Question Bank
Content
QUESTION BANK
(SECTION-I : Coal Mining Technology, Mining Equipments, Organisational Profile of CIL, Physical & Financial Performance of CIL and Coal & Coal Products) Q1. Which of the following equipments are chain mounted? (a) Side Discharge Loader (SDL) (b) Load Haul Dump (LHD) (c) Both (d) None Q2. Which of the following is a Mass Production technology for UG? (a) SDL (b) LHD (c) PSLW (d) All Q3. Which of the following equipments can be tyre mounted? (a) Pay Loader (b) Grader (c) Dozer (d) All Q4. Which of the following company has deployed the largest size Shovel-Dumper combination (42cum + 240T) in CIL? (a) SECL (b) MCL (c) CCL (d) NCL Q5. Which OCP has deployed largest capacity shovel Dumper combination in CIL? (a) Gevra (b) Dipika (c) Jagannath (d) Piparwar Q6. What is the largest size of Rope Shovels in CIL? (a) 10cum (b) 20cum (c) 30cum (d) 42cum Q7. What is the largest size of Dumper in CIL? (a) 170T (b) 240T (c) 360T (d) 400T Q8. What is the largest size of Rope Shovel in the World? (a) 63cum (b) 50cum (c) 42cum (d) 35cum Q9. What is the boom length of the largest Dragline in the World? (a) 133 m (b) 150 m (c) 100 m (d) 50 m Q10. What is the largest size of hydraulic Shovels in CIL? (a) 18cum (b)12cum (c) 11.5cum (d) 9.5cum Q11. What is the largest capacity of hydraulic Shovels in the World? (a) +25cum (b) +30cum (c) +40cum (d) +50cum Q12. What is the largest size of Drills in CIL ? (a) 381mm (b) 311mm (c) 250mm (d) 160mm Q13. What is the largest size of Dozer in CIL? (a) 450hp (b) 770 hp (c) 850hp (d) 410hp Q14. What is the full-form of LHD? (a) Load Haul Dump (b) Load Haul Dumper (c) Low Haul Dumper (d) Low Haul Dump Q15. Which of the following is a mass production technology for U.G.? (a) Longwall (b) SDL (c) LHD (d) Bord & Pillar Q16. Which of the following is an intermittent mining technology? (a) LHD & SDL (b) Longwall (c) Bord & Pillar (d) None Q17. What is the bucket capacity of the largest size of Dragline in CIL? (a) 24cum (b) 30 cum (c) 33 cum (d) 35 cum Q18. What is the bucket capacity of the largest capacity of Dragline in the world ? (a) 100cum (b) 55cum (c) 120cum (d) 129cum Q19. Where could you find High Wall Mining in CIL? (a) WCL (b)SECL (c)MCL (d) NCL Q20. Shortwall mining is used in which company? (a) SECL (b)MCL (c) WCL (d)NCL Q21. In which OCP, In-pit crushing & conveying is used? (a) Gevra (b) Dipika (c) Piparwar (c) Jagannath Q22 What is the total number of Coal washeries in CIL ? (a) 17 (b) 16 (c) 15 (d) 14 Q23. Which Subsidiary of CIL has Surface Miners equipments? (a) MCL (b) SECL (c) NCL (d) WCL Q24. Surface Miners can be used in which face? (a) Coal (b) OB (c) Both (d) None By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
1
QUESTION BANK
Q25. SDL & LHD in UG are used for …………………. (a) Transporting (b) Loading (c) Drilling (d) Cutting Q26. Which of the following mining technology does not need blasting ? (a) Surface Miner (b) Longwall (c) Bucket wheel Excavator (BWE) (d) All Q27. Which of the following is a continuous mining method? (a) Continuous Miner (b) Surface Miner (c) Bucket Wheel Excavator (d) All of the above Q28. What is LTC Coke ? (a) Low Temperature Carbonization Coke (b) Low Thermal Coking Coke (c) Light Thermal Coking Coke (d) Low Temperature CoalIndia Coke Q29. Which of the following is a type of coking coal ? (a) Prime Coking (b) Medium Coking (c) Semi Coking (d) All of the above Q30. What are the grades of NEC Coal ? (a) A only (b) B only (c) A &B (d) C&D Q31. Which of the following industries use coke ? (a) Steel Plants (b) Cement Plants (c) Brick Kiln (d) Power Plants Q32. Which of the following can be used in any gradient in UG Coal Mining? (a) SDL (b) LHD (c) Bord & Pillar (d) Longwall Q33. Which of the following is not an UG equipment ? (a) LHD (b) SDL (c) BWE (d) PSLW Q34. Which of the following is not a Open Cast equipment ? (a) Shovel-Dumper (b) Surface Miner (c) Bucket Wheel Excavator (d) Road Header Q35. When did CIL get Maharatna status? (a) 11th April 2011 (b) 11th April 2008 (c) 11th April 2007 (d) 11th April 2010 Q36. Which is the 5th company to get Maharatna status? (a) ONGC (b) IOC (c) SAIL (d) CIL Q37. What is the total manpower of CIL as on 1st March 2011? (a) 3.84 lakh (b) 3.85 lakh (c) 3.87 lakh (d) 4.00 lakh Q38. What is the total number of mines in CIL as on 1st.April 2011? (a) 470 (b) 471 (c) 472 (d) 473 Q39. After proposed expansion, which OCP will be largest in CIL? (a) Gevra (b) Dipika (c) Piparwar (d) Jagannath Q40. Name the joint ventures established by MCL? (a) MJSJ (b) MNH (c) Both (d) None Q41. CIL has established a foreign Subsidiary (CIAL) in……………. (a) Mozambique (b) Indonesia (c) Australia (d) America Q42. What does CIAL stand for ? (a) Coal India America Ltd. (b) Coal India Africa Limited (c) Coal India Africana Limitada (d) CIL International Africa Ltd. Q43. Which of the following is a Subsidiary of CIL ? (a) CIAL (b) NEC (c) NLC (d) SCCL Q44. Which type of coal is classified mainly on the basis of calorific value? (a) Coking Coal (b) Non-Coking Coal (c) Semi Coking Coal (d) NEC Coal Q45. Primarily on what basis the Coking Coal is classified? (a) Calorific Value (b) Ash Content (c) Sulphur Content (d) Moisture Content Q46. Which is the only coalfield in India which is spread between two states as well as two companies? (a) Raniganj (b) Jharia (c) Singrauli (d) Central India Coalfields Q47. NEC coal has a distinct characteristic of …….. (a) High Sulphur (b) High Ash (c) High Volatile Matter (d) High Moisture Q48. What are the characteristic of imported coal ? (a) Low ash & moisture (b) High Sulphur (c) Both (d) None By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
2
QUESTION BANK
Q49. High Wall Mining can be classified as …………… (a) OC Mining Technology (b) UG Mining Technology (c) Hybrid Mining Technology (d) Other Mining Technology Q50. Surface Miner in CIL is used for ……….. (a) Coal (b) OB (c) Both (d) None Q51. Coal Handling Plants (CHP) are used for ? (a) Coal Transportation (b) Coal Loading (c) Coal Crushing (d) All Q52. The Largest Dragline in CIL (33cum) has been ordered by which Company? (a) NCL (b) SECL (c) MCL (d) WCL Q53. What is the ideal standard dumper for 20cum shovel? (a) 170T (b) 100T (c) 120T (d) 150T Q54. What is the total coal washing capacity of CIL as on 1st.April 2011? (a) 39.4MT (b) 20.4MT (c) 30.4MT (d) 50.4MT Q55. What is the Net Profit (PAT) of CIL during 2010-11? (a) Rs.10,867 Cr. (b) Rs.8,067 Cr. (c) Rs.9,867 Cr. (d) Rs.11,867 Cr. Q56. Under New Coal Distribution Policy (NCDP), Coal is sold by CIL through …… (a) Fuel Supply Agreement (FSA) (b) Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) (c) E-Auction (d) All of the above Q57. Which of the following equipments are used in Longwall Mining ? (a) Shearer (b) Road Header (c) Stage Loader-crusher (d) All of the above Q58. Which of the following equipments are used with Continuous Miner ? (a) Shuttle Cars (b) Twin/quad Bolter (c) Feeder Breaker (d) All of the above Q59. Which of the following equipments are used for mine development for PSLW ? (a) Continuous Miner only (b) Road Header only (c) Either (d) None Q60. What are the benefits of Longwall Mining ? (a) Higher Productivity (b) Higher Recovery of coal (c) Safety & Reliability (d) All of the above Q61. Shuttle Cars in UG is used for transportation of…………………… (a) Coal (b) Manpower (c) Machine (d) All of the above Q62. By which UG mining method, 75% coal recovery can be achieved ? (a) Bord & Pillar (b) Continuous Miner (c) Longwall (d) None of the above Q63. Which of the following is the most common cause of accidents in UG mines ? (a) Roof & side fall (b) Explosion (c) Fire (d) Water inundation Q64. What is the key driver for change in mining technology ? (a) Improving Productivity (b) Quality Improvement (c) Environmental Issues (d) All of the above Q.65 Bucket Wheel Excavators in India are used for mining of………….. (a) Coal (b) Lignite (c) Both (d) All of the above Q66. What is the share of coal in primary energy consumption of India ? (a) 52.40% (b) 62.40% (c) 72.40% (d) 82.40% Q67. What will be gap between Demand & coal Production during 2011-12 ? (a) 93.33MT (b) 75.33MT (c) 83.33MT (d) 65.33MT Q68. How many coalfields in India are not currently under production ? (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 Q69. What will be demand of coal during 2011-12 ? (a) 713.33MT (b) 680.33MT (c) 550.34MT (d) 100.34MT Q70. What is the share of UG in total coal production of CIL ? (a) 11% (b) 10% (c) 12% (d) 13% Q71. What is the share of coking coal in total coal production of CIL ? (a) 11.4% (b) 10.4% (c) 9.4% (d) 8.4% Q72. What is the coal production target of CIL for 2011-12? (a) 452MT (b) 442MT (c) 432MT (d) 462MT By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
3
QUESTION BANK
Q73. How much coal was produced by CIL in 2010-11? (a) 431.33MT (b) 441.33MT (c) 451.33MT (d) 421.33MT Q74. What is the share of power sector in total coal off-take of CIL? (a) 70% (b) 75% (c) 80% (d) 90% Q75. When was the coal prices last revised by CIL ? (a) February 2011 (b) December 2010 (c) December 2009 (d) April 2011 Q76. What is the size of Steam Coal ? (a) 0 to 50mm (b) 25 to 50mm (c) 50 to 200mm & above (d) Unscreened coal of all sizes Q77. Which state has the largest coal reserves ? (a) Orissa (b) Jharkhand (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Chhatisgarh Q78. What is the share of coal in electricity generation of India ? (a) 69.25% (b) 79.25% (c) 89.25% (d) 59.25% Q79. Coal Exploration in India is done by………….. (a) Geological Survey of India (GSI) (b) Mineral Exploration Corporation Limited (MECL) (c) Central Mine Planning & Design Institute Limited (CMPDIL) (d) All of the above Q80. Which of the following is a type of Coke ? (a) Hard Coke (b) Soft Coke (c) Both (d) None Q81. What are the uses of coke ? (a) Cooking Fuel (b) Steel making (c) Both (d) None Q82. Coke can be made from which of the following type of Coal ? (a) Prime Coking Coal (b) Medium Coking Coal (c) Semi-Coking Coal (d) All Q83. Coal India Limited produces……………….. (a) Coal (b) Coke (c) Coal & Coke (d) Coal, Coke & Coal By-Products Q84. Which of the following is true about CIL-Coke ? (a) It is LTC Coke (b) It is Solid Smokeless Fuel (c) It is environment friendly (d) All of the above Q85. Which of the following is used in making steel ? (a) Hard Coke (b) Soft Coke (c) Coking Coal (d) All of the above Q86. Which of the following is the best quality coal ? (a) Peat (b) Lignite (c) Bituminous (d) Anthracite Q87. Dankuni Coal Complex(DCC) is under the administrative control of ……………. (a) CIL (b) ECL (c) BCCL (d) SECL Q88. What is the product of Dankuni Coal Complex (DCC) (a) Coke (b) Coal Tar (c) Coal Gas (d) All of the above Q89. From which coalfield in India Prime Coking Coal is produced ? (a) Jharia (b) Raniganj (c) Rajmahal (d) All of the above Q90. In which state of India Anthracite coal is found ? (a) Jahrkhand (b) J & K (c) West Bengal (d) All of the above ……………………………………………………………………………………….…………..…………… A N S W E R 01(a), 02.(c), 03(d), 04(a), 05(a), 06(d), 07(b), 08(a), 09(a), 10(a), 11(d), 12(a), 13(c), 14(a), 15(a), 16(a), 17(b), 18(d), 19(b), 20(a), 21(c), 22(a), 23(a), 24(c), 25(b), 26(d), 27(d), 28(a), 29(d), 30(c), 31(a), 32(c), 33(c), 34(d), 35(a), 36(d), 37(a), 38(a), 39(a), 40(c), 41(a), 42(c), 43(a), 44(b), 45(b), 46(a), 47(a), 48(c), 49(d), 50(a), 51(d), 52(a), 53(a), 54(a), 55(a), 56(d), 57(d), 58(d), 59(c), 60(d), 61(a), 62(c), 63(a), 64(d), 65(b), 66(a), 67(c), 68(a), 69(a), 70(b), 71(d), 72(a), 73(a), 74(c), 75(a), 76(c), 77(b), 78(a), 79(d), 80(c), 81(c), 82(d), 83(d), 84(d), 85(a), 86(d), 87(d), 88(d), 89(a), 90(b). …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…… Page By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
4
QUESTION BANK
(SECTION-II : Common Coal Cadre, CDA Rules, Leave Rules, NCWA-VIII, HRA etc) Q1. How many days of Special Leave is permissible as per CIL leave rules ? (a) 2 months (b) 4 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 month Q2. How many days of Casual Leave can be taken at a time ? (a) 5 days (b) 7 days (c) 4 days (d) 8 days Q3. How may days of Maternity Leave is admissible to the female executives ? (a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 90 days (d) 180 days Q4. How may days of Earned Leave is encashable at the time of retirement ? (a) 240 days (b) 280 days (c) 300 days (d) None of the above Q5. Special Disability Leave is granted for following reasons. (a) Disease arising out of employment (b) General disease (c) Injury while on duty (d) a & c Q6. How may days of special casual leave is granted for attending Seminar/conference by Union representative ? (a) 5 days (b) 8 days (c) 10 days (d) None Q7. How may days of Transit Leave is granted in case of change of station from one place to another ? (a) 8 days (b) 9 days (c) 6 days (d) None Q8. Minimum year of service required for eligibility of Study Leave. (a) 10 years (b) 5 years (c) 8 years (d) 2 years Q9. Nurses are give allowances at the rate of………….. (a) Rs.400/-pm (b) Rs.200/-pm (c) Rs.300/-pm (d) Rs.500/-pm Q10. The following Discipline is a sensitive discipline as per transfer policy of CIL (a) Security (b) Sales & Marketing (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above Q11. As per transfer policy, the executive belonging to sensitive posts is to be transferred on completion of………….. (a) 2 years (b) 4 years (c) 3 years (d) 5 years Q12. The period of salary revision in case of Executives is…………. (a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 8 years (d) 4 Q13. The non-practicing allowance is given at ………….. of basic to Executives of Medical discipline. (a) 20% (b) 17.5% (c) 30% (d) 10% Q14. The anniversary date of increment in case of Executives is………….. (a) Anniversary date of last promotion (b) 1st.September st (c) 1 .April (d) 1st.July Q15. The normal period of completion of cadre in a particular grade is……… (a) 5 years (b) 3 years (c) 7 years (d) 2 years Q16. The EER of an Executive can be assessed by Reporting officer if the Executive has worked under him for…………… (a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 4 months (d) 8 months Q17. The notice period in case of resignation of an Executive is………………….. (a) 2 months (b) 1 month (c) 3 months (d) 4 months Q18. If the date of birth of an Executive is 1st.January 1952,When will he superannuate ? (a) 31st.Dec 2011 (b) 1st.Jan 2012 (c) 31st.Jan 2012 (d) 1st.Dec 2011 Q19. Which of the following clause of CDA Rule relates to outside influence? (a) Clause 5.5 (b) Clause 5.7 (c) Clause 21 (d) Clause 10 Q20. The rate of subsistence allowance payable to an Executive for first 6 months is………………. of basic. (a) 75% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 100% Q21. Which of the following is a minor penalty ? (a) Withholding Increment (b) Lowering stage of pay (c) Suspension (d) Demotion Q22. An Executive can file Appeal before the Appellate Authority within …………of receipt of order of penalty. (a) 30 days (b) 15 days (c) 45 days (d) 7 days By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
5
QUESTION BANK
Q23. In case of Non-executive the total leave encashable at the time of retirement is……………. (a) 100 days (b) 120 days (c) 150 days (d) 140 days Q24. Under the Life Cover Scheme, what amount is paid to the dependent of the deceased ? (a) Rs.30,000/(b) Rs.50,000/(c) Rs.60,000/(d) Rs.40,000/Q25. What is the eligibility criteria for payment of gratuity ? (a) 5 years (b) 15 years (c) 10 years (d) 20 years Q26. For how many workers canteen is to maintained under the Mines Act ? (a) 500 (b) 300 (c) 250 (d) 350 Q27. What is the maximum limit of EL that can be encashed by an Executive in a calendar year ? (a) 30 days (b) 90 days (c) 60 days (d) 45 days Q28. What was the minimum wage per day of Daily Rated Employee under NCWA-VIII ? (a) Rs.359.46 (b) Rs.369.47 (c) Rs.345.34 (d) 379.46 Q29. The Management Trainees are entitled for which of the following leaves ? (a) EL, HPL & CL (b) CL & Sick Leave (c) EL & CL (d) CL Q30. How much HRA is given to a Non-Executive under NCWA-VIII ? (a) Rs.75/-pm (b) Rs.90/-pm (c) Rs.100/-pm (d) Rs.150/-pm Q31. What is the rate of Transport Subsidy ? (a) Rs.8.50/day (b) Rs.7.50/day (c) Rs.9.50/day (d) Rs.10.50/day Q32. Under Reservation Policy, what is the reservation for OBC ? (a) 27% (b) 22.50% (c) 15% (d) 7.50% Q33. How many days of quarantine leave is granted? (a) 28days (b) 20days (c) 14days (d) 7days Q34. How many days of special leave can be granted to an Executive in his entire service period ? (a) 2months (b) 4months (c) 6months (d) 8months Q35. As per the Gratuity Act, the declaration of nominee is given in…………..form ? (a) Form K (b) Form I (c) Form F (d) Form D Q36. Fallback Wages are applicable to…………………… (a) Daily Rated (b) Monthly Rated (c) Piece Rated (d) Contractual Workers Q37. Under which circumstances, Ex-gratia is given ? (a) Death due to illness (b) Accidental Death on Duty (c) Normal death (d) All of the above Q38. What is the maximum ceiling for payment of Gratuity ? (a) Rs.10 lakh (b) Rs.5 lakh (c) Rs.3.5 lakh (d) Rs.7.5 lakh Q39. What is PRP ? (a) Performance Related Pay (b) Profit Related Perks (c) Productivity Related Pay (d) Performance Related Payment Q40. Which of the following are placed in E-1 Grade ? (a) Management Trainees (b) Subordinate Engineers (c) Officers (d) All Q41. From which date gratuity has been revised to Rs.10 lakhs ? (a) 1st Jan.2007 (b) 1st July’ 2007 (c) 1st Jan.2009 (d) 1st July ‘2006 Q42. Recruitment in CIL is done by which of the following methods ? (a) Campus selection (b) All India Written Test (c) Departmental Selection (d) All Q43. What is EER ? (a) Executive Evaluation Report (b) Executive Enquiry Report (c) Enquiry Evaluation Report (d) Executive Establishment Report Q44. Merit-cum-Seniority is a criteria used for……………… in CIL (a) Pay Fixation (b) Transfer (c) Promotion (d) All of the above Q45. In case of death, the family of deceased Executive can retain company’s quarter for…………. (a) 3 months (b) 4 months (c) 6 months (d) 12 months Q46. An Executive working in Ranch (“Y” class City) will get HRA at the rate of……… of basic ? (a) 10% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 20% By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
6
QUESTION BANK
Q47. What does PBT stand for ? (a) Production By Tax (b) Production Before Tax (c) Profit Before Tax (d) Profit By Tax Q48. In Mining discipline, how much appointment is done through direct recruitment from outside ? (a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 40% (d) 25% Q49. What is the rate of payment of monetary compensation in case of Executives ? (a) Rs.4,500/-pm (b) Rs.6,000/-pm (c) Rs.9,000/-pm (d) Rs.12,000/-pm nd Q50. If the date of birth of an Executive is 2 .August 1952, when will he superannuate ? (a) 31st.August 2012 (b) 2nd.August 2012 st (c) 1 .August 2012 (d) 31st.July 2012 Q51. Which of the following is considered for calculation of Gratuity ? (a) Basic, DA, CFA (b) Basic, DA, NPA (c) Basic, DA (d) Basic Q52. Which of the following is a Major Penalty ? (a) Demotion (b) Suspension (c) Removal (d) All of the above Q53. Who will be chargesheet issuing authority for General Manager(Excavation) for minor penalty? (a) Chairman(CIL) (b) CMD (c) CVO (d) GM(P/EE) Q54. The period for revision of pay for Executives is………………… (a) 5 yrs. (b) 10 yrs. (c) 6 yrs. (d) 4 yrs. Q55.In case the delay in completing enquiry is due to the Executive concerned, his subsistence allowance will be……………… of basic? (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100% Q56. If an Executive avails CL, then his total absence from HQ should not exceed……… (a) 8 days (b) 6 days (c) 10 days (d) 12 days Q57. An Executive can apply for VRS if he has completed……… of service ? (a) 10 years (b) 20 years (c) 15 years (d) 25 years Q58. What is a PPO ? (a) Pension Payment Order (b) Performance Pay Order (c) Perks Pay Order (d) Production Purchase Order Q59. Under CMPS 1998, Disablement Pension is payable at the rate of…… of last 10 months average emoluments. (a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 75% Q60. The corpus of CMPS 1998 is……………. (a) 2% of notional basic & DA (b) one additional increment (c) 1.16% of CMPF & Govt. share (d) All Q61. Name the statutory form for keeping details of employees under the Mines Act (a) Form D (b) Form A (c) Form B (d) Form C Q62.SLW is a term related to………………….. (a) Grant of promotion (b) Grant of one increment before retirement (c) Transfer Grant of Employee (d) Grant of Stagnation Increment Q63.What is the maximum number of HPL that can be encashed at the time of retirement? (a) 180 days (b) 240 days (c) 300 days (d) 360 days Q64. Which of the following is the beginning of Disciplinary Proceedings ? (a) Receipt of Complaint (b) Start of Investigation (c) Suspension (d) Contemplation of disciplinary action Q65. An Executive can be dismissed from service by……………. (a) CMD (b) Director(Personnel)/CIL (c) Chairman/CIL (d) CGM(Personnel)/CIL Q66. What was the minimum guaranteed benefits under NCWA-VIII ? (a) 24% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 35% Q67. Which NCWA Agreement was of 4yrs & 6 months duration ? (a) NCWA-VI (b) NCWA-I (c) NCWA-IV (d) NCWA-V Q68. Which of the following Designation come under E-7 grade ? (a) Dy.GM (b) Chief Manager (c) Chief Medical Officer (d) All of the above By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
7
QUESTION BANK
Q69. Executive Director (Medical) comes under which grade ? (a) E-9 (b) E-8 (c) E-10 (d) E-7 Q70. Which is the highest grade in pay scales of Executives ? (a) E-9 (b) E-8 (c) E-10 (d) E-7 ……………………………………………………………………………………….…………..…………… A N S W E R 01(c), 02.(d), 03(d), 04(c), 05(d), 06(c), 07(c), 08(b), 09(b), 10(d), 11(c), 12(b), 13(b), 14(c), 15(b), 16(c), 17(c), 18(a), 19(c), 20(c), 21(a), 22(c), 23(d), 24(c), 25(a), 26(c), 27(c), 28(a), 29(b), 30(d), 31(b), 32(a), 33(b), 34(c), 35(c), 36(c), 37(b), 38(a), 39(a), 40(d), 41(a), 42d), 43(a), 44(c), 45(c), 46(d), 47(c), 48(a), 49(c), 50(a), 51(b), 52(d), 53(b), 54(b), 55(a), 56(c), 57(b), 58(a), 59(b), 60(d), 61(c), 62(b), 63(c), 64(d), 65(c), 66(a), 67(c), 68(d), 69(b), 70(a) ……………………………………………………………………………………..……………………..…… (SECTION-III : Coal Industry in India – A retrospect, Nationalisation of Coal Mines) Q1.Who initiated first commercial coal mining in India ? Ans.Warren Hastings at Raniganj (W.B.) in 1774. Q2.Who opened first Coal Mines in India and when ? Ans.Jhan Summer and Hitler of East India at Raniganj Coalfields on 11/08/1774. Q3.When was first underground Coal Mining started in India ? Ans.1815 Q4.Who was the first Indian entrepreneur in Coal Mining in India? Ans.Prince Dwarkanath Tagore, a relative of Rabindranath Tagore, CARR, Tagore & Co. in 1835 Q5.Which period was the first boom year of Indian Coal Industry & Why ? Ans 1907 & 1908 due to growth of JCF (Jharia Coalfields & completion of Grand Chord Line of East India Railway). Q6.When was first underground Coal Mining started in India ? Ans.1815 Q7.What was coal Production of India in 1942 & 1946? Ans.29 MT and 30 MT respectively. Q8. Write about NATIONALISATION OF INDIAN COAL MINES : Non Coking Coal Mines were nationalized in 31st Jan.1973 (effective from 01.05.1973) except captive mines of TISCO & IISCO. Accordingly, Coal Mines Authority Limited was established with HQr. at Kolkata. NCDC Mines also came in the ambit of CMAL. This was done by virtue of Coal Mines (taking over of Management ) Act, 1973 and Coal Mines Nationalization Act, 1973. This Act gives eligibility of Coal Mining in India. Nationalisation was done to meet the growing energy demand of the company, to conserve coal and to promote safety and welfare of the employees. Q9.When was Coal India Limited Formed ? Ans. In 1975 CIL was formed as holding company with 5 subsidiaries (BCCL, CCL, WCL, ECL & CMPDIL. Q10.When was SECL and NCL formed ? Ans .In 1985 NCL and SECLwere carved out of CCL & WCL respectively. Q11.When was MCL formed? Ans..In 1992, MCL was carved out of SECL to manage Talcher & IB Valley coalfields. Q-12. After the formation of CMAL, NCDC Mines were kept under which zone of CMAL? Ans. Central Zone Q13.What is NCDC? When was it setup and why ? Ans.National Coal Development Corporation Ltd.(NCDC) was the first Govt. of India Undertaking Coal Company. It was set up in 1956 with 11 Railway owned coal mines for planned development of Coal Industry. Q14.What was coal production at the beginning of Ist 5 Year Plan (1951-56) ? Ans. 33 Mt. Q15.What was coal production at the end of 2nd. 5 year Plan (1956-61) & 3rd. 5 year Plan (1961-66) ? By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
8
QUESTION BANK
