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INSTRUCTIONS 1. 2. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO. Fill in the information required on the answer sheet. Your test may not be evaluated if the required details are not entered on the answer sheet. This booklet consists of three sections A, B and C with 38, 35 and 31 questions respectively, i.e. a total 104 questions. You will be given two hours to complete the test. Each question carries 1 mark. If there is a problem with your test booklet, immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided with a replacement. You are required to answer questions from all three sections and expected to maximize scores section. in each

3.

4.

5.

Each question has five alternatives. Answer each question by darkening the appropriate alternative letter against the question number on the answer sheet. For example if your answer to question number 1 is ‘B’, darken fully the circle ‘B’ against question 1. All answers are to be marked only on the (OMR) answer sheet. Use the margin in the test rough work. No other piece of paper is permitted to be used for rough work. Use only HB pencil. NEGATIVE MARKS (one fourth of a mark) may be deducted for the first six incorrect section and 0.5 (half a mark) for each incorrect answer thereafter. Failure to follow instructions and examination norms will lead to disqualification. answers in each booklet for

6.

7. 8.

9.

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Section A : Quantitative Ability and Data Interpretation
DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 and 2: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The questions are followed by two statements labeled as (I) and (II). You have to decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the questions. Mark (a) If statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question. (b) If statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question. (c) If statement (I) and (II) together are sufficient but neither of the two alone is sufficient to question. (d) If either statement (I) or statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question. (e) Both statement (I) and (II) are insufficient to answer the question. Is >0?

answer the

1.

I. 2.

>0

II.

< 0.

The three circles are drawn taking vertices of the triangle ABC as their centers and they touch each other on the sides of the triangle. What is the measure of the angle B? I. The radius of circle whose center is at vertex C of triangle ABC is 3 units and radii of all the circles are integers. II. The angle A is more than angle C and the circle whose center is at vertex B has minimum radius among the mentioned three circles. A function f(x) is defined for all real numbers x. For all non-zero values of x, 3f(x) + 2f sum of all of the values of x for which f(x) = 350, then find the value of S. (a) 285.5 (b) 291.5 (c) 293.5 (d) 287.5 (e) 295.5 =2x+1. If S is the

3.

4.

What is the remainder when 8643 is divided by 132? (a) 28 (b) 20 (c) 80 (d) 112

(e) 116

5.

A real function f(x) is defined for integers x, such that –100 ≤ x ≤ 500. A real function p(y) is defined as p(y) = f(2y3 + 3). If g(z) = p(z2), then for how many integral values of z, g(z) is defined? (a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5 If the equation 2x3 + Ax2 + B = 0 has three non-zero integral roots such that two roots are which of the following cannot be a possible value of A + 3B? (a) 18 (b) –18 (c) 72 (d) 180 (e) 630 equal, then

6.

7.

A square ABCD has vertices A (–1, 3), B (3, 3), C (3, –1) and D (–1, –1). The points P and Q lie on AB and BC respectively such that AP : PB is 2 : 3 and BQ : QC is 3 : 1. The line AQ and PD intersect at the point S. Find the slope of the line CS. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) None of these number?

8.

How many multiples of 18 are less than 3500 and are 2 more than the square of a natural (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 8 (e) 9

9.

A survey was conducted to calculate the TRP ratings of four soaps namely North Shore (NS), Fashion House (FH), The O.C. (OC) and Prison Break (PB). There are at least four persons who watch only NS, FH Page 2

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and PB and there are at least four persons who watch only FH, PB and OC. The number of people who watch NS, FH, OC and PB is 40, 48, 28 and 44 respectively. If maximum possible number of people watch all the four soaps, then find the maximum possible number of people who watch at least 3 soaps. (a) 40 (b) 42 (c) 48 (d) 46 (e) 44 DIRECTIONS for Questions 10 to 12: Kumar studies on only three days in a week: Tuesday, Friday and Saturday. The following line graph provides information about the total number of hours for which Kumar studied on Tuesday and Friday in each of the ten weeks and the total number of hours for which Kumar studied in ten weeks namely I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX and X.

10.

In which week the total number of hours for which Kumar studied on Saturday, is the (a) VII (b) I (c) IV (d) III (e) II

maximum?

11.

In which week did the number of hours for which Kumar studied on Tuesday witnessed the percentage increase? (a) II (b) IV (c) III (d) IX (e) None of these

maximum

12.

What is the difference between the average number of hours per week for which Kumar studied in the mentioned ten weeks and the average number of hours per Saturday for which he studied in the mentioned ten weeks? (a) 21.6 (b) 20.4 (c) 22 (d) 22.6 (e) 22.4

DIRECTIONS for Questions 13 and 14: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following table provides the information about number of balls played and number of runs scored by five cricketers of England in the last 10 innings and last 15 innings played by them. Strike rate of a player is defined as the ratio of number of runs scored to the number of balls played. Last 10 innings Balls played Runs played Collingwood 872 624 Vaughan 414 382 Bell 227 147 Strauss 482 390 Pieterson 690 714 BYJU’S CLASSES Last 15 innings Balls played Runs played 1184 962 719 529 449 209 671 499 1031 1220 Page 3

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Strike rates of Collingwood, Vaughan, Bell, Strauss and Pieterson in the last 10 innings is denoted by a10, b10, c10, d10 and e10 respectively. Strike rates of Collingwood, Vaughan, Bell, Strauss and Pieterson in the last 15 innings is denoted by a15, b15, c15, d15 and e15 respectively. Strike rates of Collingwood, Vaughan, Bell, Strauss and Pieterson in the 5 innings prior to the last 10 innings is denoted by a5, b5, c5, d5 and e5 respectively. 13. Which of the following has the maximum possible value? (a) e10+a15+d5 (b) e5+b5+c15 (c) a10+b15+a5 (d) a10+b10+a15

(e) d15+e5+c5 rate of Bell

14.

