Order Proposal Memorandum of Understanding

Answer: C (164) Which of the following situations describes a violation of the PMP. Professional Code of Conduct? 1. Accepting a gift that is within the customary guidelines of the country or province you are currently working in. 2. Use of confidential information to advance your position or influence a critical decision. 3. Complying with laws and regulations of the state or province in which project management services are provided 4. Disclosing information to a customer about a situation that may have an appearance of impropriety. Answer: B (165) You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case would be: 1. 2. 3. 4. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts.

Answer: C (166) An example of a conflict of interest would be: 1. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally 2. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate 3. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company strategy

4. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team. Answer: A (167) Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while working on your project. You should: 1. 2. 3. 4. Follow instructions Inform the corporate auditors Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action Try to close down the project

Answer: C (168) Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by: 1. 2. 3. 4. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property Promote the use of ad hoc project management Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed

Answer: A (169) For a festival, you give your government client a leather brief case. You are in violation of the responsibility to: 1. 2. 3. 4. Comply with the law. Comply with regulations. Provide accurate information. Protect conflict of interest.

Answer: B (170) You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should: 1. 2. 3. 4. Do nothing; it's not your problem Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated Talk to the corporate legal department Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations

Answer: B

(171) During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should: 1. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. 2. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. 3. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status. 4. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project Answer: B (172) Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should: 1. 2. 3. 4. Determine the risks associated with the violation Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response

Answer: B (173) A response to a negative risk event is known as a: 1. 2. 3. 4. Work Item Work Package Workaround Work breakdown structure

Answer: C (174) Qualitative Risk Analysis will be performed under : 1. 2. 3. 4. Initiation Process Group Planning Process Group Executing Process Group Monitoring & Controlling Process Group

Answer: B (175) Acquire Project team process will be performed under: 1. Initiation Process Group

2. Planning Process Group 3. Executing Process Group 4. Monitoring & Controlling Process Group Answer: C (176) The terms "Facilitating Processes" and "Core Processes" are no longer used in new PMBOK. These terms have been eliminated to ensure that all project management processes in the Project Management Process Groups have the same level of importance. 1. True 2. False Answer: A (177) In a group of 4 members, 1 member has been added. How many communication channels are there now : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5 3 10 20

Answer: C (178) Which statement is correct : 1. 2. 3. 4. There are some core processes and some facilitating processes. PMI is not any more responsible form PMBOK. PMBOK will be changed every year in December. New PMBOK has 9 process groups and 42 processes.

Answer: D (179) Which of the following is not an input to Develop Project Charter: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Contract Project Statement of Work Enterprise Environmental Factors Organizational Process Assets Project Management Information System

Answer: E (180) Which of the following is a tool used to Create WBS:

1. 2. 3. 4.

Organizational Process Assets Work Breakdown Structure Templates WBS Dictionary Configuration Management System

Answer: B (181) Which of the following is not an input to Activity Definition process: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. WBS Dictionary Organizational Process Assets Project Scope Statement Work Breakdown Structure Schedule Network Templates

Answer: E (182 ) Which of the following is not an output of Activity Resource Estimating: 1. 2. 3. 4. Activity Resource Requirements Resource Breakdown Structure Requested Changes Resource Management Plan

Answer: D (183) Which of the following is a tool used in Activity Duration Estimating: 1. 2. 3. 4. Analogous Estimating Work Breakdown Structure Templates Critical Path Method Schedule Network Templates

Answer: A (184) Crashing, and Fast tracking are techniques used in the following process: 1. 2. 3. 4. Schedule Development Activity Definition Create WBS Resource Allocation

Answer: A (185) Which is not a technique used for cost estimation :

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Analogous Estimating Bottom-up Estimating Parametric Estimating Vendor Bid Analysis Resource Leveling

Answer: E (186) Which is not a tool used in Quality Planning process : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Cost-Benefit Analysis Benchmarking Design of Experiments Cost of Quality (COQ) Process Analysis

Answer: E (187) What are three tools used in Quality Control Process: 1. 2. 3. 4. Benchmarking, Cost of Quality (COQ) and Cause and Effect Diagram Cost of Quality (COQ), Cause and Effect Diagram and Control Charts Control Charts, Flowcharting and Process Analysis Pareto Chart, Control Charts and Cause and Effect Diagram

Answer: D (188) Which of the following Human Resource process generates Roles & Responsibilities : 1. 2. 3. 4. Human Resource Planning Acquire Project Team Develop Project Team Manage Project Team

Answer: A (189) Co-Location is a techniques which means: 1. Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team. 2. Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to reduce the cost of the project 3. Performing a complete project at a single location 4. Performing a project at various locations. Answer: B

(190) Manage Stakeholders is a part which of the following process group: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Human Resource Management Project Time Management Project Cost Management Project Communications Management Project Risk Management

Answer: D (191) Which is not correct about Communications Management Plan document: 1. 2. 3. 4. It contains Stakeholder communication requirements It contains Person responsible for communicating the information It contains Frequency of the communication, such as weekly It contains Methods or technologies used to convey the information, such as memoranda, email, and/or press releases 5. It contains total cost required for performing communication. Answer: E (192) Which is not a tool used for Risk Response Planning: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Risk Audits Avoidance Transfer Mitigate Exploit

Answer: A (193) Advertising is a technique used in which of the following process: 1. 2. 3. 4. Select Sellers Request Seller Responses Contract Administration Contract Closure

Answer: B (194) Which of the following definition is not correct: 1. Human Resource Planning - Identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships, as well as creating the staffing management plan. 2. Acquire Project Team - Obtaining the human resources needed to complete the project

3. Develop Project Team - Improving the competencies and interaction of team members to enhance project performance 4. Manage Project Team - Tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and coordinating changes to enhance project performance. 5. Team Building - Forming a team from scratch for a new project. Answer: E (195) Which of the following definition is not correct: 1. Contract Closure - completing and settling each contract, including the resolution of any open items, and closing each contract. 2. Plan Purchases and Acquisitions - selecting a buyer to purchase any product or service. 3. Select Sellers - reviewing offers, choosing from among potential sellers, and negotiating a written contract with a seller. 4. Request Seller Responses - obtaining information, quotations, bids, offers, or proposals, as appropriate 5. Plan Contracting - documenting products, services, and results requirements and identifying potential sellers Answer: B (196) Which of the following is not correct: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. PMO - Program Management Office RBS - Resource Breakdown Structure RAM - Resource Assignment Matrix RFP - Request for Proposal TQM - Total Quality Management

Answer: C (197) Which of the following is not correct : 1. Cost of Quality (COQ): Determining the costs incurred to ensure quality 2. Crashing: A specific type of project schedule compression technique performed by taking action to decrease the total project schedule duration. 3. Total Quality Management: A common approach to implementing a quality improvement program within an organization 4. Risk Register: The risk register details all identified risks, including description, category, cause, probability of occurring, impact(s) on objectives, proposed responses, owners, and current status. 5. Simulation: prototyping of a project to check if proposed design will work or not. Answer: E

(198) Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following? 1. 2. 3. 4. Delphi PERT CPM Monte Carlo Analysis

Answer: D (199) What is critical path? 1. The shortest path through the network, which represents the longest amount of time in which a project can be completed. 2. The path with zero float. 3. The longest path through the network, which represents the shortest amount of time in which a project can be completed. 4. The path with the most activities with the longest durations. 5. b and c Answer: C (200) In the communication process, "noise" is the word used to describe factors and forces inhibiting the exchange of information between two or more parties. Noise includes all of the following but __________ 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Culture Behavior Language Traditional way of doing things Loud talking

Answer: E