Ans.Total : 55.6 MT, NCDC 8.05 MT (1956-56) and Total : 67.72 MT, NCDC : 9.6 MT (1961-66). Q16.What role did NCDC play in Indian Coal Industry ? Ans.NCDC Played pioneering role in Indian Coal Industry by way of introduction of a.Large Scale Mechanisation b. Use of Modern Scientific Technique. c. Conservation of Coal d. Foreign Collaboration with Poland & USSR. e. Opening new Mines in MP, Orissan & Maharasthra Q17.When was Coal Industry nationalised and why ? Ans During IVth 5 Yr. Plan (1969-74) Coal Industry was nationalised in 2 phases :a.) Management of Coking Coal Mines was taken over by Govt. of India on 17th Oct. 1971 &nationalisation was effective from 5th January, 1972. Bharat Coking Coal Limited was formed by virtue of Coking Coal Mines (Emergency provisions at 1971 and Coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act 1972. This Act gives eligibility of Coal Mining in India. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. (SECTION-IV : Categorisation of Coal, UHV, GCV,Grades of Coal etc.) Q1.Which Nomenclature is used for grading of non-coking coal ? (a) Alphabetical (b) Numerical (c) Apha-Numeric (d) Roman Q2.What is the basis for grading of Non-coking coal ? (a) Ash (b) Moisture (c) Calorific Value (d) All of the above Q3.Which is the methodology for gradation of Non-coking coal ? (a) UHV (b) GCV (c) Both (d) None Q4.Calorific value of coal means ? (a) Burning power of coal (b) Heating power of coal (b) Heat evolved by burning 1Kg coal (d) None of the above. Q5.UHV stands for ………… (a) Ultimate Heat Value (b) Useful Heat Value (c) Uniform Heat Value (d) Unilateral Heat Value Q6.The Empirical formula to derive UHV is ? (a) 8,900-138x(A+M) (b) 9,200-138x(M+A) (c) 8,900-140(A+M) (d) 7,70,-139(A+M) Q7.What is the disadvantage of UHV based coal gradation ? (a) Very easy to derive (b) It is not correct (c) It is formula based & not give correct value (d) All of the above Q8. Which of the following is the descending order of gradation of Non-coking coal ? (a) A,B,C,D,E (b) C,D,E,B,A (c) E,D,C,B,A (d) E,D,C,B,A Q9.GCV stands for ………… (a) Gross Calorific Value (b) Grim Calorific Value (c) Graceful Calorific Value (d) Great Calorific Value. Q10.What is the advantage of GCV based coal gradation ?. (a) It is very cumbersome (b) It is very simple (c) It does not require a lab (d) It is more correct Q11.What does long flame coal indicate ? (a) It has long flame on burning (b) It has bright flame on burning (c) It gives more heat (b) (d) It has more volatile matter By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
9
QUESTION BANK
Q12.The permissible limit of ash in washed coal as per MoEF guidelines is………… (a) Less than or equal to 34% (b) Less than 38% (c) Less than 40% (d) Less than 45% Q13.The ash content(%age) is ….................... in higher quality coal. (a) more (b) less (c) constant (d) variable Q14.What is the unit in which heat value of coal is expressed ? (a) K,Cal/Kg (b) Cal/Kg (c) Kcal/te (d) Cal/te Q15.What is a Bomb Calorimeter? (a) An instrument to detect a bomb (b) An instrument to measure heat value (c) A musical instrument (d) A gas instrument ……………………………………………………………………………………….…………..…………… A N S W E R 01(a), 02.(c), 03(c), 04(b), 05(b), 06(a), 07(c), 08(a), 09(a), 10(c), 11(d), 12(a), 13(b), 14(a), 15(b). ……………………………………………………………………………………..………………………… (SECTION-V : Mining Technology – OC & UG, Mining Methods, Mining Machinery-OC & UG) Q1. What should be the number of Workmen’s Inspector in a large UG mine? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Q2. Longwall mining method is best suitable for .. ? (a) Flat & moderately flat seam (b) Steeply inclined mine (c) Fractured & geologically disturbed seam (d) Seam with high capability index Q.3 Power pack is provided at Longwall face to give pressure to ….. (a) Powered support (b) Armored flexible conveyor (c) Double ended ranging drum sheave (d) Stage loader Q4. Over 90% of UG coal production in India comes from …. (a) Longwall method (b) Hydraulic Mining Method (c) Bord & Pillar Method (d) Blasting Gallery Method Q5. A road in a proper coal seam is called ? (a) Traveling road (b) Gallery (c) Drift (d) Haulage road Q6. The process that sends sand water mixture in UG coal depillaring district is called (a) Jigging operation (b) Granting separation operation (c) Stowing Method (d) Coal drawing operation Q7. Side discharge Loader (SDL) is a …… (a) Crawler mounted m/c (b) Tyre mounted m/c (c) Rail mounted m/c (d) Track mounted m/c Q8. Thick, regular & flat seam is extremely essential for … (a) Hydraulic Mining (b) Longwall Mining (c) Blasting Gallery (d) Bord & Pillar Q9. Which of the following equipment is very common for open casting/side casting? (a) Shovel (b) Dozer (c) Dragline (d) Payloader Q10. Name the machine which eliminates drilling, blasting in Open cast and has scope for selective mine ? (a) Dozer (b) Shovel (c) Dragline (d) Surface Continuous Miner Q11. Which of the following Excavator is suitable for 20-30 metres bench height in soft rock formation? (a) Dragline (b) Shovel (c) Payloader (d) Bucket Wheel Excavator Q12. Filling up of the void in OC mines is known as … (a) OB Removal (b) Trenching (c) Reclamation (d) Salvaging Q13. Flame Safety Lamp is used for testing …………. (a) CO (b) CO2 (c) CH4 (d) H2S By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
10
QUESTION BANK
Q14. In which state small deposits of Anthracite coal is found? (a) J&K (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Assam (d) Gujarat Q15. Which of the indigenous firm manufacture SDL & LHD in India? (a) Joy Mining Machinery Co (b) Atlas Copeo (c) Eimco Elecon (d) Tractors India Ltd Q16. Road Header is used to drive ……………….. (a) Single heading (b) Double heading (c) Triple heading (d) Multiple heading Q17. A building where explosives & detonators are stored is called (a) Sheller (b) Magazine (c) Store (d) House Q18. Which is best quality coking coal ? (a) Steel grade –I (b) Steel grade –II (c) Washery grade –I (d) Washery grade –IV Q19. Which is the best quality Non-cocking coal ? (a) G (b) D (c) C (d) A Q.20 What is true about Universal Drilling Machine (UDM) ? (a) It is crawler mounted (b) It can drill in any direction (c) It can drill blast holes (d) All of the above Q21. UDM can drill in which of the following direction? (a) Horizontal (b) Vertical (c) Inclined (d) All directions Q22. Which is a mine transport system (a) Rope Haulage (b) Locomotive Haulage (c) Shuttle Car (d) All of above Q23. What is EMP ? (a) Environment Management Plan (b) Environment Management Project (c) Environment Management Programme (d) Environment Mine Plan Q24. Coke can not be made from …………………..…. (a) Lignite (b) Anthracite Coal (c) Sub-bituminous Coal (d) All Q25. What are the products of a coal washing ? (a) Washed Coal (b) Middling (c) Rejects (d) All Q26. Which of the following is not correct for Anthracite coal? (a) Small deposits in India is found in J&K (b) It is best quality coal (c) Best coke can be made from this coal (d) All of the above Q27. What is correct about Bituminous coal? (a) Coke can be made from this coal (b) It can be used as domestic fuel (c) It can be used in thermal power plant (d) All of the above Q28. Ultimate Analysis of coal gives percentage of…………………… present in coal. (a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen (c) Sulphur (d) All of the above Q29. Proximate Analysis of coal gives percentage (by weight of) ………… present in coal. (a) Ash (b) Volatile Matter (c) Fixed Carbon (d) All of the above Q30. Name the type of coke manufactured by heating coking coal at 650 degree Celsius temperature in absence of oxygen ? (a) Soft Coke (b) LTC Coke/CIL Coke (c) Both (d) Hard Coke Q31. Which of the following gases are common in Under Ground Mines ? (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Carbon Dioxide (d) All of the above Q32. What is the common name for Methane in Under Ground Coal Mines ? (a) Firedamp (b) Stinkdamp (c) Blackdamp (d) Whitedamp Q33.In which mine was fully mechanized Longwall Face with Powered Support was first introduced in India ? (a) Moonidih (BCCL) (b) Dhemo Main Colliery (ECL) (c) Pathakhera No.2 (WCL) (d) Ramagundam GDK (SCCL) Q34. Hard Coke is made by heating coking coal at …………….. Celsius temperature in absence of oxygen ? (a) 500 degree C (b) 100 degree C (c) 650 degree C (d) 1,000 – 1,100 degreeC By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
11
QUESTION BANK
Q35. Shortwall Mining is a variant of……………… (a) Bord & Pillar (b) Longwall (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ANSWER 1(c), 2(a), 3(a), 4(c), 5(b), 6(c), 7(a), 8(c), 9(c), 10(d), 11(d), 12(c), 13(c), 14(a), 15(c), 16(a), 17(b), 18(a), 19(d), 20(d), 21(d), 22(d), 23(a), 24(d), 25(d), 26(c), 27(d), 28(d), 29(d), 30(c), 31(d), 32(a), 33(a), 34(d), 35(c). ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. (SECTION-VI : Basic Computer Skills, MS Office, Uses of Internet, E-Mail, Fax etc.) Q1. The First Generation computers were built using……………………… (a) Integrated Circuits (b) Vacuum Tubes (c) Transistors (d) Vacuum Tubes & Transistors Q2. Present day computers are built using……………………. (a) Integrated Circuits (b) Vacuum Tubes (c) Transistors (d) Transistors & Integrated Circuits Q3. Which one of the following computers is classified under portable Computer ? (a) Mini computer (b) Mainframe computer (c) Super computer (d) Laptop computer Q4. The Personal Computer is classified as……………. (a) Mini-Computer (b) Mainframe Computer (c) Super Computer (d) Micro-Computer Q5. Which of the following computers is compact in size & light weight ? (a) Mini computer (b) Mainframe computer (c) Laptop Computer (d) Personal computer Q6. What is CPU ? (a) Central Power Unit (b) Central Printing Unit (c) Central Processing Unit (d) Computer Power Unit Q7. The physical electronic parts of a Computer system is called………….. (a) Hardware (b) Software (c) Firmware (d) System Software Q8. Which of the following input device is used for most of the computer games & for some business works? (a) Light Pen (b) Mouse (c) Joystick (d) Keyboard Q9. DOS stands for ……………… (a) Direct Operating System (b) Double Operating System (c) Disk Operating System (d) Desk Operating System Q10. Which of the following computers has high processing speed ? (a) Mainframe Computer (b) Super Computer (c) Mini Computer (d) Micro Computer Q11. The brain of computer is a small chip called …………….. (a) RAM chip (b) ROM chip (c) Microprocessor Chip (d) Integrated circuit chip Q12. What is RAM ? (a) Random Access Memory (b) Random Action Memory (c) Read Act Memory (d) Read Access Memory Q13. Which of the following is an utility software ? (a) MS Excel (b) MS Word (c) MS Window95 (d) Antivirus Q14. Computer server is used for …….. (a) Data & source sharing (b) Only data sharing (c) Only source sharing (d) None Q15. What command is used in DOS to show date ? (a) Run date (b) Show date (c) Date (d) View date Q16. Modern monitors are ………………… (a) SGA Monitor (b) VGA Monitor (c) SVGA Monitors (d) IGA Monitors Q17. The number of bits per second a modem can send or receive data is……………. (a) Transmission rate (b) Modem speed (c) Data Speed (d) Data rate Q18. While working in windows, the back side screen is called ……………. (a) Desktop (b) Front screen (c) Desk screen (d) Screen view By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
12
QUESTION BANK
Q19. Which of the following is a high speed non-impact printer ? (a) Inkjet Printer (b) Dot Matrix Printer (c) Laser Printer (d) Line Printer Q20. Which of the following is not an Input device ? (a) VDU (Monitor) (b) Keyboard (c) Mouse (d) Joystick Q21. The process of saving all settings & file in windows 97/98 before closing the computer is……… (a) Close down (b) Shut down (c) Turn down (d) Switch off Q22. A multimedia computer needs………….. (a) Personal computer (b) CD ROM drive (c) Sound card & speaker (d) All Q23. LAN stands for …………………… (a) Local Area Network (b) Land Area Network (c) Low Area Network (d) None Q24. The information stored in a disk is kept in …………… (a) Files (b) Directory (c) Sub-directory (d) None of the above Q25. What is PBXs ? (a) Private Branch Exchanges (b) Public Branch Exchanges (c) Personal Branch Exchanges (d) Private Band Exchanges Q26. Super computers are designed to process……….... (a) Accounting applications (b) Accounting and spread sheet applications. (c) Complex scientific applications (d) Design applications Q27. Computer system that is characterized by its very large size & very high processing speeds is called ………………….… (a) Mainframe computer (b) Super computer (c) Mini computer (d) Micro-computer Q28. A single user-oriented and general purpose micro computer is called……… (a) Computer (b) Personal computer (c) Personnel computer (d) General purpose computer Q29. The present day computers are… (a) First generation computers (b) Second generation computers (c) Third generation computers (d) Fourth generation computers Q30. Touch pad which is mostly used in Laptop Computer is an (a) Output device (b) Input device (c) Output & input device (d) Mouse pad Q31. SVGA stands for ……………….. (a) Super Video General Array (b) Super Very High Graphics Array (c) Super Video Good Array (d) Super Video Graphics Array Q32. An input device used extensively in may computer games as well as in certain professional applications is .. (a) Light Pen (b) Mouse (c) Joystick (d) Keyboard Q33. RAM is a ……………… (a) Volatile Memory (b) Non Volatile Memory (c) Secondary Memory (d) Permanent Memory Q34. Which one of the following is not a secondary memory? (a) RAM (b) HDD (c) CD ROM (d) FDD Q35. FDD stands for (a) Flexible Disk Drive (b) Format Disk Drive (c) Feed Disk Drive (d) Floppy Disk Drive Q36. A terminal built exactly like another terminal is called as (a) Dumb Terminal (b) Intelligent Terminal (c) Stand alone System (d) Remote computer Q37. A combination of keyboard and screen that has no local computing power, and used to input information to a mini computer or mainframe computer is called…… (a) Dumb Terminal (b) Intelligent Terminal (c) Stand along system (d) Remote Computer Q38. The capacity of 3-1/2” FDD is………………….. (a) 720 KB (b) 1.2 MB (c) 1.0 MB (d) 1.44 MB Q39. Which one of the following is an output device? (a) CPU (b) Mouse (c) Inkjet printer (d) Light Pen Q40. 1 MB is equal to………….... (a) 1,024 Bytes x 1,024 Bytes (b) 1,000 Bytes x 1,000 Bytes (c) 1 MB X 1 KB (d) None By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
13
QUESTION BANK
Q41. 64 KB is equal to.. (a) 64 times 1,000 (b) 64 times 1,024 (c) 64 times 1 KB (d) 64 times 100 Q42. ROM stands for………... (a) Random Order Memory (b) Read Only Memory (c) Random Only Memory (d) Read Out Memory Q43. The operating System which can perform multitasking, supports plug and play and allows long file name is…………………….. (a) Windows 3.1 (b) Windows 95/98 (c) DOS (d) PC DOS Q44. DOS is a software required for … (a)Interaction with the computer by the user and access peripheral devices. (b)To carry out diagnosis of computer system (c)To switch on the computer (d) To shut down the computer Q45.An Operating System that supports more than one simultaneous user is…………… (a) Windows (b) UNIX (c) DOS (d) PC DOS Q46. The command to clear the screen in DOS is ……………..…. (a) Erase (b) Clear (c) Cls (d) Rub Q47. The command to delete a file in DOS is . . .. (a) Del (b) Delete `(c) Cut (d) Rub Q48. The command to make directory in DOS is ……….…. (a) Create (b) Mkdir (c) Make (d) Create Directory Q49. The Disk Operating system is used for …. (a) File Management (b) Arithmetic Calculations (c) Creating Drawings (d) Creating Graphs Q50. A batch file located in the root directory of start up disk which runs automatically every time the computer is started is called…………. (a) Cofig.sys (b) Autoexec.bat (c) Auto.exec (d) Dos.exe Q51. Any software stored in a form of read only memory is called………….. (a) Hardware (b) Software (c) Firmware (d) System Software Q52. A magnetic device which reads data sequentially is … (a) Magnetic tape (b) Hard disk (c) Floppy disk (d) CD ROM Q53. DEL *.PRG command in DOS deletes…………… (a) All the files (b) All files starting with PRG (c) All the files with extension PRG (d) All files with extension PRG in all directories Q54. Which one of the following is a correct file name in DOS? (a) I-ventory (b) I_vent (c) I ventory (d) I n v e n t o r y Q55. Windows Operating System controls … (a) All parts of the computer (b) Hard disk & keyboard only (c) Hard disk, keyboard & monitor only (d) Mouse & monitor only Q56. A write protected disk allows to……….. … (a) Copy a file (b) Delete all the files (c) To read a file without modification (d) To read & overwrite a file Q57. The best surface to roll the mouse is… (a) Table top (b) Mouse pad (c) Desk top (b) Book top Q58. A program intended to damage the computer system without user knowledge or permission is called………… (a) Virus (b) O/S Software (c) Application software (d) Utility Software Q59. A software that removes and destroys computer virus is called … (a) Driver software (b) application software (c) O/S software (d) Anti virus software Q60. The most effective way to protect computer from virus infections is………….. (a) Shut off the computer (b) Remove floppy disk drive (c) Run Anti-virus program periodically (d) Disconnect the computer from Network Q61. Unauthorised access to the computer can be prevented by introducing………… (a) Password (b) Virus software (c) Anti virus software (d) User software By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
14
QUESTION BANK
Q62. The replacement for MS DOS from Microsoft Corporation is…. …. (a) XENIX OS (b) LINUX (c) UNIX OS (d) MS WINDOWS Q63. System commands are commands by which…….. (a)Computers communicate (b)Programmers communicate with OS of the computer (c)The Operators enter date (d)Programmers create alternative solutions. Q64. A language used directly by the computer is………….... (a) English language (b) High level language (c) Machine language (d) Low level language Q65. A 8 bit unit is called a (a) Data set (b) Byte (c) KB (d) MB Q66. A Memory chip that is programmed at the time of its manufacture is known as… (a) RAM Chip (b) Microprocessor chip (c) Dynamic RAM chip (d) ROM Chip Q67. Which one of the following is an Optical Storage disk ? (a) Floppy disk (b) Hard disk (c) CD-ROM (d) None of the above Q68. The cheapest & fastest mode of sending written communication to any part of the world is……………………… (a) Telex (b) E-mail (c) Fax (d) None of the above Q69. WWW stands for ………………… (a) World Wild Web (b) World Write Web (c) Word Wide Web (d) World Wide Web Q70. E-mail stands for (a) Economic Mail (b) Electronic Mail (c) Electrical Mail (d) None Q71. The device which allows a computer to transmit and receive information over the telephone line is ……….…. (a) Modem (b) Trans-receiver (c) Transmitter (d) Wireless Q72. The Internet connection can be established with ………... (a)Computer system only (b)Computer system + Modem (c)Computer System + Modem + Telephone line (d)Computer System + Modem+Telephone line + Software for Internet access Q73. Which one of the following is correct E-mail address? (a) [email protected] (b)@abc,ntw.org. (c) ntw.org.abc (d)abc.ntw.org@ Q74. A system that lets computers all over the world talk to each other is called……… (a) Internet (b) LAN (c) TAN (d) WAN Q75. Modem stands for ………….. (a) Modulation device (b) Moderator device (c) Modulation-Demodulation device (d) Demodulation device Q76. Local Area Networks are communication systems that are used to link ………… (a) terminals, computes & other devices located within a compact area (b) terminals, computers and other devices located across many cities (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above Q77. A interconnection of computer systems and/or peripheral devices at dispersed locations that exchange data is called…………..… (a) Data communication (b) Data storing (c) Telephone exchange (d) Network Q78. A general term to describe the transmission of messages by the use of computer system & telecommunications facilities is known as……………… (a) Mail transfer (b) Electronic Mail Transfer (c) Message Transmission (d) Message Delivery Q79. A device responsible for allowing a communication between a group of Personal Computers to each other is called…………… (a) USB Device (b) Data Card (c) Network Interface Card (d) Device Card Q80. A modem card that plugs into a slot inside the computer is called……….. (a) Internal modem (b) External modem (c) USB Modem (d) None of the above By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
15
QUESTION BANK
Q81. Multimedia is ………….… (a) An integration of voice & text (b) An integration of voice, text and graphics (c)An integration of voice, text, graphics & animation (d) an integration of graphics and text Q82. DTP stands for ………..…. (a) Disk Top Publishing (b) Desk Top Printing (c) Desk Top Publisher (d) Desk Top Printer Q.83. Advice used to produce humanly readable computer output is called as … (a) Hard Disk (b) Printer (c) Floppy Disk (d) computer paper Q84. A scanner is………………….… (a) An optical device (b) An optical device which works like a photocopier (c) An optical device used for cutting & pasting images (d) An optical device used to digitize images and store it on a disk Q85. A device which provides a good surge suppresser and adds features such as battery backup and power conditioning is called……….. (a) SMPS (b) Inverter (c) Rectifier (d) UPS Q86. The facts and figures that are currently being used for decision making is called (a) Data (b) Information (c) MIS (d) Figures Q87. PPM stands for …. (a) Page Policy Matter (b) Page per Minute (c) Page Paper Minute (d) None Q88. A file with extension .doc represents a ………..… (a) Spreadsheet file (b) Graphic file (c) Document file (d) Power Point file Q89. All executable files in DOS should have……… as file extension. (a) .bat (b) .exe (c) .com (d) .sys Q90. What does “http” written with website address stand for ? (a) hyper text transfer protocol (b) high text transmission protocol (c) hyper text transfer pact (d) high text transmission programme ………………………………………………………………….…………………………..…………… A N S W E R 01(b), 02(a), 03(d), 04(d), 05(c), 06(c), 07(a), 08(c), 09(c), 10(b), 11(c), 12(a), 13(d), 14(a), 15(c), 16(c), 17(b), 18(a), 19(c), 20(a), 21(b), 22(d), 23(a), 24(a), 25(a), 26(c), 27(b), 28(b), 29(d), 30(b), 31(d), 32(c), 33(a), 34(a), 35(d), 36(b), 37(a), 38(d), 39(c), 40(a), 41(b), 42(b), 43(b), 44(a), 45(b), 46(b), 47(a), 48(b), 49(a), 50(b), 51(d), 52(a), 53(c), 54(b), 55(a), 56(c), 57(b), 58(a), 59(d), 60(c), 61(a), 62(d), 63(b), 64(c), 65(b), 66(d), 67(c), 68(b), 69(d), 70(b), 71(a), 72(d), 73(a), 74(a), 75(c), 76(a), 77(d), 78(b), 79(c), 80(a), 81(c), 82(c), 83(b), 84(d), 85(d), 86(a), 87(b), 88(c), 89(b), 90(a). ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… (SECTION-VII : PERSONNEL/HR : Working Conditions, Human Relations & Trade Unions) Q1. According to the revised and amended Indian Factories Act, the hours of work including overtime shall not exceed more than ………….. hours per week (a) 48 (b) 56 (c) 60 (d) 72 Q2. The Indian Factories Act prescribes that a woman worker can work in a factory between………. (a) 6 A.M. and 6 P.M. (b) 7 A.M. and 6 P.M. (c) 6 A.M. and 7 P.M. (d) 7 A.M. and 7P.M. Q3. The Indian Factories Act prohibits a child worker to work for more than ……… hours per day (a) 6 (b) 6 ½ (c) 5 ½ (d) 4 ½ Q4. The Factories Act is normally applicable to any establishment wherein ……….. or more workers are employed and wherein a manufacturing process is carried on with the aid of power. (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25 Q5. According to the Factories Act, factories employing ………… or more workers have to appoint Labour Welfare Officers. (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 700 By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
16 2
QUESTION BANK
Q6. According to Factories Act, factories employing over ………… women workers have to provide crèches. (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40 Q7. Chapter IV of Factories Act deals with……………….: (a) Safety (b) Health (c) Welfare (d) Annual leave with wages Q8. According to the Factories Act, a worker who has worked for at least ……… days during a calendar year is entitled to leave with wages in the subsequent year (a) 200 (b) 240 (c) 280 (d) 300 Q9. As per the Factories Act, the period of work of an adult worker in a factory shall be so arranged that inclusive of his intervals for rest, they shall not spread for more than ……… hours in a day (a) 9 ½ (b) 10 (c) 10 ½ (d) 11 Q10. The Factories Act was amended in 1987 and chapter IV-A relating to ………… was added (a) Working hours of adults (b) Employment of young persons (c) Special provisions (d) Hazardous processes Q11. The Workmen’s Compensation Act came in force on (a) July 1, 1923 (b) December 1, 1923 (c) July 1, 1924 (d) December 1, 1924 Q12. The Workmen’s Compensation Act is not applicable to……………………. (a) persons whose employment is of casual nature (b) persons serving in armed forces (c) workers covered by Employees’ State Insurance Act (d) all of the above Q13. The Workmen’s Compensation Act provides compensation in case of…………………… (a) Disablement (b) Funeral expenses (c) Maternity expenses (d) Sickness Q14. According to the Workmen’s Compensation Act as amended in 1995, the maximum amount of compensation for death may go upto…………………………. (a) Rs. 2.28 lakhs (b) Rs. 2.74 lakhs (c) Rs. 3.28 lakhs (d) Rs. 3.74 lakhs Q15. The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 applies to all non -seasonal factories using power and employing ………… or more persons (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25 Q16. Under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, the maximum duration of the sickness benefit is …………… days in two consecutive benefit periods. (a) 60 (b) 61 (c) 90 (d) 91 Q17. Under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, the insured person is paid ……… during the maternity benefit period. (a) half the wages (b) three-fourth wages (c) full wages (d) 25 % more than the full wages Q18. According to the ESI Act, the period of maternity benefit payable is for…………….. (a) 36 weeks (b) 12 weeks `(c) 18 weeks (d) 24 weeks Q19. The Industrial Employment [Standing Orders] Act is applicable to industrial establishments where in ………… or more workers are employed. (a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 150 Q20. Ordinarily, the limit prescribed for deduction from wages of a person under the Payment of Wages Act, in a wage period is ………. Percent of wages. (a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 60 Q21. Which one of the following is not among the main provisions of the Payment of Wages Act ? (a) Fixation of wage periods (b) Deductions which can be made from wages (c) Dependent’s benefits (d) Time of payment of wages Q22. According to the Payment of Wages Act, a discharged worker must be paid before the expiry of the ……………… day from the day on which his employment is terminated. (a) first (b) second (c) third (d) fourth By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