What is the percentage increase in the strike rate of Bell in the last 10 innings over the strike in the 5 innings prior to the last 10 innings? (a) 114.4% (b) 127.7% (c) 120.6% (d) 134.5% (e) 131.9%

DIRECTIONS for Questions 15 and 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. It is possible to arrange ten out of the eleven numbers 5, 7, 8, 9, 17, 18, 19, 21, 22, 23, 33 in the vacant blocks of the (4 × 4) array shown below, such that the sum of the numbers in each row and each column is the same. The mentioned row-sum and column sum are also identical. 6 3 4 11 16 15. Which of the following numbers must be left out while completing the array? (a) 11 (b) 17 (c) 19 (d) 22 (e) 8 Which of the following can be the sum of the numbers in the blocks, which lie along one of the diagonals of the array? (a) 73 (b) 72 (c) 71 (d) 70 (e) 69 Let the cost price of 6 ‘Dairy Milks’ be equal to the selling price of 10 ‘Kitkats’ and the cost price of 6 ‘Kitkats’ be equal to the selling price of 1 ‘Dairy Milk’. The net profit percent on the sale of a ‘Dairy Milk’ and a ‘Kitkat’ is 50%. Find the profit percent on the sale of each ‘Kitkat’.*Assume all ‘Dairy Milks’ are identical and the same applies to ‘Kitkats’+ (a) 160% (b) 200% (c) 225% (d) 180% (e) 150% Given, three events A, B and C, no two of which are mutually exclusive. If the probabilities P(A ∩ B ∩ ) = , P(A ∩ (a) 0.15 19. ∩ C) = , and P( ∩ B ∩ C) = , then the probability P(A ∩ B ∩ C) can never be (b) 0.16 (c) 0.17 (d) 0.14 (e) 0.13 12

16.

17.

18.

The harmonic mean of two positive integers x and y is 146 such that x is always less than y.Find how many such pairs (x, y) are possible ? (a) 68 (b) 69 (c) 70 (d) 71 (e) 72 If 15x + 20y = 375, then find the minimum possible value of (a) 5 (b) 17 (c) 14 (d) 16 , where x and y are natural numbers. (e) 15

20.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 23: On a street, there are 40 houses numbered consecutively from 1 to 40 such that exactly one number is written on one house. Ram and Rahim own three of these houses each. Few houses are owned jointly by both Ram and Rahim. The numbers written on houses owned by Ram are in an arithmetic BYJU’S CLASSES Page 4

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progression. The numbers written on houses owned by Rahim are in a geometric progression. The ratio of the sum of numbers written on houses owned by Ram to the product of numbers written on houses owned by Rahim, is 8:9. 21. If the product of the numbers written on the houses owned by Rahim is the minimum, then sum of the numbers written on the houses owned by Rahim? (a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 14 (e) 13 If the product of the numbers on the houses owned by Rahim is the minimum, then which of following is definitely the number written on the house owned by Ram? (a) 1 (b) 15 (c) 9 (d) 8 (e) 3 Which of the following can be the number written on the house jointly owned by Ram and (a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 (c) Either 1 or 3 (d) Either 1 or 9 (e) 1 or 3 or 9 what is the

22.

the

23.

Rahim?

24.

There are four persons namely A, B, C and D standing in a queue. Four distinct numbers are written on the shirt of each of these four persons such that each shirt contains exactly one number. The number written on all the shirts is a positive integer. It is also known that the numbers written on the shirts of A, B and C is in a arithmetic progression and the number written on the shirts of B, C and D is in a geometric progression. If the difference between the numbers written on the shirts of D and A is 48, then find the sum of the numbers written on the shirts of all the four persons. (a) 333 (b) 321 (c) 348 (d) 318 (e) None of these How many ordered integer pairs (a, b) are there for which the following system of linear will never have a unique solution? (a ≠ 1, b ≠ 1) (a – 1) x + 3y = 5 2x + (b + 1) y = 7 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 (e) None equations,

25.

26.

If f(x) x2 + ax – b, = such that ‘a’ and ‘b’ are integers and there exists distinct integers p, q and r in the interval [3, 11] for which |f(p)| = |f(q)| = |f(r)| = 9, then how many ordered pairs (a, b) are possible? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4 (e) Cannot be determined For every real number ‘x’, let g(x) always return the minimum possible value among the numbers [(3x + 2), (x2 + 1) and (6 – 5x)] for a particular value of ‘x’ . Find the maximum possible value of g(x). (a) 1.45 (b) 1.53 (c) 1.73 (d) 1.85 (e) 1.95

27.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 28 to 32: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a flower shop, eleven different varieties of flowers namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sold. The following table provides information about the number of flowers of each variety available in the shop in the beginning of each of the given five days.

Flowers A B C D E F G H BYJU’S CLASSES

day 1 195 233 226 241 189 207 213 185

day 2 250 212 262 204 199 276 182 197

day 3 241 209 194 208 261 179 228 241

day 4 230 183 246 191 225 184 216 219

day 5 215 22 195 186 210 211 192 235 Page 5

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I J K 28. 214 183 227 254 211 194 233 239 178 191 245 257 182 190 220

On the day 4, all the flowers of varieties G, H, I, J and K were found to be damaged. A magician regenerates new flowers equal in number to the total number of damaged flowers. The new flowers generated by the magician are of varieties A, B, C, D, E and F and the number of new flowers of each variety generated by the magician is same. Find the total number of flowers of variety B available in the flower shop on the day 4. (a) 371 (b) 372 (c) 373 (d) 374 (e) None of these If T denotes fifty percent of the total number of available flowers of varieties D and I on day 1, 2 and 3 taken together, W denotes eighty percent of the aggregate number of available flowers of varieties D and I on day 4 and 5 taken together and M denotes twenty percent of aggregate number of available flowers of varieties D and I on day 4 and 5 taken together, then find the value of (T – M + 2W). (a) 1726 (b) 1727 (c) 1728 (d) 1729 (e) None of these One “Garland” consists of 4, 6 and 3 flowers of varieties F, G and H respectively and one “Bouquet” consists of 6 flowers such that the flowers in any bouquet is either of variety F only or G only or H only. If maximum possible number of Garlands is made at the end of day 5 using all the available flowers from day 1 to day 5, and the remaining flowers are used to make maximum possible number of bouquets, then find the total number of garlands and bouquets made. (a) 286 (b) 313 (c) 247 (d) 327 (e) None of these Aggregate number of flowers of varieties A, B, C and K form what percentage of aggregate flowers of all varieties across all the five days ? (a) 31.24% (b) 37.16% (c) 39.33% (d) 35.67% (e) None of these number of

29.

30.

31.

32.

At the end of day 5, a magician converted half of the aggregate number of flowers of variety D and E into flowers of variety I. After this the magician throws away one flower of variety I and converts one-third of the remaining flowers of variety I into flowers of variety B. He finally throws away five flowers of variety B and converts one-ninth of the remaining flowers of variety B into flowers of variety G. Find the total number of flowers of variety G in the flower shop at the end of day 5 after all the conversions. (a) 1227 (b) 1123 (c) 1331 (d) 1261 (e) None of these If a number has exactly 7 composite factors except the number itself, then find the minimum sum of all the prime factors of this number? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) 10 possible

33.

34.

In a rectangle ABCD, points E and F are midpoints of the sides AD and BC respectively. A vertical tower GT stands at a point G on the line EF such that ∠ATD 90° and ∠BTC 60°. If AB = 20m and AD = 8m, then find the ratio (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

DIRECTIONS for Questions 35 and 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. On the 10 m long roof of a moving bus, Pinky and Pintu were standing at the front and the rear ends, respectively. To meet Pinky, only Pintu started walking towards the other end of the roof and met her after 5 seconds. On a particular day, both were sitting at the rear ends of two different buses that were moving away from each other, on a straight road. When the distance between the two buses was 50 m, Pintu got down from his bus and started chasing Pinky's bus. After running for 100 seconds he reached Pinky's bus. Following is also known: I. All the buses are identical and they move at a common constant speed. II. The speed at which Pintu runs is 7 times the speed at which he walks. BYJU’S CLASSES Page 6

MOCK XAT PAPER-2
35. At what speed (in km/hr) did the buses run? (a) 50 (b) 45 (c) 60

(d) 48

(e) 40

36.

One other day, both of them were sitting at the rear ends of two different buses that were moving towards each other on parallel roads, on a straight road. When the front-end of the buses were 100 m apart, both of them simultaneously started walking, on the respective rooftops of their buses, to reach the front ends. If they crossed each other four seconds after the start, then what is the speed at which Pinky walks on the roof? (a) 0.5 m/s (b) 1.0 m/s (c) 1.5 m/s (d) 0.25 m/s (e) 0.75 m/s Each of Amit, Bosco, Chris and Deepak bought 56 pencils out of which a total of 64 pencils to be broken. If the number of unbroken pencils with Chris is 60% and 75% more than Bosco respectively, then find the number of broken pencils with Deepak. (a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (e) 20 Let [Tn] be a unique sequence of positive real numbers satisfying the following properties: n 1= (a) +1, (where, n = 2, 3, 4, 5…). If T1 = 1 and T2 = 1, = = then find the value of 6T (b) (c) (d) (e) were found Amit and

37.

38.

.

Section 2: Verbal and Logic Ability
Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 39 through 44 that follow. There is no subject that more frequently occupies the attention of the contemplative than man: yet there are many circumstances concerning him that we shall hardly admit to have been sufficiently considered. Familiarity breeds contempt. That which we see every day and every hour, it is difficult for us to regard with admiration. To almost every one of our stronger emotions novelty is a necessary ingredient. The simple appetites of our nature may perhaps form an exception. The appetite for food is perpetually renewed in a healthy subject with scarcely any diminution and love, even the most refined, being combined with one of our original impulses, will sometimes for that reason withstand a thousand trials, and perpetuate itself for years. In all other cases it is required, that a fresh impulse should be given, that attention should anew be excited, or we cannot admire. Things often seen pass feebly before our senses, and scarcely awake the languid soul. “Man is the most excellent and noble creature of the world, the principal and mighty work of God, the wonder of nature, the marvel of marvels.” Let us have regard to his corporeal structure. There is a simplicity in it, that at first perhaps we slightly consider. But how exactly is it fashioned for strength and agility! It is in no way encumbered. It is like the marble when it comes out of the hand of the consummate sculptor; every thing unnecessary is carefully chiseled away; and the joints, the muscles, the articulations, and the veins come out, clean and finished. It has long ago been observed, that beauty, as well as virtue, is the middle between all extremes: that nose which is neither specially long, nor short, nor thick, nor thin, is the perfect nose; and so of the rest. In like manner, when I speak of man generally, I do not regard any aberrations of form, obesity, a thick calf, a thin calf; I take the middle between all extremes; and this is emphatically man. Man cannot keep pace with a starting horse: but he can persevere, and beats him in the end. What an infinite variety of works is man by his corporeal form enabled to accomplish! In this respect he casts the whole creation behind him. What a machine is the human hand! When we analyse its parts and its uses, it appears to be the most consummate of our members. And yet there are other parts that may maintain no mean rival ship against it. What a sublimity is to BYJU’S CLASSES Page 7

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be attributed to his upright form! The looks that are given him in his original structure are “looks commencing with the skies.” How surpassingly beautiful are the features of his countenance; the eyes, the nose, the mouth! How noble do they appear in a state of repose! With what never-ending variety and emphasis do they express the emotions of his mind! In the visage of man, uncorrupted and undebased, we read the frankness and ingenuousness of his soul, the clearness of his reflections, the penetration of his spirit. What a volume of understanding is unrolled in his broad, expanded, lofty brow! In his countenance we see expressed at one time sedate confidence and awful intrepidity, and at another godlike condescension and the most melting tenderness. Who can behold the human eye, suddenly suffused with moisture, or gushing with tears unbid, and the quivering lip, without unspeakable emotion? Shakespeare talks of an eye, “whose bend could awe the world.” What a miraculous thing is the human complexion! We are sent into the world naked, that all the variations of the blood might be made visible. However trite, I cannot avoid quoting here the lines of the most deep-thinking and philosophical of our poets: “ We understood, Her by her sight: her pure and eloquent blood; Spoke in her cheeks, and so distinctly wrought, That one might almost say her body thought.” What a curious phenomenon is that of blushing! It is impossible to witness this phenomenon without interest and sympathy. It comes at once, unanticipated by the person in whom we behold it. It comes from the soul, and expresses with equal certainty shame, modesty, and vivid, uncontrollable affection. It spreads, as it were in so many stages, over the cheeks, the brow, and the neck, of him or her in whom the sentiment that gives birth to it is working. 39. What does the phrase “familiarity breeds contempt” refer to in the passage? (a) That there is no subject worthy of contemplation (b) That familiar topics are often not lauded. (c) That man has not been given his due. (d) That disdain arises due to lack of sufficient reasons. (e) That our preoccupation leads to negligence of man. Freshness is an essential component of: (a) The tough passions. (b) The appetite for food. (d) The old impulses. (e) The original inclinations.