17
QUESTION BANK
Q23. An adolescent is a person who has completed……of age. (a) 14th.but not 18th. Year (b) 15th.but not 18th. Year (c16th.but not 18th. Year (d) 17th.but not 18th. year Q24. A child means a person who has completed……….. years of age. (a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 12 Q25. The Minimum Wages Act provides for review and revision of minimum wages after suitable intervals not exceeding…………………………….: (a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years Q26. Under the Minimum Wages Act, a normal working day means…………………. (a) 8 hrs. in case of an adult & 4 ½ hrs. in case of a child (b) 9 hrs. in case of an adult & 5 hrs. in case of a child (c) 9 hrs. in case of an adult & 4 ½ hrsd. in case of a child (d) 8 ½ hrs. in case of an adult & 4 ½ hrs. in case of a child Q27. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, Works Committees have to be constituted in undertakings employing ……………….. or more workers. (a) 100 (b) 75 (c) 50 (d) 20 Q28. Which of the following is not a provision under the Industrial Disputes Act ? (a) Strikes and lock-outs (b) Lay-off and retrenchment (c) Annual leave with wages (d) Works committees Q29. Whish of the following is not a part of the adjudication machinery under the Industrial Disputes Act ? (a) National Tribunals (b) Industrial Tribunals (c) Labour courts (d) High courts Q30. What is the length of the qualifying service in case of a worker working undergtound so as to be entitled for lay-off compensation ? (a) 120 days (b) 180 days (c) 190 days (d) 240 days Q31. What is the length of the qualifying service in case of a worker working other than below ground so as to be entitled for lay-off compensation ? (a) 120 days (b) 180 days (c) 190 days (d) 240 days Q32. The retrenched worker has to be paid compensation at the rate of ……………… days average pay for every completed year of service. (a) 7 days (b) 15 days (c) 21 days (d) 30 days Q33. In which case workers are not entitled for lay-off compensation? (a) Workers working in factory where the work is of intermittent character. (b) Workers working in factory where the work is of seasonal character. (c) Badli workers (d) All of the above Q34. Which one of the following is not among the main provisions of the Contract Labour [Regulation and Abolition] Act, 1970 ? (a) Setting up of advisory boards (b) Registration of establishments (c) Welfare & health of contract labour (d) Levy of fines Q35. The object of the Contract Labour [Regulation and Abolition] Act, 1970 is : (a) Regulate employment of contract labour (b) abolition of contract labour in certain circumstances (c) both of the above (d) none of the above Q36. Under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, the employer has to make contribution ………… employee’s contribution. (a) 1/2 that of (b) ¾ that of (c) equal to that of (d) 1 – ½ that of Q37. The Fund for the Employees’ Family Pension Scheme is constituted by transfer of a portion of employees’ share of provident fund representing ………. Percent of his pay…………… (a) 1 (b) 1 – 1/6 (c) 1 -1/3 (d) 1 – ½ Q38. Which one of the following statements relating to the Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme is wrong ? By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
18
QUESTION BANK
(a) The employee has to make a contribution to this scheme. (b) The scheme is applicable in the event of death of the employee (c) The scheme came into force on 1st August 1976 (d) The scheme provides for payment of an additional amount. Q39. What is the minimum number of members required to form a trade union ? (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 11 Q40. The Trade Union Act 1926 requires that at least ……………… of the total number of office bearers of a Registered Trade Union must be persons actually engaged in the Industry to which the union belongs. (a) one third (b) one fourth (c) half (d) full ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… AN S W E R 01(c), 02(c), 03(d), 04(a), 05(b), 06(c), 07(a), 08(b), 09(c), 10(d), 11(c), 12(d), 13(a), 14(a), 15(a), 16(d), 17(c), 18(d), 19(c), 20(c), 21(c), 22(b), 23(a), 24(b), 25(c), 26(c), 27(a), 28(c), 29(d), 30(c), 31(d), 32(b), 33(b), 34(d), 35(c), 36(c), 37(b), 38(a), 39(c), 40(c). ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… (SECTION-VIII : Right to Information Act 2005) Q1. Under RTI, information who be can sought from…………………. (a) Private authority (b) Public authority (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above Q2. Under RTI, who can get information? (a) Indian citizens (b) Foreigners (c) Both (a) and(b) (d) none of the above Q3. Information includes ……… (a) records, documents, menus (b) e-mails, logbooks (c) samples, models (d) all of the above Q4. Right to Information includes …….. (a) documents, records etc. (b) inspection of work (c) taking samples of materials (d) all of the above Q5. Information can be sought in which of the following form? (a) print outs/photo copies (b) diskettes and floppies (c) video cassettes (d) all the above Q6. RTI Act gives right to information to ………… (a) corporations (b) associations (c) companies (d) individuals Q7. Which section of RTI deals with exemption from disclosure of information? (a) Section 8(1) (b) Section 10(1) (c) Section 11(1) (d) Section 12(1) Q8. Information exempted from disclosure ceases to be exempted after lapse of ………years. (a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) 25 years Q9. For seeking information under RTI, a fee of Rs. ………….. is required to be deposited. (a) Rs. 15 (b) Rs. 10 (c) Rs. 5 (d) Rs. 20 Q10. RTI fee can be deposited in the form of …….. (a) Cash (b) Postal Order (c) Demand Draft (d) All of the above Q11. How much charge is applicable for getting print out/photocopy of documents (A-4 size) ? (a) Rs.1/- per page (b) Rs.1.50/- per page (c) Rs.2.0/- per page (d) Rs.2.50/ per page Q12. Which of the following statement about RTI is incorrect? (a) No reason is required for getting information. (b) No prescribed format for getting information. (c) No justification is required. (d) None of the above. Q13. RTI fee of Rs. 10 is exempted for……………………… (a) SC/ST (b) BPL (c) Poor (d) All of the above Q14. Under RTI CPIO has to provide information within …………. days of receipt of application. (a) 10 days (b) 20 days (c) 30 days (d) 25 days Q15. In case of life or liberty of a person, information shall be provided within ………….. of the receipt of request. (a) 24 hours (b) 48 hours (c) 36 hours (d) 72 hours Q16. If a person is not satisfied with the order of Appellate authority, he can seek second appeal with………… By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
19
QUESTION BANK
(a) CPIO (b) Appellate authority (c) CIC (d) none of the above Q17. How much penalty can be imposed on CPIO by CIC for delay in supply of information? (a)Rs.100/- per day (b) Rs.200/- per day (c) Rs.250/- per day (d) Rs.300/- per day Q18. What is the maximum amount of penalty that can be imposed on CPI0? (a)Rs.20,000 (b) Rs.25,000 (c) Rs.30,000 (d) Rs.50,000 Q19. A person not satisfied with CIC order can appeal in ………… (a)Supreme Court (b) High Court (c) Lower Court (d) None of the above Q20. Office of Central Vigilance Commission is located at ……….. (a)Kolkata (b) New Delhi (c) Chennai (d) Mumbai Q21. When was the RTI Act enacted? (a) June 2005 (b) June 2004 (c) June 2006 (d) June 2003 Q22. The RTI Act is applicable to whole of India except the state of ………………………… (a) Sikkim (b) Jammu & Kashmir (c) Goa (d) Andaman & Nicobar islands Q23. What is CPIO? (a) Central Public Indian Officer (b) Central Private Indian Officer (c) Central Public Information Officer (d) Central Public India Office Q24. Who appoints Chief Information Commissioner? (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Supreme Court (d) Parliament 25. What does CIC mean? (a) Central Information Commission (b) Chief Information Commissioner (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Q26. Appeal to Appellate Authority can be made within ………… days from the date of receipt of reply from CPIO? (a) 15 days (b) 20 days (c) 45 days (d) 30 days Q27. A second appeal can be made within …………. days of receipt of order from Appellate Authority? (a) 90 days (b) 45 days (c) 30 days (d) 60 days Q28. The decision of CIC can be challenged in ……. (a) Supreme Court (b) High Court (c) International Court of Justice (d) None of the above Q29. On which organizations RTI Act is not applicable? (a) Intelligence (b) Security (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Q30. The list of Intelligence and Security organization exempted from RTI Act 2005 is given in …………… schedule of the Act. (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… ANSWER 01(b), 02(a), 03(d), 04(d), 05(d), 06(d), 07(a), 08(c), 09(b), 10(d), 11(c), 12(d), 13(b), 14(c), 15(b), 16(c), 17(c), 18(b), 19(d), 20(b), 21(a), 22(b), 23(c), 24(a), 25(c), 26(d), 27(a), 28(d), 29(c), 30(b). ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… (SEXCTION-IX : Revision Questions) Q1. What is the basic objective of RTI Act? (a) To empower citizens (b) To promote transparency & accountability (c) To contain corruption (d) All of the above Q2. Which of the following is not a information under RTI Act? (a)e-mails (b) press releases (c) log books (d) none of the above Q3. The coal mines of NEC are spread over the state of …… (a) Assam (b) Meghalaya (c) Assam & Meghalaya (d) none of the above Q4. CIL produces ……….. (a)Raw & washed coal (b) soft & hard coke (c) coal gas (d) all of the above Q5. Director ( Technical ) of CIL controls …………… (a)Coal videsh (b) New initiative (c) NEC (d) All of the above By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
20
QUESTION BANK
Q6. CIL is a ……………. Company (a)Schedule A (b) Schedule B (c) Schedule C (d) Schedule D Q7. What is the share of wages in cost in cost of production of CIL? (a)30% (b) 40% (c) 35% (d) 50% Q8. Pension under CMPS 1998 includes ………………… (a)Superannuation pension (b) Disablement pension (c) Widower pension (d) All of the above Q9. What is the rate of annual increment under NCWA VIII? (a)2% (b) 3% (c) 4% (d) 5% Q10. What is the Ex-gratia in case of death/permanent disablement w.e.f 1.1.2009? (a)Rs.30,000 (b) Rs.35,000 (c) Rs.45,000 (d) Rs.40,000 Q11. When was shares of CIL listed in major stock exchanges in India? (a)4th Nov 2010 (b) 4th Oct 2010 (c) 4th Dec 2010 (d) 4th Jan 2010 Q12. Which subsidiary of CIL had largest closing stock of raw coal as on 31.03.2011? (a)CCL (b) MCL (c) SECL (d) ECL Q13. Which state has reserves of prime coking coal in India? (a)Jharkhand (b) West Bengal (c) Maharashtra (d) All of the above Q14. Which coalfield has reserves of prime coking coal? (a)Raniganj (b) Rajmahal (c) Jharia (d) All of the above Q15. Which subsidiary produces prime coking coal? (a)ECL (b) BCCL (c) WCL (d) All of the above Q16. Which state has reserves of Anthracite coal? (a)Jammu & Kashmir (b) Jharkhand (c) Assam (d) All of the above Q17. What is the range of percentage of marks for excellent rating in EER ? (a)85% - 100% (b) 80% - 100% (c) 75% - 100% (d) 90% - 100% Q18. Third level review of EER is done in case of …………. (a)Excellent grading (b) Inadequate grading st nd (c) Difference in opinion between 1 & 2 level review (d) All of the above Q19. Who is the final reviewing authority for EER and E-4 & E-5 officer? (a)Director (b) CMD (c) Chairman CIL (d) CGM/GM Q20. The rate of PRP for E-1 to E-3 executives is …………… (a)50 % of basic (b) 40% of basic (c) 30% of basic (d) 60% of basic Q21. What is the rate of Coalfield Allowance (CFA)? (a)4% (b) 3% (c) 6% (d) 10% Q22. In which Underground mine of SECL, shortwall mining is done? (a)Balrampur (b) New Kumda (c) Rajendra (d) Kumda Q23. Which was the 8th. paid holiday to be introduced from NCWA- III? (a)Miners day (b) Republic day (c) Independence day (d) Gandhi jayanti Q24. In case of non-executives, how many days of EL & SL can be accumulated? (a)120 & 100 days (b) 80 & 70 days (c) 140 &110 days (d) 150 &120 days Q25. Representatives from which of the following companies are included in NCWA VIII? (a)SCCL (b) TISCO (c) ICML (d) All of the above Q26. How much rebate is admissible under section 80 C? (a)Rs. 1,00,000 (b) Rs. 1,20,000 (c) Rs. 90,000 (d) Rs. 1,50,000 Q27. How much tax liability will be there if net taxable income is Rs. 1,60,000? (a)0% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 30% Q28. Tax rate for income exceeding over Rs. 8 lakh is …………… (a)10% (b) 30% (c) 20% (d) 40% Q29. What is TDS? (a)Total Deduction from Salary (b) Tax Deduction at Source (c) Tax Deduction from Salary (d) Total Deduction at Source Q30. What is the income slab for 20% tax rate? (a)5 to 8 lakhs (b) 1.6/1.9 to 5 lakhs (c) more than 8 lakhs (d) 2 to 5 lakhs By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
21
QUESTION BANK
Q31. Which of the following are included under the section 80 C? (a)LIC premium (b) Child education (c) PPF (d) All of the above Q32. Section 80 CCC deals with ……………… (a)Pension fund (b) Infrastructure sector (c) Disablement (d) None of the above Q33. How much rebate amount is admissible for investment in infrastructure sector? (a)Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 30,000 (c) Rs. 20,000 (d) Rs. 40,000 Q34. Which subsidiary of CIL had made highest Profit Before Tax (PBT) during 2010-11? (a)NCL (b) SECL (c) MCL (d) CCL Q35. In addition to rebate of Rs.1 lakh under Section 80C, Rs.20,000 extra rebate under Infrastructure Sector has been introduced under which section of Income Tax ? (a) Section 80CCC (b) Section 80CCF (c) Section 80CCD (d) Section 80DD Q36. What is JBCCI? (a) Joint Bipartite Committee for Coal Industry (b) Joint Bipartite Coal Committee of India (c) Joint Biparty Coal Consultant of India (d) Joint Bipartite Coordination Committee of India Q37. What is the full form of NCWA ? (a) National CoalIndia Wage Agreement (b) National Coal Wage Agreement (c) National Coal Workers Association (d) National Coal Wage Association Q38. What are CDA Rules? (a) Career Development & Association Rules (b) Conduct, Discipline & Apprisal Rules (c) Conduct, Development & Appeal Rules (d) Conduct, Discipline & Appeal Rules Q39. What is CSR? (a) Company Social Responsibility (b) Coal Social Responsibility (c) Corporate Social Responsibility (d) Company Safety Responsibility Q40. The eligibility for D Type quarter for Executives is……………grade (a) E-3 (b) E-5 (c) E-6 (d) E-7 Q41. The eligibility for C Type quarter for Executives is……………grade (a) E-3 (b) E-2 (c) E-6 (d) E-7 Q42. The entitlement for First AC for Executives is……………grade (a) E-3 (b) E-5 (c) E-6 (d) E-7 Q43. The entitlement for Air Travel for Executives is……………grade (a) E-1 (b) MT (c) E-2 (d) E-4 ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… AN S W E R 01(d), 02(d), 03(c), 04(d), 05(d), 06(a), 07(c), 08(d), 09(b), 10(c), 11(a), 12(b), 13(a), 14(c), 15(b), 16(a), 17(a), 18(d), 19(a), 20(b), 21(c), 22(a), 23(a), 24(c), 25(d), 26(b), 27(a), 28(b), 29(b), 30(a), 31(d), 32(a), 33(c), 34(c), 35(b), 36(a), 37(b), 38(d), 39(c), 40(c), 41(a), 42(b), 43(c). ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… (SECTION-X : Reference Material Useful for CIL Interview & CIL Deptt Exams) Q-1. Which subsidiary of CIL has not a single UG mine ? (A) NCL (B) MCL (C) SECL (D) All Q-2. CIL has bagged two nos. virgin coal blocks in ...................... ? (A) Indonesia (B) Mozambique (C) Australia (D) Africa Q-3. Which Indian state has largest reserve of coking coal ? (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Jharkhand (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Maharashtra Q-4. Which company in India is the largest producer of lignite ? (A) GMDCL (B) NLC (C) GPCL (D) RSMML Q-5. Which state in India produces coking coal ? (A) Jharkhand (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) All Q-6. Which Indian state is the largest producer of coking coal ? (A) Jharkhand (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) West Bengal By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
22
QUESTION BANK
Q-7. Which state had highest pit head stock of raw coal during 2008-09 ? (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Orissa (C) Jharkhand (D) Maharashtra Q-8. Which company had highest pit head stock of raw coal as on 31.03.2009 ? (A) CCL (B) BCCL (C) SECL (D) MCL Q-9. What is the import duty on coking coal in India ? (A) 2% (B) 0% (C) 5% (D) 10% Q-10. What is the import duty on non-coking coal in India ? (A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 20% Q-11. What is the import duty on coke in India ? (A) 2% (B) 5% (C) 10% (D) 0% Q-12. India imported maximum coking coal from ................ in 2008-09 ? (A) Australia (B) USA (C) New Zealand (D) Indonesia Q-13. India imported maximum non-coking coal from ............. in 2008-09 ? (A) South Africa (B) Indonesia (C) Australia (D) Vietnam Q-14. India imported both coking coal & non-coking coal from ............... in 2008-09 ? (A) Indonesia (B) Australia (C) USA (D) Zew Zealand Q-15. India exported coal to which country during 2008-09 ? (A) Bangladesh (B) Nepal (C) Bhutan (D) All Q-16. India exported maximum coal to .................. during 2008-09 ? (A) Bangladesh (B) Nepal (C) Bhutan (D) Srilanka Q-17. When was SCOPE established ? (A) 1971 (B) 1973 (C) 1972 (D) 1975 Q-18. How many total coal mines are in India as on 31.03.2009 ? (A) 561 (B) 560 (C) 562 (D) 564 Q-19. How many total lignite mines are in India as on 31.03.2009 ? (A) 10 (B) 13 (C) 11 (D) 12 Q-20. Which state has highest no. of coal mines in India ? (A) Jharkhand (B) West Bengal (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Maharashtra Q-21. Which subsidiary of CIL has highest number of coal mines ? (A) WCL (B) SECL (C) ECL (D) BCCL Q-22. Which subsidiary has highest number of OC coal mines ? (A) WCL (B) CCL (C) ECL (D) SECL Q-23. Which subsidiary has highest no. of UG mines ? (A) SECL (B) WCL (C) BCCL (D) ECL Q-24. From which country does India mainly imports coke ? (A) Australia (B) China (C) Indonesia (D) U.S. Q-25. Which Indian port handled maximum imported coal & coke in 2008-09 ? (A) Paradeep (B) Chennai (C) Vishakhapattanam (D) Mumbai Q-26. Which subsidiary of CIL has produced highest coal in 2009-10 ? (A) MCL (B) SECL (C) NCL (D) CCL Q-27. What is the share of NCL in the overall coal production in India ? (A) 15.36% (B) 15% (C) 14% (D) 12% Q-28. Which subsidiary of CIL has no coal washery ? (A) SECL (B) ECL (C) MCL (D) All Q-29. What is the coal based Thermal Power Generation capacity in India as on 31-12-2010 ? (A) 1,11,034 MW (B) 85,000 MW (C) 86,000 MW (D) 84,000 MW Q-30. How much electricity was generated by coal based Thermal Power Plants during 2010-11 ? (A) 5,35,300 MU (B) 5,38,000 MU (C) 5,30,000 MU (D) 5,20,000 MU Q-31. Which is the largest coal consuming country in the world ? (A) India (B) USA (C) China (D) Japan Q-32. What is the share of India in world’s coal production ? (A) 6% (B) 7% (C) 8% (D) 9% By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
23
QUESTION BANK
Q-33. Which Indian state has highest number of OC, UG & Mixed mines ? (A) West Bengal (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Jharkhand (D) Chhattisgarh Q-34. Which subsidiary of CIL has produced more than 100 mt coal during 2010-11 ? (A) SECL (B) MCL (C) SECL & MCL (D) NCL Q-35. What is the present average electricity consumption per capita of India ? (A) 750 mtoe (B) 744 mtoe (C) 755 mtoe (D) 766 mtoe Q-36. Which is the largest coal mine in India ? (A) Gevra OC (B) Dipika OC (C) Ananta OC (D) Jayant OC Q-37. Which area produces highest coal in CIL ? (A) Lakhanpur (B) Jagannath (C) Gevra (D) Dipika Q-38. How many areas are there in CIL ? (A) 80 (B) 75 (C) 70 (D) 81 Q-39. Which coalfield produces highest coal in India ? (A) Singrauli (B) Talcher (C) Korba (D) IB Valley Q-40. Which subsidiary of CIL has highest coal reserves base? (A) MCL (B) SECL (C) ECL (D) CCL Q-41. How much coal has been extracted in India between 1950 to 2009-10 ? (A) 13.34bt (B) 12.34 bt (C) 11.34 bt (D) 10.34 bt Q-42. What is the total installed capacity of power generation in India as on 31-12-10? (A) 1,69,749 MW (B) 1,60,000 MW (C) 1,62,000 MW (D) 1,61,000 MW Q-43. Which state has the highest reserves of Non-Coking coal in India ? (A) West Bengal (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Orissa (D) Jharkhand Q-44. In which state of India High Sulphur Coal is found ? (A) Meghalaya (B) Assam (C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) All of the above Q-45. In which state of India Coking Coal is found ? (A) Jharkhand (B) West Bengal (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) All of the above Q-46. How many CPSUs have been given Maha-Ratna status ? (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2 Q-47. What is the total population of Draglines in CIL as on 01-04-2010? (A) 41 (B) 40 (C) 39 (D) 38 Q-48. Which is the largest coking coal washery in CIL ? (A) Rajrappa (B) Kathara (C) Rajrappa & Kathara (D) None of the above Q-49. Which is the largest non-coking coal washery in CIL ? (A) Bina (B) Kargali (C) Gidi (D) Piparwar Q-50. Short Wall mining is done only in.......................subsidiary of CIL? (A) MCL (B) SECL (C) WCL (D) NCL Q-51. Which subsidiary of CIL has highest number of Surface Miners? (A) ECL (B) SECL (C) CCL (D) MCL Q-52. The largest coal mine in India Gevra is situated in which subsidiary of CIL ? (A) ECL (B) SECL (C) CCL (D) MCL Q-53. Which is the largest proposed coal washery (10mta) of CIL ? (A) IB Valley (B) Ashoka (C) Dahibari (D) All of the above Q-54. Which area of CIL produces highest coal ? (A) Gevra (B) Dipika (C) Kusmunda (D) Jagannath Q-55. Which subsidiary of CIL has maximum number of areas ? (A) BCCL (B) SECL (C) ECL (D) CCL Q-56. How many Coking Coal Washeries are operational in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13 Q-57. How many Non-Coking Coal Washeries are operational in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 8 Q-58. How many Coal Mines are there in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 468 (B) 470 (C) 472 (D) 471 By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
24
QUESTION BANK
Q-59. How many Underground Coal Mines are there in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 273 (B) 163 (C) 35 (D) 200 Q-60. How many Opencast Coal Mines are there in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 273 (B) 163 (C) 35 (D) 200 Q-61. How many Mixed Coal Mines are there in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 273 (B) 163 (C) 35 (D) 200 Q-62. In which country did CIL establish foreign subsidiary Coal India Africana Limitada ? (A) Saudi Arabia (B) Namibia (C) Africa (D) Mozambique Q-63. Where was the HQ of CMAL established in 1973 ? (A) Dhanbad (B) Kolkata (C) Ranchi (D) Nagpur Q-64. After the formation of CMAL, NCDC Mines were kept under ________ zone of CMAL. (A) Eastern (B) Western (C) Central (D) CMPDIL Q-65. When was the coal price totally de-regulated in India ? (A) 1996 (B) 2000 (C) 2009 (D) 2005 Q-66. When was the price of price last revised by CIL ? (A) 27-02-2011 (B) 16-10-2006 (C) 16-10-2008 (D) 16-10-2007 Q-67.The coal mines of NCDC were kept under…….. at the time of formation of CIL in 1975? (A) CCL (B) ECL (C) BCCL (D) WCL Q-68. Which of the following is not a subsidiary of CIL? (A) CMPDIL (B) Coal Indian Africana Limitada (C) NEC (D) None of the above Q-69. What is the full form of ISO ? (A) Indian Standards Organisation (B) International Standards Organisation (C) International Organisation for Standardisation (D) Indian Organisation for Standardisation Q-70. Which subsidiary of CIL holds majority in MJSJ Coal Limited & MNH Shakti Limited? (A) MCL (B) SECL (C) WCL (D) NCL Q-71. CIL is eligible for which status? (A) Only Maharatna (B) Only Fortune 500 (C) Both (D) None Q-72. How many Indian companies are included in Fortune 500 global list 2010? (A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 7 Q-73. Social Accountability 8000 standards is issued by……………………………. (A) SA International (B) ISO (C) BIS (D) ISI Q-74. How many NAVRATNA companies are there as on 15-04-2011? (A) 17 (B) 19 (C) 16 (D) 15 Q-75. Which is the 9th. Indian company to enter Fortune 500 Global List? (A) CIL (B) BSNL (C) NTPC (D) RPL Q-76. Which of the following standards are for occupational health & safety? (A) ISO 18001(B) ISO 18000 (C) OHSAS 18001 (D) ISO 8001 Q-77. What does IMS stand for? (A) Indian Mining System (B) International Management System (C) Integrated Mining System (D) Integrated Management System Q-78. Who issues ISO Certificates? (A) ISO (B) IAF (C) Accreditation Body (D) Certification Body Q-79. Which subsidiary of CIL is first to get an ISO certification in 1998? (A) SECL (B) CCL (C) NCL (D) CMPDIL Q-80. The current Five Year Plan ends on…………… (A) 31st.March 2011 (B) 31st.March 2012 (C) 31st.March 2013 (D) 31st.March 2014 Q-81. What is the period of 12th. Five Year Plan ? (A) 2012-17 (B) 2007-12 (C) 2002-07 (D) 2017-22 Q-82. What is the period of 11th. Five Year Plan ? (A) 2007-12 (B) 2012-17 (C) 2002-07 (D) 2017-21 Q-83. The major restructuring of CIL is proposed during which Five Year Plan ? (A) 11th.Plan (B) 12th.Plan (C) 13th.Plan (D) 14th.Plan By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
25
QUESTION BANK
Q-84. Which project in NCL has produced highest coal in 2010-11 ? (A) Jayant (B) Dudhichua (C) Nigahi (D) Amlohri Q-85. Which Co. has highest ranking among the Indian Co. in Fortune 500 Global List 2010 ? (A) RIL (B) HPCL (C) ONGC (D) IOC Q-86. Non-Coking Coal is commonly known as………. ? (A) Steam Coal (B) Thermal Coal (C) Both (D) None Q-87. What does OHSAS stand for ?