40.

(c) The simple desires.

41.

According to the passage, man’s physical composition has been created for: (a) Principals and ethics. (b) Minimalism and design. (c) Surrealism and efficacy. (d) Power and dexterity. (e) Purity and cleanliness. What, according to the passage is the quality that renders man ahead of all creation? (a) That man is beautiful. (b) That man is virtuous. (c) That man takes the middle path. (d) That man cannot keep pace with a horse. (e) That man has a vast range of works. What is the primary purpose of this passage? (a) To highlight that man is a creature of mingled substance. (b) To depict that the mind is infinitely superior in character. (c) To stress that man is a godlike being. (d) To show that man is a religious animal. (e) To portray an admiration for human beings. Which of the following is the closest to the human hand in the passage? (a) The expressions. (b) The human face. (c) The emotions. (d) The spirit.

42.

43.

44.

(e) The eyes.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 45 to 47: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Choose the most logical order of sentences among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 45. 1. Its methodology must match its subject matter—good action—and must respect the fact that in this field many generalizations hold only for the most part. Page 8

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2. Aristotle conceives of ethical theory as a field distinct from the theoretical sciences. 3. Aristotle follows Socrates and Plato in taking the virtues to be central to a welllived life. 4. We study ethics in order to improve our lives, and therefore its principal concern is the nature of human well-being. (a) 4–2–1–3 (b) 2–1–4–3 (c) 1–3–4–2 (d) 4–3–1–2 (e) 3–1–2–4 46. 1. All these three to four movie deals and crores of money as fee sound good but it’s not something that can last. 2. But that does not mean recession hasn’t affected the industry. 3. Cosmetics and Bollywood are recession proof! 4. It has – in a positive way; all that artificial pricing that was going through the roof will come down. (a) 3–2–4–1 (b) 1–2–4–3 (c) 4–1–3–2 (d) 2–3–4–1 (e) 1–3–2–4

47.

1. Deconstruction and anti-Orientalism were essential means for undermining what was perceived as a white male power structure. 2. Islamists, post-colonial nationalists,psycho feminists, and so on. 3. One of the bracing things about old-school postmodernism was the way it provided the tools of Enlightenment critical thinking to anti-Enlightenment folks. 4. For many people, postmodern analysis and semiotics are dirty words, products of a rising barbarian anticulture bent on replacing Edward R. Murrow with the paparazzi. (a) 3–2–1–4 (b) 2–4–3–1 (c) 1–3–2–4 (d) 4–3–2–1 (e) 2–3–4–1 DIRECTIONS for Questions 48 to 54: Go through the caselets below and answer the questions that follow. 48. When historians come to write their account of the great financial crisis of 2008, what mention will be given to “Corporate Social Responsibility” (CSR)? Over the last decade, the world’s largest companies and governments have trumpeted CSR—action by companies to improve their impact on society—as a way to moderate capitalism’s excesses. CSR should now be centre stage. But it is not. Which of the following arguments is used in the above passage? (a) Equivalence- comparing the scenario to something alarming. (b) Distressing- expressing heartfelt concern at CSRs absence. (c) Interrogative – is questioning the role of CSR in today’s scenario. (d) Ethical – is concerned at the absence of humanity. (e) Censuring- points fingers at the letdown in the role of CSR. 49. In may be safe to say that we all are prisoners, to some extent, of own making. We may find ourselves imprisoned by anger, resentment, remorse, or the belief that there are no other options for us in our lives and jobs — that we are locked into doing what we are currently doing. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the speaker’s argument the most? (a) The desire to be freed from limiting thoughts will release us. (b) We have no option but to pursue our lives. (c) We are destined to lead the life that we are leading. (d) The jobs we are doing are preordained. (e) Thoughts are restrictive, we are actually free. 50. I. The quality of your result is directly proportional to the quality of conversations that you have. The quality of your conversations is directly proportional to the quality of questions that you ask. II. That applies not only to business, but life in general. It’s used a great deal in selling and also in consulting. And learning leaders often do a great deal of selling and consulting. Which of the following is true? (a) The point above in (II) contradicts the speaker’s argument in (I). BYJU’S CLASSES Page 9

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(b) The point above in (II) extends the speaker’s argument in (I). (c) The point above in (II) is similar to the speaker’s argument in (I). (d) The point above in (II) concludes the speaker’s argument in (I). (e) The point above in (II) strengthens the speaker’s argument in (I). 51. In Sanskrit language three types of action are described. Karma refers to pious actions. Vikarma refers to impious actions. And Akarma refers to devotional or transcendental actions. Akarma means “inaction” because it is an activity that does not generate any karmic reaction. Whether we perform karma, pious activities, or we perform vikarma, impious activities, we must stay in the material world to accept our good or bad reactions. Even if we are rewarded with good reactions such as being born in a wealthy family, still we have to get sick, get old, and die. Which of the following best summarizes the above paragraph? (a) Although pious activities are very much celebrated, they are not as beneficial as people take them to be. (b) Welfare activities are important. (c) Akarma delivers you to the spiritual world for an eternal life, full of bliss, and full of knowledge. (d) We should accept the pathway of karma,a pure devotional service. (e) The focus should be 100% on akarma: the devotional service. 52. Women represent the majority of educated talent in today’s knowledge economy. From Arkansas to Abu Dhabi, the majority of university graduates are women: 60 percent in the U.S. and Europe, 60 percent in Iran and 70 percent in the United Arab Emirates. Yet, many organizations still treat them as one minority among many, missing the opportunity to leverage women as a potent economic force. A person seeking to refute the argument might argue that: (a) Women represent not just a significant percent of available talent they make 80 percent of purchasing decisions about consumer goods. (b) Research indicates companies with more women on the board and in key positions are more profitable. (c) Companies often approach gender as an intractable problem. (d) Organizations readily acknowledge that major female recruitment is their top priority. (e) The number of women breaking the glass ceiling is getting higher. 53. Through the Law of Change, the habits of men , which do not conform to the overall pattern and purpose of the universe, are periodically broken by wars, epidemics of disease, drought, and other irresistible forces of nature which force man to free himself from the effects of his follies and start all over again. The same of Law of Change which levels the peoples of all nations to the baseline of overall plan of the universe, applies with equal force to the individuals who fail to interpret and adapt themselves to Nature‘s Laws. Which of the following can be concluded from the caselet? (a) Conform to the overall plan or perish is Nature‘s warning. (b) The shocks and disappointments in human relations are designed to shake man loose from habits to benefit by better habits of growth. (c) The whole purpose of education, is to start the mind of the individual to growing and developing from within. (d) The mind to evolve and expand through constant changes in the thinking processes is nature’s plan. (e) None of the above 54. The chupacabra (“goat sucker”) is an animal said to be unknown to science and systemically killing animals in places like Puerto Rico, Miami, Nicaragua, Chile, and Mexico. The creature’s name originated with the discovery of some dead goats in Puerto Rico with puncture wounds in their necks and their blood allegedly drained. According to UFO Magazine there have been more than 2,000 reported cases of animal mutilations in Puerto Rico attributed to the chupacabra.