(A) Occupational Health & Safety Assurance System (C) Occupational Health & Safety Assessment System (B) Occupational Health & Safety System (D) Occupational Health & Safety Assessment Series
Q-107. Which is the largest coal exporter country in the world? (A) Australia (B) India (C) Indonesia (D) USA By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
26
Q-88. What is ISO 14001 ? (A) QMS (B) EMS (C) OH&S (D) SA Q-89. After proposed expansion, which will be the largest coal mine of CIL ? (A) Dipika (B) Gevra (C) Talabira (D) Rajmahal Q-90. What is IBS ? (A) Integrated Business Solution (B) Information Business System (C) Indian Business System (D) International Business System Q-91. What is PRP ? (A) Productivity Related Pay (B) Production Related Pay (C) Pay Related Payment (D) Performance Related Pay Q-92. What will be coal demand during 2011-12 ? (A) 713mt (B) 712mt (C) 711mt (D) 710mt Q-93. What is the expected coal import of India during 2011-12 ? (A) 83mt (B) 82mt (C) 81mt (D) 80mt Q-94. What is the expected coal production of India during 2011-12 ? (A) 630mt (B) 650mt (C) 700mt (D) 680mt Q-95. Dankuni Coal Complex has been placed under the administrative control of ………….. (A) SECL (B) ECL (C) CIL (D) NEC Q-96. What is the remarkable characteristics of Tertiary Coal ? (A) High Moisture (B) High Ash (C) High Sulphur (D) All Q-97. What is special about Imported Non-Coking Coal ? (A) High Calorific Value (B) Low Ash (C) Both (D) None Q-98. Which is the only coalfield in India which is spread in 2 states & 2 subsidiary Co. of CIL ? (A) Central India Coalfields (B) Rajmahal (C) Singrauli (D) Raniganj Q-99. What is the thickness of Jhingurdah Seam of NCL ? (A) 130-138m (B) 20m (C) 12m (D) 8m Q-100. How many coal seams are found in moher basin of Singrauli coalfields ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Q-101. In which state of India Tertiary coal is found? (A) Meghalaya (B) Mizoram (C) Nagaland (D) All Q-102. In which Indian state both Gondwana & Tertiary coal are found? (A) Meghalaya (B) Assam (C) Nagaland (D) All Q-103. When did Coal India get Mini-Ratna status? (A) 2007 (B) 2006 (C) 2005 (D) 2004 Q-104. When did Coal India get Nav-Ratna status? (A) 2007 (B) 2008 (C) 2006 (D) 2005 Q-105. What was the total coal production of World in 2009 ? (A) 4,000 mt (B) 5,000 mt (C) 5,990 mt (D) 5,500 mt Q-106. Which is the largest coal importer country in the world? (A) Japan (B) Indonesia (C) China (D) India
QUESTION BANK
Q-108. How many coal washeries are presently operational in CIL? (A) 16 (B)17 (C) 15 (D) 14 Q-109. What is the contribution of Open Cast in Coal Production of India? (A) 88% (B) 80% (C) 85 % (D) 75% Q-110. Name the only company in the world which has applied for 4 certifications (ISO-9001, ISO14001, OHSAS-18001 & SA-8000) under IMS? (A) Rio-Tinto (B) SCCL (C) CIL (D) NCL Q-111. What is the coal production target of CIL for 2011-12? (A) 435 mt (B) 460 mt (C) 452 mt (D) 520 mt Q-112. Which country in the world has highest reserves of Coal and Lignite? (A) USA (B) China (C) India (D) Australia Q-113. What is the total coal & lignite reserve in the world by the end of 2008? (A) 800 bt (B) 984 bt (C) 850 bt (D) 900 bt Q-114. In how many states of India coal reserves is found? (A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 14 Q-115. The estimated coal reserve of India is enough to last for over_____ yrs? (A) 200 yrs (B) 208 yrs (C) 150 yrs (D) 100 yrs Q-116. What is the market share of CIL in Indian coal production? (A) 82% (B) 80% (C) 75% (D) 70% Q-117. How many CPSUs were operational as on 31st.March 2009? (A) 252 (B) 235 (C) 246 (D) 310 Q-118. Name the foreign subsidiary of CIL. (A) Coal Videsh Ltd (B) Coal India Africana Limitada (C) CIL Videsh Ltd (D) CIL Mozambique Ltd Q-119. When did CIL get SCOPE Excellence Award? (A) 2006 (B) 2007 (C) 2008 (D) 2009 Q-120. What is the contribution of UG mines in CIL coal production? (A) 10% (B) 9% (C) 8% (D) 7% Q-121. What is the contribution of OC mines in CIL coal production? (A) 88% (B) 89% (C) 90% (D) 91% Q-122. How much coal is supplied to Power Utilities by CIL? (A) 65% (B) 72% (C) 70% (D) 75% Q-123. What were the Gross Sales of CIL during 2009-10? (A) Rs.50,000 Cr. (B) Rs.52,000 Cr. (C) Rs.51,000 Cr. (D) Rs.53,000 Cr. Q-124. How much coal was E-marketed by CIL during 2009-10? (A) 43 mt (B) 41 mt (C) 42 mt (D) 44 mt Q-125. Which subsidiary of CIL has gained highest in terms of %age through E-marketing of coal during 2009-10? (A) SECL (B) NCL (C) CCL (D) MCL Q-126. How much Profit (before tax & dividend) did CIL post in 2009-10? (A) Rs.8,000 Cr. (B) Rs.10,000 Cr. (C) Rs.11,000 Cr. (D) Rs.12,400 Cr. Q-127. What is the Profit after tax of CIL in 2009-10? (A) Rs.9,000 Cr. (B) Rs.10,000 Cr. (C) Rs.8,300 Cr. (D) Rs.8,000 Cr. Q-128. What is the paid up equity of CIL? (A) Rs.6,300 Cr. (B) Rs.6,000 Cr. (C) Rs.6,200 Cr. (D) Rs.6,400 Cr. Q-129. CIL has paid the highest ever dividend of Rs.________ during 2009-10? (A) Rs.2,000 Cr. (B) Rs.2,200 Cr. (C) Rs.2,100 Cr. (D) Rs.2,300 Cr. Q-130. Which country has highest Reserve to Production(R/P) ratio for Coal? (A) Australia (B) China (C) India (D) USA Q-131. Under which head, CIL incurs highest expenditure? (A) Salaries & Wages (B) Spares & Stores (C) Power & Fuel (D) Social Sector Q-132. CIL despatches maximum coal through _________ mode of transport? (A) Road (B) Railways (C) MGR System (D) Belt Conveyor By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
27
QUESTION BANK
Q-133. Which subsidiary of CIL has received SCOPE Meritorious Award for Environmental Excellence for 2007-08? (A) NCL (B) SECL (C) MCL (D) CMPDIL Q-134. In India, the majority of coal reserve found is________________. (A) Tertiary Coal (B) Gondwana Coal (C) Both (D) None Q-135. How many captive blocks have been allotted in India up to 31st.March 2010? (A) 208 (B) 210 (C) 214 (D) 205 Q-136. How much coking coal was produced by CIL during 2009-10? (A) 6.8% (B) 7.8% (C) 8.8% (D) 9.8% Q-137. How much ash content is present in Indian Non-coking coal ? (A) 30-35% (B) 25-30% (C) 35-38% (D) 40-45% Q-138. How much coal was produced by India during 2009-10 ? (A) 532 mt (B) 493 mt (C) 500 mt (D) 510 mt Q-139. How many captive coal mines are in operation ? (A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 26 Q-140. How much coal was produced by captive coal mines during 2008-09? (A) 30 mt (B) 20 mt (C) 10 mt (D) 5 mt Q-141. Which country is the THIRD largest coal producer in the World ? (A) USA (B) CHINA (C) INDIA (D) AUSTRALIA Q-142. Which Indian state has the highest COAL RESERVES ? (A) WEST BENGAL (B) ORISSA (C) CHHATISGARH (D) JHARKHAND Q-143. Which Indian state has the lowest COAL RESERVES ? (A) NAGALAND (B) SIKKIM (C) ARUNACHAL PRADESH (D) MEGHALAYA Q-144. Which state is the largest coal producer in India ? (A) ORISSA (B) JHARKHAND (C) CHHATISGARH (D) WEST BENGAL Q-145. How much Coal is present in India compared to the World Reserves ? (A) 5% (B) 10 % (C) 2% (D) 15% Q-146. Which core sector in India consumes maximum coal ? (A) POWER (B) STEEL (C) CEMENT (D) SPONGE IRON Q-147. What is the present contribution of CIL in Coal Production of India? (A) 95% (B) 90% (C) 70% (D) 82% Q-148. Which is the oldest coal producing PSU in India ? (A) CIL (B) NCDC (C) CMAL (D) SCCL Q-149. What is the oldest name of CCL ? (A) Hindustan Collieries(Pvt) Ltd (B) CCL (C) CMAL (D) NCDC Q-150. How much coal was produced by CIL during 2010-11 ? (A) 425.27 mt (B) 431.33 mt (C) 420.27 mt (D) 435.27 mt Q-151. What is the total number of working coal mines in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 469 (B) 468 (C) 473 (D) 471 Q-152. What is the total manpower of CIL as on 01-07-2010 ? (A) 4.0 lakh (B) 4.20 lakh (C) 3.94 lakh (D) 4.10 lakh Q-153. What is the size of ROM coal ? (A) 50 - 200 mm (B) 25 - 50 mm (C) 0 - 50 mm (D) None of the Above Q-154. Price of Coal produced by CIL is fixed by_____________. (A) Central Govt. (B) State Govt. (C) CIL (D) Coal Controller Q-155. The estimated World Coal Reserve is enough to last for over____years ? (A) 190 yrs. (B) 100 yrs. (C) 50 yrs. (D) 75 yrs. Q-156. Which is the most secured energy source in the world ? (A) COAL (B) OIL (C) GAS (D) NAPHTHA Q-157. How much electricity was generated by coal/lignite in India during 2009-10 ? (A) 80% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 70% By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
28
QUESTION BANK
Q-158. What is the present share of UG production in India ? (A) 12% (B) 5% (C) 10% (D) 20% Q-159. How many CPSUs are in Fortune 500 global companies list 2010 ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Q-160. In India LIGNITE reserves are found in_______________ states ? (A) GUJARAT (B) TAMIL NADU (C) RAJASTHAN (D) All of the Above Q-161. Which mining company has not been awarded Mini-Ratna status ? (A) CMPDIL (B) CCL (C) NLC (D) SCCL Q-162. Name the International Standard issued by ISO for Quality Management System (QMS) ? (A) ISO 9000 (B) ISO 9001 (C) ISO 9002 (D) ISO 9003 Q-163. Which is the oldest Coalfield in India ? (A) JHARIA (B) RANIGANJ (C) BOKARO (D) RAJMAHAL Q-164. Which subsidiary of CIL has posted the highest Profit during 2009-10 ? (A) SECL (B) MCL (C) NCL (D) WCL Q-165. In India, the share in production of coal through which mining system is declining ? (A) OPENCAST (B) UNDERGROUND (C) OC & UG (D) NONE Q-166. The Captive Mining of Coal was first allowed in India in________ . (A) 2000 (B) 1976 (C) 2002 (D) 1990 Q-167. Which company in private sector produces highest coal in India ? (A) Tata Steel (TISCO) (B) BECML (C) JSPL (D) MIL Q-168. The Coking Coal Reserves in India is____% of total geological reserves ? (A) 10% (B) 18% (C) 5% (D) 25% Q-169. Which major coalfield in India has highest coal reserves ? (A) TALCHER (B) RANIGANJ (C) JHARIA (D) IB-VALLEY Q-170. Which grades of coal is abundantly found in India ? (A) A & B (B) C (C) D (D) E, F & G Q-171. Which company is the largest corporate employer in India ? (A) COAL INDIA (B) RELIANCE (C) TATA (D) BIRLA Q-172. How much disinvestment of CIL was done in October 2010 through IPO ? (A) 20% (B) 15% (C) 5% (D) 10% Q-173. Which is directly under the administrative control of CIL ? (A) NEC (B) SCCL (C) NLC (D) DCC Q-174. All Coal Washeries of CIL are placed under the control of _____ ? (A) Director(F) (B) Director(Mrkt) (C) Director(Tech) (D) Director(Pers) Q-175. Who looks after the work of COAL VIDESH at CIL ? (A) Director(F) (B) Director(Mrkt) (C) Director(Tech) (D) Director(Pers) Q-176. Which is the largest coal producing company in the world ? (A) BHP-Billiton (B) Coal India (C) Rio-Tinto (D) Arcelor-Mittal Q-177. The Exploration of Coal is being done by___________. (A) CMPDIL (B) MECL (C) GSI (D) All of the above Q-178. The Proven Coal reserves of India as on 01.04.2010 is_________. (A) 110 bt (B) 100 bt (C) 96 bt (D) 90 bt Q-179. The IB Valley coalfield is situated in which subsidiary of CIL ? (A) SECL (B) WCL (C) MCL (D) NEC Q-180. Which subsidiary of CIL has posted loss in 2009-10? (A) BCCL (B) ECL (C) Both (D) None Q-181. How much electricity in the world is generated by coal? (A) 40% (B) 41% (C) 42% (D) 43% Q-182. Which country in the world produces 93% of electricity from coal? (A) Poland (B) China (C) Australia (D) South Africa Q-183. Which subsidiary of CIL has E-marketed highest coal during 2009-10? (A) MCL (B) SECL (C) CCL (D) WCL By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
29
QUESTION BANK
Q-184. How much coal was imported by India during 2009-10? (A) 30 mt (B) 40 mt (C) 68 mt (D) 50 mt Q-185. Which Subsidiary Company of CIL has the highest Manpower? (A) ECL (B) BCCL (C) SECL (D) CCL Q-186. Which Subsidiary of CIL has the highest number of Executives? (A) ECL (B) BCCL (C) SECL (D) CCL Q-187. When do we celebrate Coal India Foundation Day? (A) 1st October (B) 1st November (C) 1st December (D) 1st October Q-188. Coal India Limited has been awarded which status ? (A) Mini-Ratna (B) Nav Ratna (C) Maha-Ratna (D) All Q-189. How much Non-Coking Coal reserves are present in India ? (A) 82% (B) 90% (C) 95% (D) 85% Q-190. Which of the following PSUs has got Maha-Ratna status in 2010? (A) SAIL & CIL (B) IOC & ONGC (C) NTPC (D) All Q-191. When did CMPDIL get Mini-Ratna Cat-II status ? (A) 2007 (B) 2009 (C) 2008 (D) 2010 Q-192. How much coal was exported by India in 2008-09 ? (A) 2 mt (B) 1 mt (C) 3 mt (D) 0 mt Q-193. How much lignite was produced in India during 2009-10 ? (A) 34 mt (B) 33 mt (C) 32 mt (D) 35 mt Q-194. Which subsidiary of CIL has achieved zero accident during Jan-Mar 2010 ? (A) ECL (B) BCCL (C) MCL (D) NCL Q-195. Which state in India has highest reserve of Tertiary coal ? (A) Assam (B) Arunachal Pradesh (C) Nagaland (D) Meghalaya Q-196. Which state in India has largest reserve of Gondwana coal ? (A) West Bengal (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Jharkhand (D) Orissa Q-197. CIL operates in how many state of India ? (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 5 Q-198. How much financial power is granted to Mini-Ratna Category-II companies ? (A) Rs.1,000 Cr. (B) Rs.400 Cr. (C) Rs.500 Cr. (D) Rs.300 Cr. Q-199. What is the overall OMS of CIL in 2009-10 ? (A) 4.08 (B) 5.08 (C) 6.08 (D) 7.08 Q-200. When did CIL get Maha-ratna status ? (A) 2008 (B) 2009 (C) 2010 (D) 2011 ………………………………………………..………………………………………………………..,…………
ANSWERS 1(A), 02(B), 03(B), 04(B), 05(D), 06(A), 07(C), 08(D), 09(B), 10(A), 11(B), 12(A), 13(B), 14(A), 15(D), 16(A), 17(B), 18(A), 19(B), 20(A), 21(C), 22(A), 23(D), 24(B), 25(A), 26(B), 27(A), 28(D), 29(A), 30(A), 31(D), 32(A), 33(C), 34(C), 35(A), 36(A), 37(C), 38(D), 39(C), 40(A), 41(D), 42(A), 43(C), 44(D), 45(D), 46(A), 47(B), 48(C), 49(D), 50(B), 51(D), 52(B), 53(D), 54(A), 55(C), 56(C), 57(B), 58(D), 59(A), 60(B), 61(C), 62(D), 63(B), 64(C), 65(B), 66(A), 67(A), 68(C), 69(C), 70(A), 71(C), 72(B), 73(A), 74(C), 75(A), 76(C), 77(D), 78(D), 79(D), 80(B), 81(A), 82(A), 83(B), 84(A), 85(D), 86(C), 87(C), 88(B), 89(B), 90(A), 91(D), 92(A), 93(A), 94(A), 95(A), 96(C), 97(C), 98(D), 99(A), 100(D), 101(D), 102(B), 103(A), 104(B), 105(C), 106(A), 107(A), 108(B), 109(A), 110(D), 111(C), 112(A), 113(B), 114(D), 115(B), 116(A), 117(C), 118(B), 119(D), 120(A), 121(C), 122(B), 123(B), 124(A), 125(B), 126(D), 127(C), 128(A), 129(B), 130(D), 131(A), 132(B), 133(A), 134(B), 135(C), 136(A), 137(C), 138(A), 139(D), 140(A), 141(C), 142(D), 143(A), 144(C), 145(D), 146(A), 147(D), 148(D), 149(A), 150(B), 151(D), 152(C), 153(D), 154(C), 155(A), 156(A), 157(D), 158(A), 159(D), 160(D), 161(D), 162(B), 163(B), 164(C), 165(B), 166(B), 167(A), 168(B), 169(A), 170(D), 171(A), 172(D), 173(A), 174(B), 175(C), 176(B), 177(D), 178(A), 179(C), 180(D), 181(B), 182(D), 183(A), 184(C), 185(A), 186(C), 187(B), 188(D), 189(A), 190(D), 191(B), 192(A), 193(A), 194(C), 195(D), 196(C), 197(B), 198(D), 199(A), 200(D). …………………………………………………………..………………….………………………………………………
By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
30
(SECTION-I : Coal Mining Technology, Mining Equipments, Organisational Profile of CIL, Physical & Financial Performance of CIL and Coal & Coal Products) Q1. Which of the following equipments are chain mounted? (a) Side Discharge Loader (SDL) (b) Load Haul Dump (LHD) (c) Both (d) None Q2. Which of the following is a Mass Production technology for UG? (a) SDL (b) LHD (c) PSLW (d) All Q3. Which of the following equipments can be tyre mounted? (a) Pay Loader (b) Grader (c) Dozer (d) All Q4. Which of the following company has deployed the largest size Shovel-Dumper combination (42cum + 240T) in CIL? (a) SECL (b) MCL (c) CCL (d) NCL Q5. Which OCP has deployed largest capacity shovel Dumper combination in CIL? (a) Gevra (b) Dipika (c) Jagannath (d) Piparwar Q6. What is the largest size of Rope Shovels in CIL? (a) 10cum (b) 20cum (c) 30cum (d) 42cum Q7. What is the largest size of Dumper in CIL? (a) 170T (b) 240T (c) 360T (d) 400T Q8. What is the largest size of Rope Shovel in the World? (a) 63cum (b) 50cum (c) 42cum (d) 35cum Q9. What is the boom length of the largest Dragline in the World? (a) 133 m (b) 150 m (c) 100 m (d) 50 m Q10. What is the largest size of hydraulic Shovels in CIL? (a) 18cum (b)12cum (c) 11.5cum (d) 9.5cum Q11. What is the largest capacity of hydraulic Shovels in the World? (a) +25cum (b) +30cum (c) +40cum (d) +50cum Q12. What is the largest size of Drills in CIL ? (a) 381mm (b) 311mm (c) 250mm (d) 160mm Q13. What is the largest size of Dozer in CIL? (a) 450hp (b) 770 hp (c) 850hp (d) 410hp Q14. What is the full-form of LHD? (a) Load Haul Dump (b) Load Haul Dumper (c) Low Haul Dumper (d) Low Haul Dump Q15. Which of the following is a mass production technology for U.G.? (a) Longwall (b) SDL (c) LHD (d) Bord & Pillar Q16. Which of the following is an intermittent mining technology? (a) LHD & SDL (b) Longwall (c) Bord & Pillar (d) None Q17. What is the bucket capacity of the largest size of Dragline in CIL? (a) 24cum (b) 30 cum (c) 33 cum (d) 35 cum Q18. What is the bucket capacity of the largest capacity of Dragline in the world ? (a) 100cum (b) 55cum (c) 120cum (d) 129cum Q19. Where could you find High Wall Mining in CIL? (a) WCL (b)SECL (c)MCL (d) NCL Q20. Shortwall mining is used in which company? (a) SECL (b)MCL (c) WCL (d)NCL Q21. In which OCP, In-pit crushing & conveying is used? (a) Gevra (b) Dipika (c) Piparwar (c) Jagannath Q22 What is the total number of Coal washeries in CIL ? (a) 17 (b) 16 (c) 15 (d) 14 Q23. Which Subsidiary of CIL has Surface Miners equipments? (a) MCL (b) SECL (c) NCL (d) WCL Q24. Surface Miners can be used in which face? (a) Coal (b) OB (c) Both (d) None By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
1
QUESTION BANK
Q25. SDL & LHD in UG are used for …………………. (a) Transporting (b) Loading (c) Drilling (d) Cutting Q26. Which of the following mining technology does not need blasting ? (a) Surface Miner (b) Longwall (c) Bucket wheel Excavator (BWE) (d) All Q27. Which of the following is a continuous mining method? (a) Continuous Miner (b) Surface Miner (c) Bucket Wheel Excavator (d) All of the above Q28. What is LTC Coke ? (a) Low Temperature Carbonization Coke (b) Low Thermal Coking Coke (c) Light Thermal Coking Coke (d) Low Temperature CoalIndia Coke Q29. Which of the following is a type of coking coal ? (a) Prime Coking (b) Medium Coking (c) Semi Coking (d) All of the above Q30. What are the grades of NEC Coal ? (a) A only (b) B only (c) A &B (d) C&D Q31. Which of the following industries use coke ? (a) Steel Plants (b) Cement Plants (c) Brick Kiln (d) Power Plants Q32. Which of the following can be used in any gradient in UG Coal Mining? (a) SDL (b) LHD (c) Bord & Pillar (d) Longwall Q33. Which of the following is not an UG equipment ? (a) LHD (b) SDL (c) BWE (d) PSLW Q34. Which of the following is not a Open Cast equipment ? (a) Shovel-Dumper (b) Surface Miner (c) Bucket Wheel Excavator (d) Road Header Q35. When did CIL get Maharatna status? (a) 11th April 2011 (b) 11th April 2008 (c) 11th April 2007 (d) 11th April 2010 Q36. Which is the 5th company to get Maharatna status? (a) ONGC (b) IOC (c) SAIL (d) CIL Q37. What is the total manpower of CIL as on 1st March 2011? (a) 3.84 lakh (b) 3.85 lakh (c) 3.87 lakh (d) 4.00 lakh Q38. What is the total number of mines in CIL as on 1st.April 2011? (a) 470 (b) 471 (c) 472 (d) 473 Q39. After proposed expansion, which OCP will be largest in CIL? (a) Gevra (b) Dipika (c) Piparwar (d) Jagannath Q40. Name the joint ventures established by MCL? (a) MJSJ (b) MNH (c) Both (d) None Q41. CIL has established a foreign Subsidiary (CIAL) in……………. (a) Mozambique (b) Indonesia (c) Australia (d) America Q42. What does CIAL stand for ? (a) Coal India America Ltd. (b) Coal India Africa Limited (c) Coal India Africana Limitada (d) CIL International Africa Ltd. Q43. Which of the following is a Subsidiary of CIL ? (a) CIAL (b) NEC (c) NLC (d) SCCL Q44. Which type of coal is classified mainly on the basis of calorific value? (a) Coking Coal (b) Non-Coking Coal (c) Semi Coking Coal (d) NEC Coal Q45. Primarily on what basis the Coking Coal is classified? (a) Calorific Value (b) Ash Content (c) Sulphur Content (d) Moisture Content Q46. Which is the only coalfield in India which is spread between two states as well as two companies? (a) Raniganj (b) Jharia (c) Singrauli (d) Central India Coalfields Q47. NEC coal has a distinct characteristic of …….. (a) High Sulphur (b) High Ash (c) High Volatile Matter (d) High Moisture Q48. What are the characteristic of imported coal ? (a) Low ash & moisture (b) High Sulphur (c) Both (d) None By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
2
QUESTION BANK
Q49. High Wall Mining can be classified as …………… (a) OC Mining Technology (b) UG Mining Technology (c) Hybrid Mining Technology (d) Other Mining Technology Q50. Surface Miner in CIL is used for ……….. (a) Coal (b) OB (c) Both (d) None Q51. Coal Handling Plants (CHP) are used for ? (a) Coal Transportation (b) Coal Loading (c) Coal Crushing (d) All Q52. The Largest Dragline in CIL (33cum) has been ordered by which Company? (a) NCL (b) SECL (c) MCL (d) WCL Q53. What is the ideal standard dumper for 20cum shovel? (a) 170T (b) 100T (c) 120T (d) 150T Q54. What is the total coal washing capacity of CIL as on 1st.April 2011? (a) 39.4MT (b) 20.4MT (c) 30.4MT (d) 50.4MT Q55. What is the Net Profit (PAT) of CIL during 2010-11? (a) Rs.10,867 Cr. (b) Rs.8,067 Cr. (c) Rs.9,867 Cr. (d) Rs.11,867 Cr. Q56. Under New Coal Distribution Policy (NCDP), Coal is sold by CIL through …… (a) Fuel Supply Agreement (FSA) (b) Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) (c) E-Auction (d) All of the above Q57. Which of the following equipments are used in Longwall Mining ? (a) Shearer (b) Road Header (c) Stage Loader-crusher (d) All of the above Q58. Which of the following equipments are used with Continuous Miner ? (a) Shuttle Cars (b) Twin/quad Bolter (c) Feeder Breaker (d) All of the above Q59. Which of the following equipments are used for mine development for PSLW ? (a) Continuous Miner only (b) Road Header only (c) Either (d) None Q60. What are the benefits of Longwall Mining ? (a) Higher Productivity (b) Higher Recovery of coal (c) Safety & Reliability (d) All of the above Q61. Shuttle Cars in UG is used for transportation of…………………… (a) Coal (b) Manpower (c) Machine (d) All of the above Q62. By which UG mining method, 75% coal recovery can be achieved ? (a) Bord & Pillar (b) Continuous Miner (c) Longwall (d) None of the above Q63. Which of the following is the most common cause of accidents in UG mines ? (a) Roof & side fall (b) Explosion (c) Fire (d) Water inundation Q64. What is the key driver for change in mining technology ? (a) Improving Productivity (b) Quality Improvement (c) Environmental Issues (d) All of the above Q.65 Bucket Wheel Excavators in India are used for mining of………….. (a) Coal (b) Lignite (c) Both (d) All of the above Q66. What is the share of coal in primary energy consumption of India ? (a) 52.40% (b) 62.40% (c) 72.40% (d) 82.40% Q67. What will be gap between Demand & coal Production during 2011-12 ? (a) 93.33MT (b) 75.33MT (c) 83.33MT (d) 65.33MT Q68. How many coalfields in India are not currently under production ? (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 Q69. What will be demand of coal during 2011-12 ? (a) 713.33MT (b) 680.33MT (c) 550.34MT (d) 100.34MT Q70. What is the share of UG in total coal production of CIL ? (a) 11% (b) 10% (c) 12% (d) 13% Q71. What is the share of coking coal in total coal production of CIL ? (a) 11.4% (b) 10.4% (c) 9.4% (d) 8.4% Q72. What is the coal production target of CIL for 2011-12? (a) 452MT (b) 442MT (c) 432MT (d) 462MT By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