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The above passage appears to be an attempt at: (a) Establishing an alien presence. (b) Establishing the existence of anomalous biological entities. (c) Deriding theories of unusual occurrences. (d) Reporting bizarre happenings. (e) All of the above. Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 55 through 59 that follow. Like other proponents of the “realist” school, Hans J. Morgenthau emphasizes that all politics is a struggle for power. As he goes on to tell us, power is the “immediate aim” in international politics—the means to whatever aim motivates a state, whether it be power for its own sake or some other value. While not denying the possibility that the “ultimate goals” are sometimes of an idealistic nature (“legal and ethical principles and biological necessities”), he emphasizes the “ideological element in international politics” from a “realist” perspective. Drawing on insight from Shakespeare and Tolstoy, he shows that this involves hiding a struggle for domination— even “deceiving oneself”—”behind the mask of a political ideology” (i.e., “pretexts and false fronts”) that make one’s goals “psychologically and morally acceptable” and thus provide “weapons in the struggle for power,” for not only would frankness about one’s lust for power evoke opposition abroad, but it would create a “bad conscience” at home, thus making it difficult to rally support for foreign policies. Since we cannot get inside policy makers’ minds, the possibility that sometimes they are simply lying about their intentions cannot be dismissed. But I believe that the Bush administration’s proclaimed commitment to democratizing the Middle East provides a prime example of such rationalizing and that American leaders and their spokespeople often actually believe what they say, even though the dynamics of the situation dictate that their actions will their rhetoric. This may in part represent the well known phenomenon of “groupthink in which those engaged in reinforcing one another’s opinions and, more to the point here, their “unquestioned belief in [their] inherent morality,” which has been identified as one of the main symptoms of the “groupthink” malady. The loud proclamations of support for democratization may also exemplify a tendency to engage in impression management (again, likely a matter of rationalization rather than simply lying) as a substitute for actions that seem too costly to carry out. Thus in reference to the Allied response to information revealing the extent of the ongoing Holocaust against the European Jews in 1943, a recent account spoke of “ways *Allied leaders used+ to create the impression of concern but” without a real “intention of taking any meaningful action.” In a seminal theoretical study, Dialogues in Arab Politics, Michael N. Barnett provides concepts of particular relevance here. In keeping with his “constructivist” approach to international politics, which purports to offer an alternative to realism by emphasizing the way state interests are shaped in a “normative context” but which he also calls “no less related to issues of power, domination, and social control than is military politics,” Barnett systematically analyzes the politics of pan-Arabism since 1920, with Arab leaders described as being engaged in “symbolic politics” or “presentational politics” (also: “framing events”) to protect their image of commitment to panArab causes, including unity and Palestine, so important to protect their regimes from the wrath of their own publics as well as in the broader inter-Arab arena, and to undermine their rivals’ images, while actually giving priority to their own self-interest. Although the two situations may differ in many ways, the use of “democracy” or “freedom”— much like commitment to a pan-national identity—as a touchstone of virtue at home and abroad shows similarities to this, including, as I show below, the way it involves a danger of “symbolic entrapment “ in which governments sometimes find themselves having no choice but to follow up rhetoric with action. 55. What, according to the passage, is the endeavour of all politics? (a) To gain ideologically. (b) To garner power. (c) To gain legally. (d) To grow ethically. (e) To increase physically. Page 11

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56. Shakespeare and Tolstoy second which of the following views? (a) That a bad conscience is not tolerable. (b) That deceit marks most political decisions. (c) That political belief helps the struggle for supremacy. (d) That struggle for authority is veiled by political dogma. (e) That frankness about the desire for power is acceptable by all. The author refers to the American leaders as policy makers to reinforce which of the (a) The commitment towards democratizing the Middle East remains unfulfilled. (b) The likelihood that the policy makers speak according to the situation. (c) The fact that what the leaders speak is a result of their actions. (d) The reality that the leaders do not get influenced by groups. (e) The veracity that situations lead to actions by the leaders. following issues?

57.

58.

According to the passage the loud proclamations of support for democratization exemplify: (a) A propensity to employ ideas. (b) A desire to bring in change. (c) A hollowness of intent. (d) A yearning for establishing peace. (e) A substitute for action. The pan-Arab leaders employ which of the following strategies? (a) Military politics. (b) Representative politics. (c) Democratic politics. (d) Social politics. (e) Ideological politics.