3
QUESTION BANK
Q73. How much coal was produced by CIL in 2010-11? (a) 431.33MT (b) 441.33MT (c) 451.33MT (d) 421.33MT Q74. What is the share of power sector in total coal off-take of CIL? (a) 70% (b) 75% (c) 80% (d) 90% Q75. When was the coal prices last revised by CIL ? (a) February 2011 (b) December 2010 (c) December 2009 (d) April 2011 Q76. What is the size of Steam Coal ? (a) 0 to 50mm (b) 25 to 50mm (c) 50 to 200mm & above (d) Unscreened coal of all sizes Q77. Which state has the largest coal reserves ? (a) Orissa (b) Jharkhand (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Chhatisgarh Q78. What is the share of coal in electricity generation of India ? (a) 69.25% (b) 79.25% (c) 89.25% (d) 59.25% Q79. Coal Exploration in India is done by………….. (a) Geological Survey of India (GSI) (b) Mineral Exploration Corporation Limited (MECL) (c) Central Mine Planning & Design Institute Limited (CMPDIL) (d) All of the above Q80. Which of the following is a type of Coke ? (a) Hard Coke (b) Soft Coke (c) Both (d) None Q81. What are the uses of coke ? (a) Cooking Fuel (b) Steel making (c) Both (d) None Q82. Coke can be made from which of the following type of Coal ? (a) Prime Coking Coal (b) Medium Coking Coal (c) Semi-Coking Coal (d) All Q83. Coal India Limited produces……………….. (a) Coal (b) Coke (c) Coal & Coke (d) Coal, Coke & Coal By-Products Q84. Which of the following is true about CIL-Coke ? (a) It is LTC Coke (b) It is Solid Smokeless Fuel (c) It is environment friendly (d) All of the above Q85. Which of the following is used in making steel ? (a) Hard Coke (b) Soft Coke (c) Coking Coal (d) All of the above Q86. Which of the following is the best quality coal ? (a) Peat (b) Lignite (c) Bituminous (d) Anthracite Q87. Dankuni Coal Complex(DCC) is under the administrative control of ……………. (a) CIL (b) ECL (c) BCCL (d) SECL Q88. What is the product of Dankuni Coal Complex (DCC) (a) Coke (b) Coal Tar (c) Coal Gas (d) All of the above Q89. From which coalfield in India Prime Coking Coal is produced ? (a) Jharia (b) Raniganj (c) Rajmahal (d) All of the above Q90. In which state of India Anthracite coal is found ? (a) Jahrkhand (b) J & K (c) West Bengal (d) All of the above ……………………………………………………………………………………….…………..…………… A N S W E R 01(a), 02.(c), 03(d), 04(a), 05(a), 06(d), 07(b), 08(a), 09(a), 10(a), 11(d), 12(a), 13(c), 14(a), 15(a), 16(a), 17(b), 18(d), 19(b), 20(a), 21(c), 22(a), 23(a), 24(c), 25(b), 26(d), 27(d), 28(a), 29(d), 30(c), 31(a), 32(c), 33(c), 34(d), 35(a), 36(d), 37(a), 38(a), 39(a), 40(c), 41(a), 42(c), 43(a), 44(b), 45(b), 46(a), 47(a), 48(c), 49(d), 50(a), 51(d), 52(a), 53(a), 54(a), 55(a), 56(d), 57(d), 58(d), 59(c), 60(d), 61(a), 62(c), 63(a), 64(d), 65(b), 66(a), 67(c), 68(a), 69(a), 70(b), 71(d), 72(a), 73(a), 74(c), 75(a), 76(c), 77(b), 78(a), 79(d), 80(c), 81(c), 82(d), 83(d), 84(d), 85(a), 86(d), 87(d), 88(d), 89(a), 90(b). …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…… Page By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
4
QUESTION BANK
(SECTION-II : Common Coal Cadre, CDA Rules, Leave Rules, NCWA-VIII, HRA etc) Q1. How many days of Special Leave is permissible as per CIL leave rules ? (a) 2 months (b) 4 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 month Q2. How many days of Casual Leave can be taken at a time ? (a) 5 days (b) 7 days (c) 4 days (d) 8 days Q3. How may days of Maternity Leave is admissible to the female executives ? (a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 90 days (d) 180 days Q4. How may days of Earned Leave is encashable at the time of retirement ? (a) 240 days (b) 280 days (c) 300 days (d) None of the above Q5. Special Disability Leave is granted for following reasons. (a) Disease arising out of employment (b) General disease (c) Injury while on duty (d) a & c Q6. How may days of special casual leave is granted for attending Seminar/conference by Union representative ? (a) 5 days (b) 8 days (c) 10 days (d) None Q7. How may days of Transit Leave is granted in case of change of station from one place to another ? (a) 8 days (b) 9 days (c) 6 days (d) None Q8. Minimum year of service required for eligibility of Study Leave. (a) 10 years (b) 5 years (c) 8 years (d) 2 years Q9. Nurses are give allowances at the rate of………….. (a) Rs.400/-pm (b) Rs.200/-pm (c) Rs.300/-pm (d) Rs.500/-pm Q10. The following Discipline is a sensitive discipline as per transfer policy of CIL (a) Security (b) Sales & Marketing (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above Q11. As per transfer policy, the executive belonging to sensitive posts is to be transferred on completion of………….. (a) 2 years (b) 4 years (c) 3 years (d) 5 years Q12. The period of salary revision in case of Executives is…………. (a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 8 years (d) 4 Q13. The non-practicing allowance is given at ………….. of basic to Executives of Medical discipline. (a) 20% (b) 17.5% (c) 30% (d) 10% Q14. The anniversary date of increment in case of Executives is………….. (a) Anniversary date of last promotion (b) 1st.September st (c) 1 .April (d) 1st.July Q15. The normal period of completion of cadre in a particular grade is……… (a) 5 years (b) 3 years (c) 7 years (d) 2 years Q16. The EER of an Executive can be assessed by Reporting officer if the Executive has worked under him for…………… (a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 4 months (d) 8 months Q17. The notice period in case of resignation of an Executive is………………….. (a) 2 months (b) 1 month (c) 3 months (d) 4 months Q18. If the date of birth of an Executive is 1st.January 1952,When will he superannuate ? (a) 31st.Dec 2011 (b) 1st.Jan 2012 (c) 31st.Jan 2012 (d) 1st.Dec 2011 Q19. Which of the following clause of CDA Rule relates to outside influence? (a) Clause 5.5 (b) Clause 5.7 (c) Clause 21 (d) Clause 10 Q20. The rate of subsistence allowance payable to an Executive for first 6 months is………………. of basic. (a) 75% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 100% Q21. Which of the following is a minor penalty ? (a) Withholding Increment (b) Lowering stage of pay (c) Suspension (d) Demotion Q22. An Executive can file Appeal before the Appellate Authority within …………of receipt of order of penalty. (a) 30 days (b) 15 days (c) 45 days (d) 7 days By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
5
QUESTION BANK
Q23. In case of Non-executive the total leave encashable at the time of retirement is……………. (a) 100 days (b) 120 days (c) 150 days (d) 140 days Q24. Under the Life Cover Scheme, what amount is paid to the dependent of the deceased ? (a) Rs.30,000/(b) Rs.50,000/(c) Rs.60,000/(d) Rs.40,000/Q25. What is the eligibility criteria for payment of gratuity ? (a) 5 years (b) 15 years (c) 10 years (d) 20 years Q26. For how many workers canteen is to maintained under the Mines Act ? (a) 500 (b) 300 (c) 250 (d) 350 Q27. What is the maximum limit of EL that can be encashed by an Executive in a calendar year ? (a) 30 days (b) 90 days (c) 60 days (d) 45 days Q28. What was the minimum wage per day of Daily Rated Employee under NCWA-VIII ? (a) Rs.359.46 (b) Rs.369.47 (c) Rs.345.34 (d) 379.46 Q29. The Management Trainees are entitled for which of the following leaves ? (a) EL, HPL & CL (b) CL & Sick Leave (c) EL & CL (d) CL Q30. How much HRA is given to a Non-Executive under NCWA-VIII ? (a) Rs.75/-pm (b) Rs.90/-pm (c) Rs.100/-pm (d) Rs.150/-pm Q31. What is the rate of Transport Subsidy ? (a) Rs.8.50/day (b) Rs.7.50/day (c) Rs.9.50/day (d) Rs.10.50/day Q32. Under Reservation Policy, what is the reservation for OBC ? (a) 27% (b) 22.50% (c) 15% (d) 7.50% Q33. How many days of quarantine leave is granted? (a) 28days (b) 20days (c) 14days (d) 7days Q34. How many days of special leave can be granted to an Executive in his entire service period ? (a) 2months (b) 4months (c) 6months (d) 8months Q35. As per the Gratuity Act, the declaration of nominee is given in…………..form ? (a) Form K (b) Form I (c) Form F (d) Form D Q36. Fallback Wages are applicable to…………………… (a) Daily Rated (b) Monthly Rated (c) Piece Rated (d) Contractual Workers Q37. Under which circumstances, Ex-gratia is given ? (a) Death due to illness (b) Accidental Death on Duty (c) Normal death (d) All of the above Q38. What is the maximum ceiling for payment of Gratuity ? (a) Rs.10 lakh (b) Rs.5 lakh (c) Rs.3.5 lakh (d) Rs.7.5 lakh Q39. What is PRP ? (a) Performance Related Pay (b) Profit Related Perks (c) Productivity Related Pay (d) Performance Related Payment Q40. Which of the following are placed in E-1 Grade ? (a) Management Trainees (b) Subordinate Engineers (c) Officers (d) All Q41. From which date gratuity has been revised to Rs.10 lakhs ? (a) 1st Jan.2007 (b) 1st July’ 2007 (c) 1st Jan.2009 (d) 1st July ‘2006 Q42. Recruitment in CIL is done by which of the following methods ? (a) Campus selection (b) All India Written Test (c) Departmental Selection (d) All Q43. What is EER ? (a) Executive Evaluation Report (b) Executive Enquiry Report (c) Enquiry Evaluation Report (d) Executive Establishment Report Q44. Merit-cum-Seniority is a criteria used for……………… in CIL (a) Pay Fixation (b) Transfer (c) Promotion (d) All of the above Q45. In case of death, the family of deceased Executive can retain company’s quarter for…………. (a) 3 months (b) 4 months (c) 6 months (d) 12 months Q46. An Executive working in Ranch (“Y” class City) will get HRA at the rate of……… of basic ? (a) 10% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 20% By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
6
QUESTION BANK
Q47. What does PBT stand for ? (a) Production By Tax (b) Production Before Tax (c) Profit Before Tax (d) Profit By Tax Q48. In Mining discipline, how much appointment is done through direct recruitment from outside ? (a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 40% (d) 25% Q49. What is the rate of payment of monetary compensation in case of Executives ? (a) Rs.4,500/-pm (b) Rs.6,000/-pm (c) Rs.9,000/-pm (d) Rs.12,000/-pm nd Q50. If the date of birth of an Executive is 2 .August 1952, when will he superannuate ? (a) 31st.August 2012 (b) 2nd.August 2012 st (c) 1 .August 2012 (d) 31st.July 2012 Q51. Which of the following is considered for calculation of Gratuity ? (a) Basic, DA, CFA (b) Basic, DA, NPA (c) Basic, DA (d) Basic Q52. Which of the following is a Major Penalty ? (a) Demotion (b) Suspension (c) Removal (d) All of the above Q53. Who will be chargesheet issuing authority for General Manager(Excavation) for minor penalty? (a) Chairman(CIL) (b) CMD (c) CVO (d) GM(P/EE) Q54. The period for revision of pay for Executives is………………… (a) 5 yrs. (b) 10 yrs. (c) 6 yrs. (d) 4 yrs. Q55.In case the delay in completing enquiry is due to the Executive concerned, his subsistence allowance will be……………… of basic? (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100% Q56. If an Executive avails CL, then his total absence from HQ should not exceed……… (a) 8 days (b) 6 days (c) 10 days (d) 12 days Q57. An Executive can apply for VRS if he has completed……… of service ? (a) 10 years (b) 20 years (c) 15 years (d) 25 years Q58. What is a PPO ? (a) Pension Payment Order (b) Performance Pay Order (c) Perks Pay Order (d) Production Purchase Order Q59. Under CMPS 1998, Disablement Pension is payable at the rate of…… of last 10 months average emoluments. (a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 75% Q60. The corpus of CMPS 1998 is……………. (a) 2% of notional basic & DA (b) one additional increment (c) 1.16% of CMPF & Govt. share (d) All Q61. Name the statutory form for keeping details of employees under the Mines Act (a) Form D (b) Form A (c) Form B (d) Form C Q62.SLW is a term related to………………….. (a) Grant of promotion (b) Grant of one increment before retirement (c) Transfer Grant of Employee (d) Grant of Stagnation Increment Q63.What is the maximum number of HPL that can be encashed at the time of retirement? (a) 180 days (b) 240 days (c) 300 days (d) 360 days Q64. Which of the following is the beginning of Disciplinary Proceedings ? (a) Receipt of Complaint (b) Start of Investigation (c) Suspension (d) Contemplation of disciplinary action Q65. An Executive can be dismissed from service by……………. (a) CMD (b) Director(Personnel)/CIL (c) Chairman/CIL (d) CGM(Personnel)/CIL Q66. What was the minimum guaranteed benefits under NCWA-VIII ? (a) 24% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 35% Q67. Which NCWA Agreement was of 4yrs & 6 months duration ? (a) NCWA-VI (b) NCWA-I (c) NCWA-IV (d) NCWA-V Q68. Which of the following Designation come under E-7 grade ? (a) Dy.GM (b) Chief Manager (c) Chief Medical Officer (d) All of the above By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
7
QUESTION BANK
Q69. Executive Director (Medical) comes under which grade ? (a) E-9 (b) E-8 (c) E-10 (d) E-7 Q70. Which is the highest grade in pay scales of Executives ? (a) E-9 (b) E-8 (c) E-10 (d) E-7 ……………………………………………………………………………………….…………..…………… A N S W E R 01(c), 02.(d), 03(d), 04(c), 05(d), 06(c), 07(c), 08(b), 09(b), 10(d), 11(c), 12(b), 13(b), 14(c), 15(b), 16(c), 17(c), 18(a), 19(c), 20(c), 21(a), 22(c), 23(d), 24(c), 25(a), 26(c), 27(c), 28(a), 29(b), 30(d), 31(b), 32(a), 33(b), 34(c), 35(c), 36(c), 37(b), 38(a), 39(a), 40(d), 41(a), 42d), 43(a), 44(c), 45(c), 46(d), 47(c), 48(a), 49(c), 50(a), 51(b), 52(d), 53(b), 54(b), 55(a), 56(c), 57(b), 58(a), 59(b), 60(d), 61(c), 62(b), 63(c), 64(d), 65(c), 66(a), 67(c), 68(d), 69(b), 70(a) ……………………………………………………………………………………..……………………..…… (SECTION-III : Coal Industry in India – A retrospect, Nationalisation of Coal Mines) Q1.Who initiated first commercial coal mining in India ? Ans.Warren Hastings at Raniganj (W.B.) in 1774. Q2.Who opened first Coal Mines in India and when ? Ans.Jhan Summer and Hitler of East India at Raniganj Coalfields on 11/08/1774. Q3.When was first underground Coal Mining started in India ? Ans.1815 Q4.Who was the first Indian entrepreneur in Coal Mining in India? Ans.Prince Dwarkanath Tagore, a relative of Rabindranath Tagore, CARR, Tagore & Co. in 1835 Q5.Which period was the first boom year of Indian Coal Industry & Why ? Ans 1907 & 1908 due to growth of JCF (Jharia Coalfields & completion of Grand Chord Line of East India Railway). Q6.When was first underground Coal Mining started in India ? Ans.1815 Q7.What was coal Production of India in 1942 & 1946? Ans.29 MT and 30 MT respectively. Q8. Write about NATIONALISATION OF INDIAN COAL MINES : Non Coking Coal Mines were nationalized in 31st Jan.1973 (effective from 01.05.1973) except captive mines of TISCO & IISCO. Accordingly, Coal Mines Authority Limited was established with HQr. at Kolkata. NCDC Mines also came in the ambit of CMAL. This was done by virtue of Coal Mines (taking over of Management ) Act, 1973 and Coal Mines Nationalization Act, 1973. This Act gives eligibility of Coal Mining in India. Nationalisation was done to meet the growing energy demand of the company, to conserve coal and to promote safety and welfare of the employees. Q9.When was Coal India Limited Formed ? Ans. In 1975 CIL was formed as holding company with 5 subsidiaries (BCCL, CCL, WCL, ECL & CMPDIL. Q10.When was SECL and NCL formed ? Ans .In 1985 NCL and SECLwere carved out of CCL & WCL respectively. Q11.When was MCL formed? Ans..In 1992, MCL was carved out of SECL to manage Talcher & IB Valley coalfields. Q-12. After the formation of CMAL, NCDC Mines were kept under which zone of CMAL? Ans. Central Zone Q13.What is NCDC? When was it setup and why ? Ans.National Coal Development Corporation Ltd.(NCDC) was the first Govt. of India Undertaking Coal Company. It was set up in 1956 with 11 Railway owned coal mines for planned development of Coal Industry. Q14.What was coal production at the beginning of Ist 5 Year Plan (1951-56) ? Ans. 33 Mt. Q15.What was coal production at the end of 2nd. 5 year Plan (1956-61) & 3rd. 5 year Plan (1961-66) ? By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
8
QUESTION BANK
Ans.Total : 55.6 MT, NCDC 8.05 MT (1956-56) and Total : 67.72 MT, NCDC : 9.6 MT (1961-66). Q16.What role did NCDC play in Indian Coal Industry ? Ans.NCDC Played pioneering role in Indian Coal Industry by way of introduction of a.Large Scale Mechanisation b. Use of Modern Scientific Technique. c. Conservation of Coal d. Foreign Collaboration with Poland & USSR. e. Opening new Mines in MP, Orissan & Maharasthra Q17.When was Coal Industry nationalised and why ? Ans During IVth 5 Yr. Plan (1969-74) Coal Industry was nationalised in 2 phases :a.) Management of Coking Coal Mines was taken over by Govt. of India on 17th Oct. 1971 &nationalisation was effective from 5th January, 1972. Bharat Coking Coal Limited was formed by virtue of Coking Coal Mines (Emergency provisions at 1971 and Coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act 1972. This Act gives eligibility of Coal Mining in India. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. (SECTION-IV : Categorisation of Coal, UHV, GCV,Grades of Coal etc.) Q1.Which Nomenclature is used for grading of non-coking coal ? (a) Alphabetical (b) Numerical (c) Apha-Numeric (d) Roman Q2.What is the basis for grading of Non-coking coal ? (a) Ash (b) Moisture (c) Calorific Value (d) All of the above Q3.Which is the methodology for gradation of Non-coking coal ? (a) UHV (b) GCV (c) Both (d) None Q4.Calorific value of coal means ? (a) Burning power of coal (b) Heating power of coal (b) Heat evolved by burning 1Kg coal (d) None of the above. Q5.UHV stands for ………… (a) Ultimate Heat Value (b) Useful Heat Value (c) Uniform Heat Value (d) Unilateral Heat Value Q6.The Empirical formula to derive UHV is ? (a) 8,900-138x(A+M) (b) 9,200-138x(M+A) (c) 8,900-140(A+M) (d) 7,70,-139(A+M) Q7.What is the disadvantage of UHV based coal gradation ? (a) Very easy to derive (b) It is not correct (c) It is formula based & not give correct value (d) All of the above Q8. Which of the following is the descending order of gradation of Non-coking coal ? (a) A,B,C,D,E (b) C,D,E,B,A (c) E,D,C,B,A (d) E,D,C,B,A Q9.GCV stands for ………… (a) Gross Calorific Value (b) Grim Calorific Value (c) Graceful Calorific Value (d) Great Calorific Value. Q10.What is the advantage of GCV based coal gradation ?. (a) It is very cumbersome (b) It is very simple (c) It does not require a lab (d) It is more correct Q11.What does long flame coal indicate ? (a) It has long flame on burning (b) It has bright flame on burning (c) It gives more heat (b) (d) It has more volatile matter By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
9
QUESTION BANK
Q12.The permissible limit of ash in washed coal as per MoEF guidelines is………… (a) Less than or equal to 34% (b) Less than 38% (c) Less than 40% (d) Less than 45% Q13.The ash content(%age) is ….................... in higher quality coal. (a) more (b) less (c) constant (d) variable Q14.What is the unit in which heat value of coal is expressed ? (a) K,Cal/Kg (b) Cal/Kg (c) Kcal/te (d) Cal/te Q15.What is a Bomb Calorimeter? (a) An instrument to detect a bomb (b) An instrument to measure heat value (c) A musical instrument (d) A gas instrument ……………………………………………………………………………………….…………..…………… A N S W E R 01(a), 02.(c), 03(c), 04(b), 05(b), 06(a), 07(c), 08(a), 09(a), 10(c), 11(d), 12(a), 13(b), 14(a), 15(b). ……………………………………………………………………………………..………………………… (SECTION-V : Mining Technology – OC & UG, Mining Methods, Mining Machinery-OC & UG) Q1. What should be the number of Workmen’s Inspector in a large UG mine? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Q2. Longwall mining method is best suitable for .. ? (a) Flat & moderately flat seam (b) Steeply inclined mine (c) Fractured & geologically disturbed seam (d) Seam with high capability index Q.3 Power pack is provided at Longwall face to give pressure to ….. (a) Powered support (b) Armored flexible conveyor (c) Double ended ranging drum sheave (d) Stage loader Q4. Over 90% of UG coal production in India comes from …. (a) Longwall method (b) Hydraulic Mining Method (c) Bord & Pillar Method (d) Blasting Gallery Method Q5. A road in a proper coal seam is called ? (a) Traveling road (b) Gallery (c) Drift (d) Haulage road Q6. The process that sends sand water mixture in UG coal depillaring district is called (a) Jigging operation (b) Granting separation operation (c) Stowing Method (d) Coal drawing operation Q7. Side discharge Loader (SDL) is a …… (a) Crawler mounted m/c (b) Tyre mounted m/c (c) Rail mounted m/c (d) Track mounted m/c Q8. Thick, regular & flat seam is extremely essential for … (a) Hydraulic Mining (b) Longwall Mining (c) Blasting Gallery (d) Bord & Pillar Q9. Which of the following equipment is very common for open casting/side casting? (a) Shovel (b) Dozer (c) Dragline (d) Payloader Q10. Name the machine which eliminates drilling, blasting in Open cast and has scope for selective mine ? (a) Dozer (b) Shovel (c) Dragline (d) Surface Continuous Miner Q11. Which of the following Excavator is suitable for 20-30 metres bench height in soft rock formation? (a) Dragline (b) Shovel (c) Payloader (d) Bucket Wheel Excavator Q12. Filling up of the void in OC mines is known as … (a) OB Removal (b) Trenching (c) Reclamation (d) Salvaging Q13. Flame Safety Lamp is used for testing …………. (a) CO (b) CO2 (c) CH4 (d) H2S By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
10
QUESTION BANK