59.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 60 to 64: Choose the appropriate words to fill in the blanks. 60. We all need to find a new way of living and leading in a world of _______ change. Leaders at must learn to feel at home in_______ territory and to make friends with ________ and anxiety. (a) continuous, uncharted, ambiguity (b) continual, ambiguous, enchanted (c) uncharted, enchanted, continual (d) continuous, uncharted, continual (e) continual, enchanted, ambiguity all levels

61. I had called upon my friend Sherlock Holmes, with the intention of wishing him the _________ of the season. He was ______ upon the sofa in a purple dressing-gown and a pile of crumpled______ papers, evidently newly studied, near at hand. (a) complements, lunging, mourning (b) complements, mourning, lunging (c) compliments, lounging, morning (d) complements, lounging, morning (e) complement, lounging, morning 62 . ______ encourages group affiliation and bonding. ________ is practiced among depleted crops to make roots in new countries as it helps to preserve within an alien culture. _____ helps minorities survive over a long time in societies with other beliefs of _____ and practices. (a) xenogamy, polygamy, endogamy. misogamy (b) polygamy, misogamy, endogamy, xenogamy (c) misogamy, xenogamy, misogamy, polygamy BYJU’S CLASSES Page 12

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(d) endogamy, xenogamy, polygamy, misogamy (e) polygamy, endogamy, xenogamy, misogamy, 63. The instances of a word shade off into other movements by _____ degrees. And exactly _______ observations apply to words heard or written or read. But in what has been said so far we have not even tried to _____ the question of the definition of a word. (a) feint, analogous, brooch (b) faint, analogous, broach (c) feint, faint, broach (d) faint, faint, broach (e) feint, faint, analogous The _______ is often described as an “arboreal predator,” but this is inaccurate. The misconception probably arose from the fact that they are seen in trees where they have climbed to escape intruder. They are ________ climbers but take almost all their ________ on the ground. (a) marten, agile, pray (b) martin, facile, prey (c) marten, agile, prey (d) marten, martin, pray (e) martin, agile, facile

64.

an

Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 65 through 68 that follow. I have always said that Keynes would live as long as the world needed him. What the world decided, 30 years ago, was that it no longer needed him. The Keynesian revolution had been reduced to a mechanical system for stabilising economies by means of budget surpluses and deficits—more deficits than surpluses, as it turned out, leading to the “stagflationary” crises of the 1970s. Keynes, the theoreticians said, was redundant, having failed to prove that the world needed “Keynesian” policies. The market system was automatically selfcorrecting; Keynesianism led only to inflation. And from their point of view, the theoreticians were right. The only acceptable basis of economic theorising is the assumption that human beings are rational maximisers. Grant this, and it follows that the many disturbances to which market economies are prone are the result of outside interferences. For Hayek and Friedman, the culprit was government manipulating the money supply for populist ends. No one who is not an economist believes human nature to be as economics depicts it, yet without its rationality axiom economics could not exist as the science it claims to be. Keynes’s understanding of human psychology in markets had two features, neither of which fits into the paradigm of mainstream economics. The first was inescapable uncertainty. “The outstanding fact,” he wrote in his magnum opus, The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money (1936), “is the extreme precariousness of the basis of knowledge on which our estimates of prospective yield have to be made.” We disguise this uncertainty from ourselves by assuming that the future will be like the past, that existing opinion correctly sums up future prospects, and by copying what everyone else is doing. But any view of the future based on “so flimsy a foundation” is liable to “sudden and violent changes. The practice of calmness and immobility, of certainty and security, suddenly breaks down. New fears and hopes will, without warning, take charge of human conduct…the market will be subject to waves of optimistic and pessimistic sentiment, which are unreasoning yet in a sense legitimate where no solid basis exists for a reasonable calculation.” He saw economics as “one of these pretty, polite techniques which tries to deal with the present by abstracting from the fact that we know very little about the future.” In the face of uncertainty, the springs of human behaviour are very different from what economists conceive them to be. “Most… of our decisions to do something positive… can only be taken as a result of animal spirits… If animal spirits are dimmed… enterprise will fade and die” is one famous remark. Professional investment, he wrote, is like “a game of Snap, of Old Maid, of Musical Chairs,” whose object is to pass on the Old Maid—the toxic debt— to one’s neighbour before the music stops. Here is the recognisable anatomy of the “irrational exuberance,” followed by blind panic, which has dominated the present crisis.

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The second aspect is what may be called Keynes’s “organicism.” He was an individualist, but in a traditional, almost religious sense—that is, he conceived of individuals as part of a community of value. His unit of analysis is very different from the “methodological individualism” that underpins economic reasoning. The point is difficult to grasp in the abstract, but it can be illustrated in his frequent diatribes against making the balance sheet and considerations of efficiency the sole tests of economic virtue. In the 1930s he praised his own home town, Cambridge, as a place where one could spend an afternoon strolling around “talking to one’s lifelong friends” and shopping in “shops which are really shops and not merely a branch of the multiplication table.” Views like these made him only a qualified supporter of what is now called globalisation. 65. Which of the following cannot be concluded about the Keynesian policies from the passage? (a) That the policies were outmoded. (b) That the policies were inflationary. (c) That the policies had more deficits than surpluses. (d) That the policies were stabilizing. (e) That the policies corrected the market. The premise for the subsistence of economics as a science is: (a) Its humanity. (b) Its sagacity. (c) Its manipulation. (e) Its revolutionary nature.

66.

(d) Its populist stance.

67.

What, according to the passage, is the similarity between markets and human psychology? (a) The knowledge on which the yields are approximated. (b) We mask ambiguity by assuming that the potential will be like the precedent. (c) The existing judgment correctly sums up future prospects. (d) The market is subject to both optimism and pessimism. (e) There is a solid basis for sensible computation. Why, according to the passage, is the present situation likened to a game of Musical Chairs? (a) Because the number of participants is unlimited. (b) Because there is uncertainty in human behaviour. (c) Because it is reminiscent of animal spirits. (d) Because there is high energy before the consternation. (e) Because enterprise is in the danger of fading.

68.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 69 and 70: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. 69. The final shot from Abhinav Bindra’s rifle may not have been heard outside the packed hall in the Beijing Shooting Range Complex on Monday morning. But its bang was loud enough to lift the spirit of a billion-plus Indians back home. No individual gold has mattered so much to so many people in the history of Olympics. It was a medal for Abhinav; it was redemption for India. Never again will anyone be able to point a smug, sardonic finger and say: “No Indian is good enough to win an individual Olympic gold.” _______________ (a) There is no greater joy than listening to the sound of the national anthem on the world’s biggest stage. (b) This is the first time that an Indian has won an individual gold since modern Olympics started in 1896. (c) The joy was also spurred by the improbable nature of the triumph (d) The global media looked bemused as grown-up Indians danced like little children, shedding tears of joy. How can they understand? (e) The script of the men’s 10m air rifle final might have been penned by Alfred Hitchcock himself. There’s a lot to be said for the geographical analogies commonly invoked to describe any language— map, artifact, fossil. Perhaps more than any other tongue, English has been decisively shaped by the series of intense geopolitical events that mark its short but vivid history. In its first 600 years, English was the language of the invaded; later, it became a language of invasion.__________________ Page 14

70.