Q14. In which state small deposits of Anthracite coal is found? (a) J&K (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Assam (d) Gujarat Q15. Which of the indigenous firm manufacture SDL & LHD in India? (a) Joy Mining Machinery Co (b) Atlas Copeo (c) Eimco Elecon (d) Tractors India Ltd Q16. Road Header is used to drive ……………….. (a) Single heading (b) Double heading (c) Triple heading (d) Multiple heading Q17. A building where explosives & detonators are stored is called (a) Sheller (b) Magazine (c) Store (d) House Q18. Which is best quality coking coal ? (a) Steel grade –I (b) Steel grade –II (c) Washery grade –I (d) Washery grade –IV Q19. Which is the best quality Non-cocking coal ? (a) G (b) D (c) C (d) A Q.20 What is true about Universal Drilling Machine (UDM) ? (a) It is crawler mounted (b) It can drill in any direction (c) It can drill blast holes (d) All of the above Q21. UDM can drill in which of the following direction? (a) Horizontal (b) Vertical (c) Inclined (d) All directions Q22. Which is a mine transport system (a) Rope Haulage (b) Locomotive Haulage (c) Shuttle Car (d) All of above Q23. What is EMP ? (a) Environment Management Plan (b) Environment Management Project (c) Environment Management Programme (d) Environment Mine Plan Q24. Coke can not be made from …………………..…. (a) Lignite (b) Anthracite Coal (c) Sub-bituminous Coal (d) All Q25. What are the products of a coal washing ? (a) Washed Coal (b) Middling (c) Rejects (d) All Q26. Which of the following is not correct for Anthracite coal? (a) Small deposits in India is found in J&K (b) It is best quality coal (c) Best coke can be made from this coal (d) All of the above Q27. What is correct about Bituminous coal? (a) Coke can be made from this coal (b) It can be used as domestic fuel (c) It can be used in thermal power plant (d) All of the above Q28. Ultimate Analysis of coal gives percentage of…………………… present in coal. (a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen (c) Sulphur (d) All of the above Q29. Proximate Analysis of coal gives percentage (by weight of) ………… present in coal. (a) Ash (b) Volatile Matter (c) Fixed Carbon (d) All of the above Q30. Name the type of coke manufactured by heating coking coal at 650 degree Celsius temperature in absence of oxygen ? (a) Soft Coke (b) LTC Coke/CIL Coke (c) Both (d) Hard Coke Q31. Which of the following gases are common in Under Ground Mines ? (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Carbon Dioxide (d) All of the above Q32. What is the common name for Methane in Under Ground Coal Mines ? (a) Firedamp (b) Stinkdamp (c) Blackdamp (d) Whitedamp Q33.In which mine was fully mechanized Longwall Face with Powered Support was first introduced in India ? (a) Moonidih (BCCL) (b) Dhemo Main Colliery (ECL) (c) Pathakhera No.2 (WCL) (d) Ramagundam GDK (SCCL) Q34. Hard Coke is made by heating coking coal at …………….. Celsius temperature in absence of oxygen ? (a) 500 degree C (b) 100 degree C (c) 650 degree C (d) 1,000 – 1,100 degreeC By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
11
QUESTION BANK
Q35. Shortwall Mining is a variant of……………… (a) Bord & Pillar (b) Longwall (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ANSWER 1(c), 2(a), 3(a), 4(c), 5(b), 6(c), 7(a), 8(c), 9(c), 10(d), 11(d), 12(c), 13(c), 14(a), 15(c), 16(a), 17(b), 18(a), 19(d), 20(d), 21(d), 22(d), 23(a), 24(d), 25(d), 26(c), 27(d), 28(d), 29(d), 30(c), 31(d), 32(a), 33(a), 34(d), 35(c). ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. (SECTION-VI : Basic Computer Skills, MS Office, Uses of Internet, E-Mail, Fax etc.) Q1. The First Generation computers were built using……………………… (a) Integrated Circuits (b) Vacuum Tubes (c) Transistors (d) Vacuum Tubes & Transistors Q2. Present day computers are built using……………………. (a) Integrated Circuits (b) Vacuum Tubes (c) Transistors (d) Transistors & Integrated Circuits Q3. Which one of the following computers is classified under portable Computer ? (a) Mini computer (b) Mainframe computer (c) Super computer (d) Laptop computer Q4. The Personal Computer is classified as……………. (a) Mini-Computer (b) Mainframe Computer (c) Super Computer (d) Micro-Computer Q5. Which of the following computers is compact in size & light weight ? (a) Mini computer (b) Mainframe computer (c) Laptop Computer (d) Personal computer Q6. What is CPU ? (a) Central Power Unit (b) Central Printing Unit (c) Central Processing Unit (d) Computer Power Unit Q7. The physical electronic parts of a Computer system is called………….. (a) Hardware (b) Software (c) Firmware (d) System Software Q8. Which of the following input device is used for most of the computer games & for some business works? (a) Light Pen (b) Mouse (c) Joystick (d) Keyboard Q9. DOS stands for ……………… (a) Direct Operating System (b) Double Operating System (c) Disk Operating System (d) Desk Operating System Q10. Which of the following computers has high processing speed ? (a) Mainframe Computer (b) Super Computer (c) Mini Computer (d) Micro Computer Q11. The brain of computer is a small chip called …………….. (a) RAM chip (b) ROM chip (c) Microprocessor Chip (d) Integrated circuit chip Q12. What is RAM ? (a) Random Access Memory (b) Random Action Memory (c) Read Act Memory (d) Read Access Memory Q13. Which of the following is an utility software ? (a) MS Excel (b) MS Word (c) MS Window95 (d) Antivirus Q14. Computer server is used for …….. (a) Data & source sharing (b) Only data sharing (c) Only source sharing (d) None Q15. What command is used in DOS to show date ? (a) Run date (b) Show date (c) Date (d) View date Q16. Modern monitors are ………………… (a) SGA Monitor (b) VGA Monitor (c) SVGA Monitors (d) IGA Monitors Q17. The number of bits per second a modem can send or receive data is……………. (a) Transmission rate (b) Modem speed (c) Data Speed (d) Data rate Q18. While working in windows, the back side screen is called ……………. (a) Desktop (b) Front screen (c) Desk screen (d) Screen view By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
12
QUESTION BANK
Q19. Which of the following is a high speed non-impact printer ? (a) Inkjet Printer (b) Dot Matrix Printer (c) Laser Printer (d) Line Printer Q20. Which of the following is not an Input device ? (a) VDU (Monitor) (b) Keyboard (c) Mouse (d) Joystick Q21. The process of saving all settings & file in windows 97/98 before closing the computer is……… (a) Close down (b) Shut down (c) Turn down (d) Switch off Q22. A multimedia computer needs………….. (a) Personal computer (b) CD ROM drive (c) Sound card & speaker (d) All Q23. LAN stands for …………………… (a) Local Area Network (b) Land Area Network (c) Low Area Network (d) None Q24. The information stored in a disk is kept in …………… (a) Files (b) Directory (c) Sub-directory (d) None of the above Q25. What is PBXs ? (a) Private Branch Exchanges (b) Public Branch Exchanges (c) Personal Branch Exchanges (d) Private Band Exchanges Q26. Super computers are designed to process……….... (a) Accounting applications (b) Accounting and spread sheet applications. (c) Complex scientific applications (d) Design applications Q27. Computer system that is characterized by its very large size & very high processing speeds is called ………………….… (a) Mainframe computer (b) Super computer (c) Mini computer (d) Micro-computer Q28. A single user-oriented and general purpose micro computer is called……… (a) Computer (b) Personal computer (c) Personnel computer (d) General purpose computer Q29. The present day computers are… (a) First generation computers (b) Second generation computers (c) Third generation computers (d) Fourth generation computers Q30. Touch pad which is mostly used in Laptop Computer is an (a) Output device (b) Input device (c) Output & input device (d) Mouse pad Q31. SVGA stands for ……………….. (a) Super Video General Array (b) Super Very High Graphics Array (c) Super Video Good Array (d) Super Video Graphics Array Q32. An input device used extensively in may computer games as well as in certain professional applications is .. (a) Light Pen (b) Mouse (c) Joystick (d) Keyboard Q33. RAM is a ……………… (a) Volatile Memory (b) Non Volatile Memory (c) Secondary Memory (d) Permanent Memory Q34. Which one of the following is not a secondary memory? (a) RAM (b) HDD (c) CD ROM (d) FDD Q35. FDD stands for (a) Flexible Disk Drive (b) Format Disk Drive (c) Feed Disk Drive (d) Floppy Disk Drive Q36. A terminal built exactly like another terminal is called as (a) Dumb Terminal (b) Intelligent Terminal (c) Stand alone System (d) Remote computer Q37. A combination of keyboard and screen that has no local computing power, and used to input information to a mini computer or mainframe computer is called…… (a) Dumb Terminal (b) Intelligent Terminal (c) Stand along system (d) Remote Computer Q38. The capacity of 3-1/2” FDD is………………….. (a) 720 KB (b) 1.2 MB (c) 1.0 MB (d) 1.44 MB Q39. Which one of the following is an output device? (a) CPU (b) Mouse (c) Inkjet printer (d) Light Pen Q40. 1 MB is equal to………….... (a) 1,024 Bytes x 1,024 Bytes (b) 1,000 Bytes x 1,000 Bytes (c) 1 MB X 1 KB (d) None By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
13
QUESTION BANK
Q41. 64 KB is equal to.. (a) 64 times 1,000 (b) 64 times 1,024 (c) 64 times 1 KB (d) 64 times 100 Q42. ROM stands for………... (a) Random Order Memory (b) Read Only Memory (c) Random Only Memory (d) Read Out Memory Q43. The operating System which can perform multitasking, supports plug and play and allows long file name is…………………….. (a) Windows 3.1 (b) Windows 95/98 (c) DOS (d) PC DOS Q44. DOS is a software required for … (a)Interaction with the computer by the user and access peripheral devices. (b)To carry out diagnosis of computer system (c)To switch on the computer (d) To shut down the computer Q45.An Operating System that supports more than one simultaneous user is…………… (a) Windows (b) UNIX (c) DOS (d) PC DOS Q46. The command to clear the screen in DOS is ……………..…. (a) Erase (b) Clear (c) Cls (d) Rub Q47. The command to delete a file in DOS is . . .. (a) Del (b) Delete `(c) Cut (d) Rub Q48. The command to make directory in DOS is ……….…. (a) Create (b) Mkdir (c) Make (d) Create Directory Q49. The Disk Operating system is used for …. (a) File Management (b) Arithmetic Calculations (c) Creating Drawings (d) Creating Graphs Q50. A batch file located in the root directory of start up disk which runs automatically every time the computer is started is called…………. (a) Cofig.sys (b) Autoexec.bat (c) Auto.exec (d) Dos.exe Q51. Any software stored in a form of read only memory is called………….. (a) Hardware (b) Software (c) Firmware (d) System Software Q52. A magnetic device which reads data sequentially is … (a) Magnetic tape (b) Hard disk (c) Floppy disk (d) CD ROM Q53. DEL *.PRG command in DOS deletes…………… (a) All the files (b) All files starting with PRG (c) All the files with extension PRG (d) All files with extension PRG in all directories Q54. Which one of the following is a correct file name in DOS? (a) I-ventory (b) I_vent (c) I ventory (d) I n v e n t o r y Q55. Windows Operating System controls … (a) All parts of the computer (b) Hard disk & keyboard only (c) Hard disk, keyboard & monitor only (d) Mouse & monitor only Q56. A write protected disk allows to……….. … (a) Copy a file (b) Delete all the files (c) To read a file without modification (d) To read & overwrite a file Q57. The best surface to roll the mouse is… (a) Table top (b) Mouse pad (c) Desk top (b) Book top Q58. A program intended to damage the computer system without user knowledge or permission is called………… (a) Virus (b) O/S Software (c) Application software (d) Utility Software Q59. A software that removes and destroys computer virus is called … (a) Driver software (b) application software (c) O/S software (d) Anti virus software Q60. The most effective way to protect computer from virus infections is………….. (a) Shut off the computer (b) Remove floppy disk drive (c) Run Anti-virus program periodically (d) Disconnect the computer from Network Q61. Unauthorised access to the computer can be prevented by introducing………… (a) Password (b) Virus software (c) Anti virus software (d) User software By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
14
QUESTION BANK
Q62. The replacement for MS DOS from Microsoft Corporation is…. …. (a) XENIX OS (b) LINUX (c) UNIX OS (d) MS WINDOWS Q63. System commands are commands by which…….. (a)Computers communicate (b)Programmers communicate with OS of the computer (c)The Operators enter date (d)Programmers create alternative solutions. Q64. A language used directly by the computer is………….... (a) English language (b) High level language (c) Machine language (d) Low level language Q65. A 8 bit unit is called a (a) Data set (b) Byte (c) KB (d) MB Q66. A Memory chip that is programmed at the time of its manufacture is known as… (a) RAM Chip (b) Microprocessor chip (c) Dynamic RAM chip (d) ROM Chip Q67. Which one of the following is an Optical Storage disk ? (a) Floppy disk (b) Hard disk (c) CD-ROM (d) None of the above Q68. The cheapest & fastest mode of sending written communication to any part of the world is……………………… (a) Telex (b) E-mail (c) Fax (d) None of the above Q69. WWW stands for ………………… (a) World Wild Web (b) World Write Web (c) Word Wide Web (d) World Wide Web Q70. E-mail stands for (a) Economic Mail (b) Electronic Mail (c) Electrical Mail (d) None Q71. The device which allows a computer to transmit and receive information over the telephone line is ……….…. (a) Modem (b) Trans-receiver (c) Transmitter (d) Wireless Q72. The Internet connection can be established with ………... (a)Computer system only (b)Computer system + Modem (c)Computer System + Modem + Telephone line (d)Computer System + Modem+Telephone line + Software for Internet access Q73. Which one of the following is correct E-mail address? (a) [email protected] (b)@abc,ntw.org. (c) ntw.org.abc (d)abc.ntw.org@ Q74. A system that lets computers all over the world talk to each other is called……… (a) Internet (b) LAN (c) TAN (d) WAN Q75. Modem stands for ………….. (a) Modulation device (b) Moderator device (c) Modulation-Demodulation device (d) Demodulation device Q76. Local Area Networks are communication systems that are used to link ………… (a) terminals, computes & other devices located within a compact area (b) terminals, computers and other devices located across many cities (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above Q77. A interconnection of computer systems and/or peripheral devices at dispersed locations that exchange data is called…………..… (a) Data communication (b) Data storing (c) Telephone exchange (d) Network Q78. A general term to describe the transmission of messages by the use of computer system & telecommunications facilities is known as……………… (a) Mail transfer (b) Electronic Mail Transfer (c) Message Transmission (d) Message Delivery Q79. A device responsible for allowing a communication between a group of Personal Computers to each other is called…………… (a) USB Device (b) Data Card (c) Network Interface Card (d) Device Card Q80. A modem card that plugs into a slot inside the computer is called……….. (a) Internal modem (b) External modem (c) USB Modem (d) None of the above By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
15
QUESTION BANK
Q81. Multimedia is ………….… (a) An integration of voice & text (b) An integration of voice, text and graphics (c)An integration of voice, text, graphics & animation (d) an integration of graphics and text Q82. DTP stands for ………..…. (a) Disk Top Publishing (b) Desk Top Printing (c) Desk Top Publisher (d) Desk Top Printer Q.83. Advice used to produce humanly readable computer output is called as … (a) Hard Disk (b) Printer (c) Floppy Disk (d) computer paper Q84. A scanner is………………….… (a) An optical device (b) An optical device which works like a photocopier (c) An optical device used for cutting & pasting images (d) An optical device used to digitize images and store it on a disk Q85. A device which provides a good surge suppresser and adds features such as battery backup and power conditioning is called……….. (a) SMPS (b) Inverter (c) Rectifier (d) UPS Q86. The facts and figures that are currently being used for decision making is called (a) Data (b) Information (c) MIS (d) Figures Q87. PPM stands for …. (a) Page Policy Matter (b) Page per Minute (c) Page Paper Minute (d) None Q88. A file with extension .doc represents a ………..… (a) Spreadsheet file (b) Graphic file (c) Document file (d) Power Point file Q89. All executable files in DOS should have……… as file extension. (a) .bat (b) .exe (c) .com (d) .sys Q90. What does “http” written with website address stand for ? (a) hyper text transfer protocol (b) high text transmission protocol (c) hyper text transfer pact (d) high text transmission programme ………………………………………………………………….…………………………..…………… A N S W E R 01(b), 02(a), 03(d), 04(d), 05(c), 06(c), 07(a), 08(c), 09(c), 10(b), 11(c), 12(a), 13(d), 14(a), 15(c), 16(c), 17(b), 18(a), 19(c), 20(a), 21(b), 22(d), 23(a), 24(a), 25(a), 26(c), 27(b), 28(b), 29(d), 30(b), 31(d), 32(c), 33(a), 34(a), 35(d), 36(b), 37(a), 38(d), 39(c), 40(a), 41(b), 42(b), 43(b), 44(a), 45(b), 46(b), 47(a), 48(b), 49(a), 50(b), 51(d), 52(a), 53(c), 54(b), 55(a), 56(c), 57(b), 58(a), 59(d), 60(c), 61(a), 62(d), 63(b), 64(c), 65(b), 66(d), 67(c), 68(b), 69(d), 70(b), 71(a), 72(d), 73(a), 74(a), 75(c), 76(a), 77(d), 78(b), 79(c), 80(a), 81(c), 82(c), 83(b), 84(d), 85(d), 86(a), 87(b), 88(c), 89(b), 90(a). ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… (SECTION-VII : PERSONNEL/HR : Working Conditions, Human Relations & Trade Unions) Q1. According to the revised and amended Indian Factories Act, the hours of work including overtime shall not exceed more than ………….. hours per week (a) 48 (b) 56 (c) 60 (d) 72 Q2. The Indian Factories Act prescribes that a woman worker can work in a factory between………. (a) 6 A.M. and 6 P.M. (b) 7 A.M. and 6 P.M. (c) 6 A.M. and 7 P.M. (d) 7 A.M. and 7P.M. Q3. The Indian Factories Act prohibits a child worker to work for more than ……… hours per day (a) 6 (b) 6 ½ (c) 5 ½ (d) 4 ½ Q4. The Factories Act is normally applicable to any establishment wherein ……….. or more workers are employed and wherein a manufacturing process is carried on with the aid of power. (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25 Q5. According to the Factories Act, factories employing ………… or more workers have to appoint Labour Welfare Officers. (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 700 By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
16 2
QUESTION BANK
Q6. According to Factories Act, factories employing over ………… women workers have to provide crèches. (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40 Q7. Chapter IV of Factories Act deals with……………….: (a) Safety (b) Health (c) Welfare (d) Annual leave with wages Q8. According to the Factories Act, a worker who has worked for at least ……… days during a calendar year is entitled to leave with wages in the subsequent year (a) 200 (b) 240 (c) 280 (d) 300 Q9. As per the Factories Act, the period of work of an adult worker in a factory shall be so arranged that inclusive of his intervals for rest, they shall not spread for more than ……… hours in a day (a) 9 ½ (b) 10 (c) 10 ½ (d) 11 Q10. The Factories Act was amended in 1987 and chapter IV-A relating to ………… was added (a) Working hours of adults (b) Employment of young persons (c) Special provisions (d) Hazardous processes Q11. The Workmen’s Compensation Act came in force on (a) July 1, 1923 (b) December 1, 1923 (c) July 1, 1924 (d) December 1, 1924 Q12. The Workmen’s Compensation Act is not applicable to……………………. (a) persons whose employment is of casual nature (b) persons serving in armed forces (c) workers covered by Employees’ State Insurance Act (d) all of the above Q13. The Workmen’s Compensation Act provides compensation in case of…………………… (a) Disablement (b) Funeral expenses (c) Maternity expenses (d) Sickness Q14. According to the Workmen’s Compensation Act as amended in 1995, the maximum amount of compensation for death may go upto…………………………. (a) Rs. 2.28 lakhs (b) Rs. 2.74 lakhs (c) Rs. 3.28 lakhs (d) Rs. 3.74 lakhs Q15. The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 applies to all non -seasonal factories using power and employing ………… or more persons (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25 Q16. Under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, the maximum duration of the sickness benefit is …………… days in two consecutive benefit periods. (a) 60 (b) 61 (c) 90 (d) 91 Q17. Under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, the insured person is paid ……… during the maternity benefit period. (a) half the wages (b) three-fourth wages (c) full wages (d) 25 % more than the full wages Q18. According to the ESI Act, the period of maternity benefit payable is for…………….. (a) 36 weeks (b) 12 weeks `(c) 18 weeks (d) 24 weeks Q19. The Industrial Employment [Standing Orders] Act is applicable to industrial establishments where in ………… or more workers are employed. (a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 150 Q20. Ordinarily, the limit prescribed for deduction from wages of a person under the Payment of Wages Act, in a wage period is ………. Percent of wages. (a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 60 Q21. Which one of the following is not among the main provisions of the Payment of Wages Act ? (a) Fixation of wage periods (b) Deductions which can be made from wages (c) Dependent’s benefits (d) Time of payment of wages Q22. According to the Payment of Wages Act, a discharged worker must be paid before the expiry of the ……………… day from the day on which his employment is terminated. (a) first (b) second (c) third (d) fourth By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
17
QUESTION BANK
Q23. An adolescent is a person who has completed……of age. (a) 14th.but not 18th. Year (b) 15th.but not 18th. Year (c16th.but not 18th. Year (d) 17th.but not 18th. year Q24. A child means a person who has completed……….. years of age. (a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 12 Q25. The Minimum Wages Act provides for review and revision of minimum wages after suitable intervals not exceeding…………………………….: (a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years Q26. Under the Minimum Wages Act, a normal working day means…………………. (a) 8 hrs. in case of an adult & 4 ½ hrs. in case of a child (b) 9 hrs. in case of an adult & 5 hrs. in case of a child (c) 9 hrs. in case of an adult & 4 ½ hrsd. in case of a child (d) 8 ½ hrs. in case of an adult & 4 ½ hrs. in case of a child Q27. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, Works Committees have to be constituted in undertakings employing ……………….. or more workers. (a) 100 (b) 75 (c) 50 (d) 20 Q28. Which of the following is not a provision under the Industrial Disputes Act ? (a) Strikes and lock-outs (b) Lay-off and retrenchment (c) Annual leave with wages (d) Works committees Q29. Whish of the following is not a part of the adjudication machinery under the Industrial Disputes Act ? (a) National Tribunals (b) Industrial Tribunals (c) Labour courts (d) High courts Q30. What is the length of the qualifying service in case of a worker working undergtound so as to be entitled for lay-off compensation ? (a) 120 days (b) 180 days (c) 190 days (d) 240 days Q31. What is the length of the qualifying service in case of a worker working other than below ground so as to be entitled for lay-off compensation ? (a) 120 days (b) 180 days (c) 190 days (d) 240 days Q32. The retrenched worker has to be paid compensation at the rate of ……………… days average pay for every completed year of service. (a) 7 days (b) 15 days (c) 21 days (d) 30 days Q33. In which case workers are not entitled for lay-off compensation? (a) Workers working in factory where the work is of intermittent character. (b) Workers working in factory where the work is of seasonal character. (c) Badli workers (d) All of the above Q34. Which one of the following is not among the main provisions of the Contract Labour [Regulation and Abolition] Act, 1970 ? (a) Setting up of advisory boards (b) Registration of establishments (c) Welfare & health of contract labour (d) Levy of fines Q35. The object of the Contract Labour [Regulation and Abolition] Act, 1970 is : (a) Regulate employment of contract labour (b) abolition of contract labour in certain circumstances (c) both of the above (d) none of the above Q36. Under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, the employer has to make contribution ………… employee’s contribution. (a) 1/2 that of (b) ¾ that of (c) equal to that of (d) 1 – ½ that of Q37. The Fund for the Employees’ Family Pension Scheme is constituted by transfer of a portion of employees’ share of provident fund representing ………. Percent of his pay…………… (a) 1 (b) 1 – 1/6 (c) 1 -1/3 (d) 1 – ½ Q38. Which one of the following statements relating to the Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme is wrong ? By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
18
QUESTION BANK
(a) The employee has to make a contribution to this scheme. (b) The scheme is applicable in the event of death of the employee (c) The scheme came into force on 1st August 1976 (d) The scheme provides for payment of an additional amount. Q39. What is the minimum number of members required to form a trade union ? (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 11 Q40. The Trade Union Act 1926 requires that at least ……………… of the total number of office bearers of a Registered Trade Union must be persons actually engaged in the Industry to which the union belongs. (a) one third (b) one fourth (c) half (d) full ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… AN S W E R 01(c), 02(c), 03(d), 04(a), 05(b), 06(c), 07(a), 08(b), 09(c), 10(d), 11(c), 12(d), 13(a), 14(a), 15(a), 16(d), 17(c), 18(d), 19(c), 20(c), 21(c), 22(b), 23(a), 24(b), 25(c), 26(c), 27(a), 28(c), 29(d), 30(c), 31(d), 32(b), 33(b), 34(d), 35(c), 36(c), 37(b), 38(a), 39(c), 40(c). ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… (SECTION-VIII : Right to Information Act 2005) Q1. Under RTI, information who be can sought from…………………. (a) Private authority (b) Public authority (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above Q2. Under RTI, who can get information? (a) Indian citizens (b) Foreigners (c) Both (a) and(b) (d) none of the above Q3. Information includes ……… (a) records, documents, menus (b) e-mails, logbooks (c) samples, models (d) all of the above Q4. Right to Information includes …….. (a) documents, records etc. (b) inspection of work (c) taking samples of materials (d) all of the above Q5. Information can be sought in which of the following form? (a) print outs/photo copies (b) diskettes and floppies (c) video cassettes (d) all the above Q6. RTI Act gives right to information to ………… (a) corporations (b) associations (c) companies (d) individuals Q7. Which section of RTI deals with exemption from disclosure of information? (a) Section 8(1) (b) Section 10(1) (c) Section 11(1) (d) Section 12(1) Q8. Information exempted from disclosure ceases to be exempted after lapse of ………years. (a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) 25 years Q9. For seeking information under RTI, a fee of Rs. ………….. is required to be deposited. (a) Rs. 15 (b) Rs. 10 (c) Rs. 5 (d) Rs. 20 Q10. RTI fee can be deposited in the form of …….. (a) Cash (b) Postal Order (c) Demand Draft (d) All of the above Q11. How much charge is applicable for getting print out/photocopy of documents (A-4 size) ? (a) Rs.1/- per page (b) Rs.1.50/- per page (c) Rs.2.0/- per page (d) Rs.2.50/ per page Q12. Which of the following statement about RTI is incorrect? (a) No reason is required for getting information. (b) No prescribed format for getting information. (c) No justification is required. (d) None of the above. Q13. RTI fee of Rs. 10 is exempted for……………………… (a) SC/ST (b) BPL (c) Poor (d) All of the above Q14. Under RTI CPIO has to provide information within …………. days of receipt of application. (a) 10 days (b) 20 days (c) 30 days (d) 25 days Q15. In case of life or liberty of a person, information shall be provided within ………….. of the receipt of request. (a) 24 hours (b) 48 hours (c) 36 hours (d) 72 hours Q16. If a person is not satisfied with the order of Appellate authority, he can seek second appeal with………… By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
19
QUESTION BANK
(a) CPIO (b) Appellate authority (c) CIC (d) none of the above Q17. How much penalty can be imposed on CPIO by CIC for delay in supply of information? (a)Rs.100/- per day (b) Rs.200/- per day (c) Rs.250/- per day (d) Rs.300/- per day Q18. What is the maximum amount of penalty that can be imposed on CPI0? (a)Rs.20,000 (b) Rs.25,000 (c) Rs.30,000 (d) Rs.50,000 Q19. A person not satisfied with CIC order can appeal in ………… (a)Supreme Court (b) High Court (c) Lower Court (d) None of the above Q20. Office of Central Vigilance Commission is located at ……….. (a)Kolkata (b) New Delhi (c) Chennai (d) Mumbai Q21. When was the RTI Act enacted? (a) June 2005 (b) June 2004 (c) June 2006 (d) June 2003 Q22. The RTI Act is applicable to whole of India except the state of ………………………… (a) Sikkim (b) Jammu & Kashmir (c) Goa (d) Andaman & Nicobar islands Q23. What is CPIO? (a) Central Public Indian Officer (b) Central Private Indian Officer (c) Central Public Information Officer (d) Central Public India Office Q24. Who appoints Chief Information Commissioner? (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Supreme Court (d) Parliament 25. What does CIC mean? (a) Central Information Commission (b) Chief Information Commissioner (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Q26. Appeal to Appellate Authority can be made within ………… days from the date of receipt of reply from CPIO? (a) 15 days (b) 20 days (c) 45 days (d) 30 days Q27. A second appeal can be made within …………. days of receipt of order from Appellate Authority? (a) 90 days (b) 45 days (c) 30 days (d) 60 days Q28. The decision of CIC can be challenged in ……. (a) Supreme Court (b) High Court (c) International Court of Justice (d) None of the above Q29. On which organizations RTI Act is not applicable? (a) Intelligence (b) Security (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Q30. The list of Intelligence and Security organization exempted from RTI Act 2005 is given in …………… schedule of the Act. (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… ANSWER 01(b), 02(a), 03(d), 04(d), 05(d), 06(d), 07(a), 08(c), 09(b), 10(d), 11(c), 12(d), 13(b), 14(c), 15(b), 16(c), 17(c), 18(b), 19(d), 20(b), 21(a), 22(b), 23(c), 24(a), 25(c), 26(d), 27(a), 28(d), 29(c), 30(b). ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… (SEXCTION-IX : Revision Questions) Q1. What is the basic objective of RTI Act? (a) To empower citizens (b) To promote transparency & accountability (c) To contain corruption (d) All of the above Q2. Which of the following is not a information under RTI Act? (a)e-mails (b) press releases (c) log books (d) none of the above Q3. The coal mines of NEC are spread over the state of …… (a) Assam (b) Meghalaya (c) Assam & Meghalaya (d) none of the above Q4. CIL produces ……….. (a)Raw & washed coal (b) soft & hard coke (c) coal gas (d) all of the above Q5. Director ( Technical ) of CIL controls …………… (a)Coal videsh (b) New initiative (c) NEC (d) All of the above By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
20
QUESTION BANK
Q6. CIL is a ……………. Company (a)Schedule A (b) Schedule B (c) Schedule C (d) Schedule D Q7. What is the share of wages in cost in cost of production of CIL? (a)30% (b) 40% (c) 35% (d) 50% Q8. Pension under CMPS 1998 includes ………………… (a)Superannuation pension (b) Disablement pension (c) Widower pension (d) All of the above Q9. What is the rate of annual increment under NCWA VIII? (a)2% (b) 3% (c) 4% (d) 5% Q10. What is the Ex-gratia in case of death/permanent disablement w.e.f 1.1.2009? (a)Rs.30,000 (b) Rs.35,000 (c) Rs.45,000 (d) Rs.40,000 Q11. When was shares of CIL listed in major stock exchanges in India? (a)4th Nov 2010 (b) 4th Oct 2010 (c) 4th Dec 2010 (d) 4th Jan 2010 Q12. Which subsidiary of CIL had largest closing stock of raw coal as on 31.03.2011? (a)CCL (b) MCL (c) SECL (d) ECL Q13. Which state has reserves of prime coking coal in India? (a)Jharkhand (b) West Bengal (c) Maharashtra (d) All of the above Q14. Which coalfield has reserves of prime coking coal? (a)Raniganj (b) Rajmahal (c) Jharia (d) All of the above Q15. Which subsidiary produces prime coking coal? (a)ECL (b) BCCL (c) WCL (d) All of the above Q16. Which state has reserves of Anthracite coal? (a)Jammu & Kashmir (b) Jharkhand (c) Assam (d) All of the above Q17. What is the range of percentage of marks for excellent rating in EER ? (a)85% - 100% (b) 80% - 100% (c) 75% - 100% (d) 90% - 100% Q18. Third level review of EER is done in case of …………. (a)Excellent grading (b) Inadequate grading st nd (c) Difference in opinion between 1 & 2 level review (d) All of the above Q19. Who is the final reviewing authority for EER and E-4 & E-5 officer? (a)Director (b) CMD (c) Chairman CIL (d) CGM/GM Q20. The rate of PRP for E-1 to E-3 executives is …………… (a)50 % of basic (b) 40% of basic (c) 30% of basic (d) 60% of basic Q21. What is the rate of Coalfield Allowance (CFA)? (a)4% (b) 3% (c) 6% (d) 10% Q22. In which Underground mine of SECL, shortwall mining is done? (a)Balrampur (b) New Kumda (c) Rajendra (d) Kumda Q23. Which was the 8th. paid holiday to be introduced from NCWA- III? (a)Miners day (b) Republic day (c) Independence day (d) Gandhi jayanti Q24. In case of non-executives, how many days of EL & SL can be accumulated? (a)120 & 100 days (b) 80 & 70 days (c) 140 &110 days (d) 150 &120 days Q25. Representatives from which of the following companies are included in NCWA VIII? (a)SCCL (b) TISCO (c) ICML (d) All of the above Q26. How much rebate is admissible under section 80 C? (a)Rs. 1,00,000 (b) Rs. 1,20,000 (c) Rs. 90,000 (d) Rs. 1,50,000 Q27. How much tax liability will be there if net taxable income is Rs. 1,60,000? (a)0% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 30% Q28. Tax rate for income exceeding over Rs. 8 lakh is …………… (a)10% (b) 30% (c) 20% (d) 40% Q29. What is TDS? (a)Total Deduction from Salary (b) Tax Deduction at Source (c) Tax Deduction from Salary (d) Total Deduction at Source Q30. What is the income slab for 20% tax rate? (a)5 to 8 lakhs (b) 1.6/1.9 to 5 lakhs (c) more than 8 lakhs (d) 2 to 5 lakhs By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
21
QUESTION BANK
Q31. Which of the following are included under the section 80 C? (a)LIC premium (b) Child education (c) PPF (d) All of the above Q32. Section 80 CCC deals with ……………… (a)Pension fund (b) Infrastructure sector (c) Disablement (d) None of the above Q33. How much rebate amount is admissible for investment in infrastructure sector? (a)Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 30,000 (c) Rs. 20,000 (d) Rs. 40,000 Q34. Which subsidiary of CIL had made highest Profit Before Tax (PBT) during 2010-11? (a)NCL (b) SECL (c) MCL (d) CCL Q35. In addition to rebate of Rs.1 lakh under Section 80C, Rs.20,000 extra rebate under Infrastructure Sector has been introduced under which section of Income Tax ? (a) Section 80CCC (b) Section 80CCF (c) Section 80CCD (d) Section 80DD Q36. What is JBCCI? (a) Joint Bipartite Committee for Coal Industry (b) Joint Bipartite Coal Committee of India (c) Joint Biparty Coal Consultant of India (d) Joint Bipartite Coordination Committee of India Q37. What is the full form of NCWA ? (a) National CoalIndia Wage Agreement (b) National Coal Wage Agreement (c) National Coal Workers Association (d) National Coal Wage Association Q38. What are CDA Rules? (a) Career Development & Association Rules (b) Conduct, Discipline & Apprisal Rules (c) Conduct, Development & Appeal Rules (d) Conduct, Discipline & Appeal Rules Q39. What is CSR? (a) Company Social Responsibility (b) Coal Social Responsibility (c) Corporate Social Responsibility (d) Company Safety Responsibility Q40. The eligibility for D Type quarter for Executives is……………grade (a) E-3 (b) E-5 (c) E-6 (d) E-7 Q41. The eligibility for C Type quarter for Executives is……………grade (a) E-3 (b) E-2 (c) E-6 (d) E-7 Q42. The entitlement for First AC for Executives is……………grade (a) E-3 (b) E-5 (c) E-6 (d) E-7 Q43. The entitlement for Air Travel for Executives is……………grade (a) E-1 (b) MT (c) E-2 (d) E-4 ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… AN S W E R 01(d), 02(d), 03(c), 04(d), 05(d), 06(a), 07(c), 08(d), 09(b), 10(c), 11(a), 12(b), 13(a), 14(c), 15(b), 16(a), 17(a), 18(d), 19(a), 20(b), 21(c), 22(a), 23(a), 24(c), 25(d), 26(b), 27(a), 28(b), 29(b), 30(a), 31(d), 32(a), 33(c), 34(c), 35(b), 36(a), 37(b), 38(d), 39(c), 40(c), 41(a), 42(b), 43(c). ……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..…………… (SECTION-X : Reference Material Useful for CIL Interview & CIL Deptt Exams) Q-1. Which subsidiary of CIL has not a single UG mine ? (A) NCL (B) MCL (C) SECL (D) All Q-2. CIL has bagged two nos. virgin coal blocks in ...................... ? (A) Indonesia (B) Mozambique (C) Australia (D) Africa Q-3. Which Indian state has largest reserve of coking coal ? (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Jharkhand (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Maharashtra Q-4. Which company in India is the largest producer of lignite ? (A) GMDCL (B) NLC (C) GPCL (D) RSMML Q-5. Which state in India produces coking coal ? (A) Jharkhand (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) All Q-6. Which Indian state is the largest producer of coking coal ? (A) Jharkhand (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) West Bengal By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
22
QUESTION BANK
Q-7. Which state had highest pit head stock of raw coal during 2008-09 ? (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Orissa (C) Jharkhand (D) Maharashtra Q-8. Which company had highest pit head stock of raw coal as on 31.03.2009 ? (A) CCL (B) BCCL (C) SECL (D) MCL Q-9. What is the import duty on coking coal in India ? (A) 2% (B) 0% (C) 5% (D) 10% Q-10. What is the import duty on non-coking coal in India ? (A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 20% Q-11. What is the import duty on coke in India ? (A) 2% (B) 5% (C) 10% (D) 0% Q-12. India imported maximum coking coal from ................ in 2008-09 ? (A) Australia (B) USA (C) New Zealand (D) Indonesia Q-13. India imported maximum non-coking coal from ............. in 2008-09 ? (A) South Africa (B) Indonesia (C) Australia (D) Vietnam Q-14. India imported both coking coal & non-coking coal from ............... in 2008-09 ? (A) Indonesia (B) Australia (C) USA (D) Zew Zealand Q-15. India exported coal to which country during 2008-09 ? (A) Bangladesh (B) Nepal (C) Bhutan (D) All Q-16. India exported maximum coal to .................. during 2008-09 ? (A) Bangladesh (B) Nepal (C) Bhutan (D) Srilanka Q-17. When was SCOPE established ? (A) 1971 (B) 1973 (C) 1972 (D) 1975 Q-18. How many total coal mines are in India as on 31.03.2009 ? (A) 561 (B) 560 (C) 562 (D) 564 Q-19. How many total lignite mines are in India as on 31.03.2009 ? (A) 10 (B) 13 (C) 11 (D) 12 Q-20. Which state has highest no. of coal mines in India ? (A) Jharkhand (B) West Bengal (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Maharashtra Q-21. Which subsidiary of CIL has highest number of coal mines ? (A) WCL (B) SECL (C) ECL (D) BCCL Q-22. Which subsidiary has highest number of OC coal mines ? (A) WCL (B) CCL (C) ECL (D) SECL Q-23. Which subsidiary has highest no. of UG mines ? (A) SECL (B) WCL (C) BCCL (D) ECL Q-24. From which country does India mainly imports coke ? (A) Australia (B) China (C) Indonesia (D) U.S. Q-25. Which Indian port handled maximum imported coal & coke in 2008-09 ? (A) Paradeep (B) Chennai (C) Vishakhapattanam (D) Mumbai Q-26. Which subsidiary of CIL has produced highest coal in 2009-10 ? (A) MCL (B) SECL (C) NCL (D) CCL Q-27. What is the share of NCL in the overall coal production in India ? (A) 15.36% (B) 15% (C) 14% (D) 12% Q-28. Which subsidiary of CIL has no coal washery ? (A) SECL (B) ECL (C) MCL (D) All Q-29. What is the coal based Thermal Power Generation capacity in India as on 31-12-2010 ? (A) 1,11,034 MW (B) 85,000 MW (C) 86,000 MW (D) 84,000 MW Q-30. How much electricity was generated by coal based Thermal Power Plants during 2010-11 ? (A) 5,35,300 MU (B) 5,38,000 MU (C) 5,30,000 MU (D) 5,20,000 MU Q-31. Which is the largest coal consuming country in the world ? (A) India (B) USA (C) China (D) Japan Q-32. What is the share of India in world’s coal production ? (A) 6% (B) 7% (C) 8% (D) 9% By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
23
QUESTION BANK
Q-33. Which Indian state has highest number of OC, UG & Mixed mines ? (A) West Bengal (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Jharkhand (D) Chhattisgarh Q-34. Which subsidiary of CIL has produced more than 100 mt coal during 2010-11 ? (A) SECL (B) MCL (C) SECL & MCL (D) NCL Q-35. What is the present average electricity consumption per capita of India ? (A) 750 mtoe (B) 744 mtoe (C) 755 mtoe (D) 766 mtoe Q-36. Which is the largest coal mine in India ? (A) Gevra OC (B) Dipika OC (C) Ananta OC (D) Jayant OC Q-37. Which area produces highest coal in CIL ? (A) Lakhanpur (B) Jagannath (C) Gevra (D) Dipika Q-38. How many areas are there in CIL ? (A) 80 (B) 75 (C) 70 (D) 81 Q-39. Which coalfield produces highest coal in India ? (A) Singrauli (B) Talcher (C) Korba (D) IB Valley Q-40. Which subsidiary of CIL has highest coal reserves base? (A) MCL (B) SECL (C) ECL (D) CCL Q-41. How much coal has been extracted in India between 1950 to 2009-10 ? (A) 13.34bt (B) 12.34 bt (C) 11.34 bt (D) 10.34 bt Q-42. What is the total installed capacity of power generation in India as on 31-12-10? (A) 1,69,749 MW (B) 1,60,000 MW (C) 1,62,000 MW (D) 1,61,000 MW Q-43. Which state has the highest reserves of Non-Coking coal in India ? (A) West Bengal (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Orissa (D) Jharkhand Q-44. In which state of India High Sulphur Coal is found ? (A) Meghalaya (B) Assam (C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) All of the above Q-45. In which state of India Coking Coal is found ? (A) Jharkhand (B) West Bengal (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) All of the above Q-46. How many CPSUs have been given Maha-Ratna status ? (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2 Q-47. What is the total population of Draglines in CIL as on 01-04-2010? (A) 41 (B) 40 (C) 39 (D) 38 Q-48. Which is the largest coking coal washery in CIL ? (A) Rajrappa (B) Kathara (C) Rajrappa & Kathara (D) None of the above Q-49. Which is the largest non-coking coal washery in CIL ? (A) Bina (B) Kargali (C) Gidi (D) Piparwar Q-50. Short Wall mining is done only in.......................subsidiary of CIL? (A) MCL (B) SECL (C) WCL (D) NCL Q-51. Which subsidiary of CIL has highest number of Surface Miners? (A) ECL (B) SECL (C) CCL (D) MCL Q-52. The largest coal mine in India Gevra is situated in which subsidiary of CIL ? (A) ECL (B) SECL (C) CCL (D) MCL Q-53. Which is the largest proposed coal washery (10mta) of CIL ? (A) IB Valley (B) Ashoka (C) Dahibari (D) All of the above Q-54. Which area of CIL produces highest coal ? (A) Gevra (B) Dipika (C) Kusmunda (D) Jagannath Q-55. Which subsidiary of CIL has maximum number of areas ? (A) BCCL (B) SECL (C) ECL (D) CCL Q-56. How many Coking Coal Washeries are operational in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13 Q-57. How many Non-Coking Coal Washeries are operational in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 8 Q-58. How many Coal Mines are there in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 468 (B) 470 (C) 472 (D) 471 By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
24
QUESTION BANK
Q-59. How many Underground Coal Mines are there in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 273 (B) 163 (C) 35 (D) 200 Q-60. How many Opencast Coal Mines are there in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 273 (B) 163 (C) 35 (D) 200 Q-61. How many Mixed Coal Mines are there in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 273 (B) 163 (C) 35 (D) 200 Q-62. In which country did CIL establish foreign subsidiary Coal India Africana Limitada ? (A) Saudi Arabia (B) Namibia (C) Africa (D) Mozambique Q-63. Where was the HQ of CMAL established in 1973 ? (A) Dhanbad (B) Kolkata (C) Ranchi (D) Nagpur Q-64. After the formation of CMAL, NCDC Mines were kept under ________ zone of CMAL. (A) Eastern (B) Western (C) Central (D) CMPDIL Q-65. When was the coal price totally de-regulated in India ? (A) 1996 (B) 2000 (C) 2009 (D) 2005 Q-66. When was the price of price last revised by CIL ? (A) 27-02-2011 (B) 16-10-2006 (C) 16-10-2008 (D) 16-10-2007 Q-67.The coal mines of NCDC were kept under…….. at the time of formation of CIL in 1975? (A) CCL (B) ECL (C) BCCL (D) WCL Q-68. Which of the following is not a subsidiary of CIL? (A) CMPDIL (B) Coal Indian Africana Limitada (C) NEC (D) None of the above Q-69. What is the full form of ISO ? (A) Indian Standards Organisation (B) International Standards Organisation (C) International Organisation for Standardisation (D) Indian Organisation for Standardisation Q-70. Which subsidiary of CIL holds majority in MJSJ Coal Limited & MNH Shakti Limited? (A) MCL (B) SECL (C) WCL (D) NCL Q-71. CIL is eligible for which status? (A) Only Maharatna (B) Only Fortune 500 (C) Both (D) None Q-72. How many Indian companies are included in Fortune 500 global list 2010? (A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 7 Q-73. Social Accountability 8000 standards is issued by……………………………. (A) SA International (B) ISO (C) BIS (D) ISI Q-74. How many NAVRATNA companies are there as on 15-04-2011? (A) 17 (B) 19 (C) 16 (D) 15 Q-75. Which is the 9th. Indian company to enter Fortune 500 Global List? (A) CIL (B) BSNL (C) NTPC (D) RPL Q-76. Which of the following standards are for occupational health & safety? (A) ISO 18001(B) ISO 18000 (C) OHSAS 18001 (D) ISO 8001 Q-77. What does IMS stand for? (A) Indian Mining System (B) International Management System (C) Integrated Mining System (D) Integrated Management System Q-78. Who issues ISO Certificates? (A) ISO (B) IAF (C) Accreditation Body (D) Certification Body Q-79. Which subsidiary of CIL is first to get an ISO certification in 1998? (A) SECL (B) CCL (C) NCL (D) CMPDIL Q-80. The current Five Year Plan ends on…………… (A) 31st.March 2011 (B) 31st.March 2012 (C) 31st.March 2013 (D) 31st.March 2014 Q-81. What is the period of 12th. Five Year Plan ? (A) 2012-17 (B) 2007-12 (C) 2002-07 (D) 2017-22 Q-82. What is the period of 11th. Five Year Plan ? (A) 2007-12 (B) 2012-17 (C) 2002-07 (D) 2017-21 Q-83. The major restructuring of CIL is proposed during which Five Year Plan ? (A) 11th.Plan (B) 12th.Plan (C) 13th.Plan (D) 14th.Plan By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
25
QUESTION BANK
Q-84. Which project in NCL has produced highest coal in 2010-11 ? (A) Jayant (B) Dudhichua (C) Nigahi (D) Amlohri Q-85. Which Co. has highest ranking among the Indian Co. in Fortune 500 Global List 2010 ? (A) RIL (B) HPCL (C) ONGC (D) IOC Q-86. Non-Coking Coal is commonly known as………. ? (A) Steam Coal (B) Thermal Coal (C) Both (D) None Q-87. What does OHSAS stand for ?