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(a) The word English itself comes from Anglisc, the dialect of the Angles. (b) At the end of the eighth century, one horrible raid kicked off years of violent Viking assaults, followed by a less bloody period of Norse influence. (c) The tribes settled there, replacing the land’s Celtic languages with their own. (d) Twice more, English was profoundly shaped by bloody incursions. (e) English began in 449 when marauding Saxons, Angles, Jutes, and Frisians sailed from their homeland to invade a small island in the North Sea. DIRECTIONS for Questions 71 to 73:: The poem given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Of Mans First Disobedience, and the Fruit Of that Forbidden Tree, whose mortal taste Brought Death into the World, and all our woe, With loss of EDEN, till one greater Man Restore us, and regain the blissful Seat, Sing Heavenly Muse, that on the secret top Of OREB, or of SINAI, didst inspire That Shepherd, who first taught the chosen Seed, In the Beginning how the Heavens and Earth Rose out of CHAOS: Or if SION Hill Delight thee more, and SILOA’S Brook that flow’d Fast by the Oracle of God; I thence Invoke thy aid to my adventrous Song, That with no middle flight intends to soar Above th’ AONIAN Mount, while it pursues Things unattempted yet in Prose or Rhime. And chiefly Thou O Spirit, that dost prefer Before all Temples th’ upright heart and pure, Instruct me, for Thou know’st; Thou from the first Wast present, and with mighty wings outspread Dove-like satst brooding on the vast Abyss And mad’st it pregnant: What in me is dark Illumine, what is low raise and support; That to the highth of this great Argument I may assert th’ Eternal Providence, And justifie the wayes of God to men. Say first, for Heav’n hides nothing from thy view Nor the deep Tract of Hell, say first what cause Mov’d our Grand Parents in that happy State, Favour’d of Heav’n so highly, to fall off From their Creator, and transgress his Will For one restraint, Lords of the World besides? Who first seduc’d them to that fowl revolt? Th’ infernal Serpent; he it was, whose guile Stird up with Envy and Revenge, deceiv’d The Mother of Mankinde, what time his Pride Had cast him out from Heav’n, with all his Host Of Rebel Angels, by whose aid aspiring To set himself in Glory above his Peers, He trusted to have equal’d the most High, If he oppos’d; and with ambitious aim Against the Throne and Monarchy of God Rais’d impious War in Heav’n and Battel proud BYJU’S CLASSES Page 15

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With vain attempt. 71. Which of the following brought fatality onto humanity? (a) The prohibited tree. (b) Man’s defiance. (d) The heavenly muse. (e) The loss of Eden.

(c) The corporeal experience.

72.

The author’s invocation is directed towards which of the following? (a) The Shepherd. (b) The Heavenly Muse. (c) The Siloa’s brook. (d) The hill of Sion. (e) The top of Oreb. What, according to the passage, is the author’s endeavour? (a) To write something adventurous. (b) To soar above the Aonian mountain. (c) To carve something unique. (d) To create a masterpiece. (e) To have a clear conscience.

73.

Section C : Analytical Reasoning and Decision Making
DIRECTIONS for Questions 74 to 77: A team had eight members namely Nasri, Fabregas, Frank, Wayne, Bentley, Hleb, Samuel and Evra. Each member of the team was given a sheet of paper and asked to write the names of two of the mentioned members, who according to him or her are the least productive. No member wrote his or her name on the sheet. Further it is known that: I. The name of every member was written by at least one member and there is no member whose name was written by more than three members. II. Neither Fabregas nor Frank wrote the names of Hleb, Samuel and Evra but Evra wrote the name of Frank. III. The manager of the team formed exactly two groups viz. Group X and Group Y. The members in Group X wrote the names of two of the members in their group and the members of Group Y did not write the name of any member in their group. IV. Nasri wrote the name of Fabregas but did not write the name of Bentley. Bentley did not write the name of Frank but Frank wrote the name of Bentley. 74. If the composition of Group X is Fabregas, Evra, Hleb, Bentley, Frank and Nasri, then which of the following can be true? (a) The composition of Group Y is Frank, Wayne, Nasri and Samuel. (b) The composition of Group Y is Bentley, Hleb, Fabregas, Wayne and Frank. (c) The composition of Group Y is Nasri, Bentley, Hleb and Evra. (d) The composition of Group Y is Fabregas, Bentley, Frank and Samuel. (e) None of the above. Which of the following cannot be the composition of Group X and Group Y formed by the manager? (a) Group X: Frank, Evra, Bentley, Fabregas and Group Y: Nasri, Bentley, Wayne and Hleb (b) Group X: Wayne, Nasri, Samuel and Hleb and Group Y: Bentley, Fabregas, Wayne and Samuel (c) Group X: Fabregas, Frank, Bentley and Evra and Group Y: Nasri, Bentley, Hleb and Evra. (d) Group X: Wayne, Hleb, Bentley and Frank and Group Y: Samuel, Hleb, Evra and Wayne. (e) More than one of the above statements.

75.

76.