(A) Occupational Health & Safety Assurance System (C) Occupational Health & Safety Assessment System (B) Occupational Health & Safety System (D) Occupational Health & Safety Assessment Series
Q-107. Which is the largest coal exporter country in the world? (A) Australia (B) India (C) Indonesia (D) USA By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
26
Q-88. What is ISO 14001 ? (A) QMS (B) EMS (C) OH&S (D) SA Q-89. After proposed expansion, which will be the largest coal mine of CIL ? (A) Dipika (B) Gevra (C) Talabira (D) Rajmahal Q-90. What is IBS ? (A) Integrated Business Solution (B) Information Business System (C) Indian Business System (D) International Business System Q-91. What is PRP ? (A) Productivity Related Pay (B) Production Related Pay (C) Pay Related Payment (D) Performance Related Pay Q-92. What will be coal demand during 2011-12 ? (A) 713mt (B) 712mt (C) 711mt (D) 710mt Q-93. What is the expected coal import of India during 2011-12 ? (A) 83mt (B) 82mt (C) 81mt (D) 80mt Q-94. What is the expected coal production of India during 2011-12 ? (A) 630mt (B) 650mt (C) 700mt (D) 680mt Q-95. Dankuni Coal Complex has been placed under the administrative control of ………….. (A) SECL (B) ECL (C) CIL (D) NEC Q-96. What is the remarkable characteristics of Tertiary Coal ? (A) High Moisture (B) High Ash (C) High Sulphur (D) All Q-97. What is special about Imported Non-Coking Coal ? (A) High Calorific Value (B) Low Ash (C) Both (D) None Q-98. Which is the only coalfield in India which is spread in 2 states & 2 subsidiary Co. of CIL ? (A) Central India Coalfields (B) Rajmahal (C) Singrauli (D) Raniganj Q-99. What is the thickness of Jhingurdah Seam of NCL ? (A) 130-138m (B) 20m (C) 12m (D) 8m Q-100. How many coal seams are found in moher basin of Singrauli coalfields ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Q-101. In which state of India Tertiary coal is found? (A) Meghalaya (B) Mizoram (C) Nagaland (D) All Q-102. In which Indian state both Gondwana & Tertiary coal are found? (A) Meghalaya (B) Assam (C) Nagaland (D) All Q-103. When did Coal India get Mini-Ratna status? (A) 2007 (B) 2006 (C) 2005 (D) 2004 Q-104. When did Coal India get Nav-Ratna status? (A) 2007 (B) 2008 (C) 2006 (D) 2005 Q-105. What was the total coal production of World in 2009 ? (A) 4,000 mt (B) 5,000 mt (C) 5,990 mt (D) 5,500 mt Q-106. Which is the largest coal importer country in the world? (A) Japan (B) Indonesia (C) China (D) India
QUESTION BANK
Q-108. How many coal washeries are presently operational in CIL? (A) 16 (B)17 (C) 15 (D) 14 Q-109. What is the contribution of Open Cast in Coal Production of India? (A) 88% (B) 80% (C) 85 % (D) 75% Q-110. Name the only company in the world which has applied for 4 certifications (ISO-9001, ISO14001, OHSAS-18001 & SA-8000) under IMS? (A) Rio-Tinto (B) SCCL (C) CIL (D) NCL Q-111. What is the coal production target of CIL for 2011-12? (A) 435 mt (B) 460 mt (C) 452 mt (D) 520 mt Q-112. Which country in the world has highest reserves of Coal and Lignite? (A) USA (B) China (C) India (D) Australia Q-113. What is the total coal & lignite reserve in the world by the end of 2008? (A) 800 bt (B) 984 bt (C) 850 bt (D) 900 bt Q-114. In how many states of India coal reserves is found? (A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 14 Q-115. The estimated coal reserve of India is enough to last for over_____ yrs? (A) 200 yrs (B) 208 yrs (C) 150 yrs (D) 100 yrs Q-116. What is the market share of CIL in Indian coal production? (A) 82% (B) 80% (C) 75% (D) 70% Q-117. How many CPSUs were operational as on 31st.March 2009? (A) 252 (B) 235 (C) 246 (D) 310 Q-118. Name the foreign subsidiary of CIL. (A) Coal Videsh Ltd (B) Coal India Africana Limitada (C) CIL Videsh Ltd (D) CIL Mozambique Ltd Q-119. When did CIL get SCOPE Excellence Award? (A) 2006 (B) 2007 (C) 2008 (D) 2009 Q-120. What is the contribution of UG mines in CIL coal production? (A) 10% (B) 9% (C) 8% (D) 7% Q-121. What is the contribution of OC mines in CIL coal production? (A) 88% (B) 89% (C) 90% (D) 91% Q-122. How much coal is supplied to Power Utilities by CIL? (A) 65% (B) 72% (C) 70% (D) 75% Q-123. What were the Gross Sales of CIL during 2009-10? (A) Rs.50,000 Cr. (B) Rs.52,000 Cr. (C) Rs.51,000 Cr. (D) Rs.53,000 Cr. Q-124. How much coal was E-marketed by CIL during 2009-10? (A) 43 mt (B) 41 mt (C) 42 mt (D) 44 mt Q-125. Which subsidiary of CIL has gained highest in terms of %age through E-marketing of coal during 2009-10? (A) SECL (B) NCL (C) CCL (D) MCL Q-126. How much Profit (before tax & dividend) did CIL post in 2009-10? (A) Rs.8,000 Cr. (B) Rs.10,000 Cr. (C) Rs.11,000 Cr. (D) Rs.12,400 Cr. Q-127. What is the Profit after tax of CIL in 2009-10? (A) Rs.9,000 Cr. (B) Rs.10,000 Cr. (C) Rs.8,300 Cr. (D) Rs.8,000 Cr. Q-128. What is the paid up equity of CIL? (A) Rs.6,300 Cr. (B) Rs.6,000 Cr. (C) Rs.6,200 Cr. (D) Rs.6,400 Cr. Q-129. CIL has paid the highest ever dividend of Rs.________ during 2009-10? (A) Rs.2,000 Cr. (B) Rs.2,200 Cr. (C) Rs.2,100 Cr. (D) Rs.2,300 Cr. Q-130. Which country has highest Reserve to Production(R/P) ratio for Coal? (A) Australia (B) China (C) India (D) USA Q-131. Under which head, CIL incurs highest expenditure? (A) Salaries & Wages (B) Spares & Stores (C) Power & Fuel (D) Social Sector Q-132. CIL despatches maximum coal through _________ mode of transport? (A) Road (B) Railways (C) MGR System (D) Belt Conveyor By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
27
QUESTION BANK
Q-133. Which subsidiary of CIL has received SCOPE Meritorious Award for Environmental Excellence for 2007-08? (A) NCL (B) SECL (C) MCL (D) CMPDIL Q-134. In India, the majority of coal reserve found is________________. (A) Tertiary Coal (B) Gondwana Coal (C) Both (D) None Q-135. How many captive blocks have been allotted in India up to 31st.March 2010? (A) 208 (B) 210 (C) 214 (D) 205 Q-136. How much coking coal was produced by CIL during 2009-10? (A) 6.8% (B) 7.8% (C) 8.8% (D) 9.8% Q-137. How much ash content is present in Indian Non-coking coal ? (A) 30-35% (B) 25-30% (C) 35-38% (D) 40-45% Q-138. How much coal was produced by India during 2009-10 ? (A) 532 mt (B) 493 mt (C) 500 mt (D) 510 mt Q-139. How many captive coal mines are in operation ? (A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 26 Q-140. How much coal was produced by captive coal mines during 2008-09? (A) 30 mt (B) 20 mt (C) 10 mt (D) 5 mt Q-141. Which country is the THIRD largest coal producer in the World ? (A) USA (B) CHINA (C) INDIA (D) AUSTRALIA Q-142. Which Indian state has the highest COAL RESERVES ? (A) WEST BENGAL (B) ORISSA (C) CHHATISGARH (D) JHARKHAND Q-143. Which Indian state has the lowest COAL RESERVES ? (A) NAGALAND (B) SIKKIM (C) ARUNACHAL PRADESH (D) MEGHALAYA Q-144. Which state is the largest coal producer in India ? (A) ORISSA (B) JHARKHAND (C) CHHATISGARH (D) WEST BENGAL Q-145. How much Coal is present in India compared to the World Reserves ? (A) 5% (B) 10 % (C) 2% (D) 15% Q-146. Which core sector in India consumes maximum coal ? (A) POWER (B) STEEL (C) CEMENT (D) SPONGE IRON Q-147. What is the present contribution of CIL in Coal Production of India? (A) 95% (B) 90% (C) 70% (D) 82% Q-148. Which is the oldest coal producing PSU in India ? (A) CIL (B) NCDC (C) CMAL (D) SCCL Q-149. What is the oldest name of CCL ? (A) Hindustan Collieries(Pvt) Ltd (B) CCL (C) CMAL (D) NCDC Q-150. How much coal was produced by CIL during 2010-11 ? (A) 425.27 mt (B) 431.33 mt (C) 420.27 mt (D) 435.27 mt Q-151. What is the total number of working coal mines in CIL as on 31-03-2010 ? (A) 469 (B) 468 (C) 473 (D) 471 Q-152. What is the total manpower of CIL as on 01-07-2010 ? (A) 4.0 lakh (B) 4.20 lakh (C) 3.94 lakh (D) 4.10 lakh Q-153. What is the size of ROM coal ? (A) 50 - 200 mm (B) 25 - 50 mm (C) 0 - 50 mm (D) None of the Above Q-154. Price of Coal produced by CIL is fixed by_____________. (A) Central Govt. (B) State Govt. (C) CIL (D) Coal Controller Q-155. The estimated World Coal Reserve is enough to last for over____years ? (A) 190 yrs. (B) 100 yrs. (C) 50 yrs. (D) 75 yrs. Q-156. Which is the most secured energy source in the world ? (A) COAL (B) OIL (C) GAS (D) NAPHTHA Q-157. How much electricity was generated by coal/lignite in India during 2009-10 ? (A) 80% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 70% By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
28
QUESTION BANK
Q-158. What is the present share of UG production in India ? (A) 12% (B) 5% (C) 10% (D) 20% Q-159. How many CPSUs are in Fortune 500 global companies list 2010 ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Q-160. In India LIGNITE reserves are found in_______________ states ? (A) GUJARAT (B) TAMIL NADU (C) RAJASTHAN (D) All of the Above Q-161. Which mining company has not been awarded Mini-Ratna status ? (A) CMPDIL (B) CCL (C) NLC (D) SCCL Q-162. Name the International Standard issued by ISO for Quality Management System (QMS) ? (A) ISO 9000 (B) ISO 9001 (C) ISO 9002 (D) ISO 9003 Q-163. Which is the oldest Coalfield in India ? (A) JHARIA (B) RANIGANJ (C) BOKARO (D) RAJMAHAL Q-164. Which subsidiary of CIL has posted the highest Profit during 2009-10 ? (A) SECL (B) MCL (C) NCL (D) WCL Q-165. In India, the share in production of coal through which mining system is declining ? (A) OPENCAST (B) UNDERGROUND (C) OC & UG (D) NONE Q-166. The Captive Mining of Coal was first allowed in India in________ . (A) 2000 (B) 1976 (C) 2002 (D) 1990 Q-167. Which company in private sector produces highest coal in India ? (A) Tata Steel (TISCO) (B) BECML (C) JSPL (D) MIL Q-168. The Coking Coal Reserves in India is____% of total geological reserves ? (A) 10% (B) 18% (C) 5% (D) 25% Q-169. Which major coalfield in India has highest coal reserves ? (A) TALCHER (B) RANIGANJ (C) JHARIA (D) IB-VALLEY Q-170. Which grades of coal is abundantly found in India ? (A) A & B (B) C (C) D (D) E, F & G Q-171. Which company is the largest corporate employer in India ? (A) COAL INDIA (B) RELIANCE (C) TATA (D) BIRLA Q-172. How much disinvestment of CIL was done in October 2010 through IPO ? (A) 20% (B) 15% (C) 5% (D) 10% Q-173. Which is directly under the administrative control of CIL ? (A) NEC (B) SCCL (C) NLC (D) DCC Q-174. All Coal Washeries of CIL are placed under the control of _____ ? (A) Director(F) (B) Director(Mrkt) (C) Director(Tech) (D) Director(Pers) Q-175. Who looks after the work of COAL VIDESH at CIL ? (A) Director(F) (B) Director(Mrkt) (C) Director(Tech) (D) Director(Pers) Q-176. Which is the largest coal producing company in the world ? (A) BHP-Billiton (B) Coal India (C) Rio-Tinto (D) Arcelor-Mittal Q-177. The Exploration of Coal is being done by___________. (A) CMPDIL (B) MECL (C) GSI (D) All of the above Q-178. The Proven Coal reserves of India as on 01.04.2010 is_________. (A) 110 bt (B) 100 bt (C) 96 bt (D) 90 bt Q-179. The IB Valley coalfield is situated in which subsidiary of CIL ? (A) SECL (B) WCL (C) MCL (D) NEC Q-180. Which subsidiary of CIL has posted loss in 2009-10? (A) BCCL (B) ECL (C) Both (D) None Q-181. How much electricity in the world is generated by coal? (A) 40% (B) 41% (C) 42% (D) 43% Q-182. Which country in the world produces 93% of electricity from coal? (A) Poland (B) China (C) Australia (D) South Africa Q-183. Which subsidiary of CIL has E-marketed highest coal during 2009-10? (A) MCL (B) SECL (C) CCL (D) WCL By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
29
QUESTION BANK
Q-184. How much coal was imported by India during 2009-10? (A) 30 mt (B) 40 mt (C) 68 mt (D) 50 mt Q-185. Which Subsidiary Company of CIL has the highest Manpower? (A) ECL (B) BCCL (C) SECL (D) CCL Q-186. Which Subsidiary of CIL has the highest number of Executives? (A) ECL (B) BCCL (C) SECL (D) CCL Q-187. When do we celebrate Coal India Foundation Day? (A) 1st October (B) 1st November (C) 1st December (D) 1st October Q-188. Coal India Limited has been awarded which status ? (A) Mini-Ratna (B) Nav Ratna (C) Maha-Ratna (D) All Q-189. How much Non-Coking Coal reserves are present in India ? (A) 82% (B) 90% (C) 95% (D) 85% Q-190. Which of the following PSUs has got Maha-Ratna status in 2010? (A) SAIL & CIL (B) IOC & ONGC (C) NTPC (D) All Q-191. When did CMPDIL get Mini-Ratna Cat-II status ? (A) 2007 (B) 2009 (C) 2008 (D) 2010 Q-192. How much coal was exported by India in 2008-09 ? (A) 2 mt (B) 1 mt (C) 3 mt (D) 0 mt Q-193. How much lignite was produced in India during 2009-10 ? (A) 34 mt (B) 33 mt (C) 32 mt (D) 35 mt Q-194. Which subsidiary of CIL has achieved zero accident during Jan-Mar 2010 ? (A) ECL (B) BCCL (C) MCL (D) NCL Q-195. Which state in India has highest reserve of Tertiary coal ? (A) Assam (B) Arunachal Pradesh (C) Nagaland (D) Meghalaya Q-196. Which state in India has largest reserve of Gondwana coal ? (A) West Bengal (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Jharkhand (D) Orissa Q-197. CIL operates in how many state of India ? (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 5 Q-198. How much financial power is granted to Mini-Ratna Category-II companies ? (A) Rs.1,000 Cr. (B) Rs.400 Cr. (C) Rs.500 Cr. (D) Rs.300 Cr. Q-199. What is the overall OMS of CIL in 2009-10 ? (A) 4.08 (B) 5.08 (C) 6.08 (D) 7.08 Q-200. When did CIL get Maha-ratna status ? (A) 2008 (B) 2009 (C) 2010 (D) 2011 ………………………………………………..………………………………………………………..,…………
ANSWERS 1(A), 02(B), 03(B), 04(B), 05(D), 06(A), 07(C), 08(D), 09(B), 10(A), 11(B), 12(A), 13(B), 14(A), 15(D), 16(A), 17(B), 18(A), 19(B), 20(A), 21(C), 22(A), 23(D), 24(B), 25(A), 26(B), 27(A), 28(D), 29(A), 30(A), 31(D), 32(A), 33(C), 34(C), 35(A), 36(A), 37(C), 38(D), 39(C), 40(A), 41(D), 42(A), 43(C), 44(D), 45(D), 46(A), 47(B), 48(C), 49(D), 50(B), 51(D), 52(B), 53(D), 54(A), 55(C), 56(C), 57(B), 58(D), 59(A), 60(B), 61(C), 62(D), 63(B), 64(C), 65(B), 66(A), 67(A), 68(C), 69(C), 70(A), 71(C), 72(B), 73(A), 74(C), 75(A), 76(C), 77(D), 78(D), 79(D), 80(B), 81(A), 82(A), 83(B), 84(A), 85(D), 86(C), 87(C), 88(B), 89(B), 90(A), 91(D), 92(A), 93(A), 94(A), 95(A), 96(C), 97(C), 98(D), 99(A), 100(D), 101(D), 102(B), 103(A), 104(B), 105(C), 106(A), 107(A), 108(B), 109(A), 110(D), 111(C), 112(A), 113(B), 114(D), 115(B), 116(A), 117(C), 118(B), 119(D), 120(A), 121(C), 122(B), 123(B), 124(A), 125(B), 126(D), 127(C), 128(A), 129(B), 130(D), 131(A), 132(B), 133(A), 134(B), 135(C), 136(A), 137(C), 138(A), 139(D), 140(A), 141(C), 142(D), 143(A), 144(C), 145(D), 146(A), 147(D), 148(D), 149(A), 150(B), 151(D), 152(C), 153(D), 154(C), 155(A), 156(A), 157(D), 158(A), 159(D), 160(D), 161(D), 162(B), 163(B), 164(C), 165(B), 166(B), 167(A), 168(B), 169(A), 170(D), 171(A), 172(D), 173(A), 174(B), 175(C), 176(B), 177(D), 178(A), 179(C), 180(D), 181(B), 182(D), 183(A), 184(C), 185(A), 186(C), 187(B), 188(D), 189(A), 190(D), 191(B), 192(A), 193(A), 194(C), 195(D), 196(C), 197(B), 198(D), 199(A), 200(D). …………………………………………………………..………………….………………………………………………
By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]
Page
30