Each of the following could be true EXCEPT: (a) There are exactly four persons whose name has been written only once. (b) The number of persons whose name has been written thrice cannot be more than 4. Page 16

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(c) Each person’s name has been written twice. (d) The number of persons whose name is written once and thrice is the same. (e) The number of persons whose name is written twice and thrice is the same. 77. If the composition of Group Y is Wayne, Frank and Fabregas, then which of the following MUST be true? (a) Frank wrote the name of Nasri. (b) Bentley wrote the name of Wayne. (c) Wayne wrote the name of Bentley. (d) Fabregas did not write the name of Bentley. (e) More than one of the above statements.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 78 to 80: Consider two groups of 8 players each namely group P and group Q. The players in group P are (P1, P2 ... P8) and the players in group Q are (Q1, Q2 ... Q8). There is tournament held between the players of group P and group Q. The first match of the tournament is played between P1 and Q1. If P1 wins the first match, then he/she will play the next match against Q2 and if Q1 wins the first match, then he/she will play the next match against P2. Now, the winner of the second match in a similar fashion plays against the third player of the opposite group and so on the subsequent matches are played in the tournament (i.e, the winner of the nth match plays with (n + 1)th player of the opposite group). 78. If P6 did not play any match in the tournament, then it necessarily implies that (a) P4 played a match. (b) Q4 played a match. (c) Q3 played a match. (d) Q5 played a match. (e) None of the above. If exactly 5 different players from group P played matches in the tournament, then how many players from group Q played matches in the tournament? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2 (e) Cannot be determined If Q3, Q5 and P7 had played matches in the tournament, then which of the following could (a) If Q5 had won a match, then P3 would have played just one match. (b) If Q6 had won a match, then P3 would have played just one match. (c) If Q6 had won a match, then P3 would have played three matches. (d) Both (A) and (B). (e) Both (A) and (C). different

79.

80.

be correct?

DIRECTIONS for Questions 81 to 85: Seven professors viz. J, K, L, M, N, P and Q teach vocational education courses at a state college. Each professor teaches during exactly one out of the three semesters viz. the fall semester, the spring semester and the winter semester. Further it is known that: I. K teaches during the winter semester. II. L and M teach during the same semester. III. Q teaches during either the fall semester or the spring semester. IV. The number of professors who teach during the winter semester is twice of the number of professors who teach during the fall semester. V. N and Q teach during different semesters VI. J and P teach during different semesters. 81. Which of the following could be an accurate matching of the Professors to the semesters during which they teach? (a) (M: fall semester); (P: spring semester); (Q: fall semester). (b) (J: winter semester); (L: winter semester); (P: winter semester). (c) (L: fall semester); (N: spring semester); (P: winter semester). (d) (J: fall semester); (M: winter semesters); (N: spring semester). (e) (K: spring semester); (L: winter semester); (P: winter semester).

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82. Which one of the following cannot be true? (a) L teaches during the fall semester (c) M teaches during the winter semester (e) P teaches during the fall semester (b) M teaches during the spring semester (d) N teaches during the spring semester

Additional information for questions 83 and 84: Exactly one Professor teaches during the spring semester. 83. Which one of the following MUST be true? (a) J teaches during the winter semester (c) M teaches during the winter semester (e) Q teaches during the fall semester

(b) L teaches during the fall semester (d) P teaches during the spring semester

84.

If J teaches during the spring semester, then during which semester does N teach? (a) Winter (b) Fall (c) Spring (d) Either (A) or (B) (e) Either (B) or (C) Each of the following contains a list of Professors who can all teach during the same (a) J, K and M (b) J, L and M (c) K, L and P (d) K, P and Q semester EXCEPT: (e) L, M and P

85.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 86 to 90: On September 5, 2007 it was reported that a new fairness cream for men by a leading pharmaceutical company, endorsed by a renowned beauty specialist, would be hitting the local stores shortly. The launch would take the number of men’s fairness cream brands in the Indian consumer market to half a dozen. Most Indians, as also South Asians, have for long desired a fair complexion and their quest to shed the darker tone had prompted many Fast Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) behemoths to venture into the business of manufacturing and marketing skin lightening products, such as fairness creams, lotions, cold creams, and soaps. In particular, fairness creams have been very popular and many FMCG companies have come out with their own brands. For instance, as of 2007, Hindustan Unilever Ltd. (HUL) had a range of products under the brand name ‘Fair & Lovely’. According to industry experts, as of 2007, the emerging skin-lightening products industry in India was worth US$318 million, and was growing at a fast rate, especially in the male-grooming sector. Skin-lightening products accounted for almost 40 percent of the Indian cosmetics industry. The growing awareness among men to look good and results of marketing research by the industry suggesting that 75 percent men were using fairness creams made for women prompted FMCG companies to manufacture separate fairness products to cater to the needs of both genders. The industry had used light-skinned models and even celebrities to endorse their fairness products, leading to a boost in the demand for skin-lightening products among the target audience. The marketing of fairness products had always been a controversial issue. Professional dermatologists have been skeptical about the effectiveness of these creams. According to them, these creams were only partly effective and merely act as sun-blocking agents, helping in preventing the skin from getting tanned. Psychologists have observed that in the Indian context, fairness is associated with power, superiority, and influence, and hence Indians prefer lighter skin. The introduction of fairness products in India has only reinforced age-old prejudices that equate fair skin with good looks. This emphasis on a light skin color and its importance in the marriage market is evident from the matrimonial columns of newspapers and matrimonial web sites. The marketing of fairness cream that plays on people’s insecurities and fear of not conforming to the norm has come in for strong criticism. Some critics are of the view that promoting a particular body image (fairness in this case) as

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the preferred one and then selling medicines or products to help people attain that particular ideal may be regarded as disease mongering. Fairness cream manufacturers have exploited, and reinforced, this preference for fair skin, portraying it as a necessary prerequisite for success, and promoted the use of their products as a means of achieving that ideal. Monetary gains have been made notwithstanding the negative impact these products have engendered in terms of social consciousness and strengthening of stereotypes. In this context, Emami’s decision to use Bollywood superstar Shahrukh Khan (Khan) to promote its men’s fairness cream brand, ‘Fair & Handsome’ in mid- 2007, had stirred a hornet’s nest. In the TV spot, Khan was shown advising a sad-looking young man to start using skin-whitening cream to get the girl he wanted. The actor in the ad was clearly telling him that the fairness cream would boost his sex appeal. his ad spot led the civil rights groups to spit ire at Khan. Critics felt that celebrities, being role models, should not endorse products that reinforce such stereotypes. In this connection columnist Shailaja Bajpai of The Indian Express, wrote, “When the reigning star of Hindi cinema publicly endorses a cream that openly advocates fairness, lightness of skin as desirable, nay, necessary, it is a damn bad show. How could he do it?” However, marketing experts contend that the issue is being blown out of proportion. Ad expert Alyque Padamsee, who directed this ad, said, “Everyone wants to look better. What’s the difference between a woman using lipstick, Europeans using skin-tan lotion, and an Indian skin-lightening cream?” For each question, an answer A and a reason R has been given. Base your analysis on the information presented in the passage. Mark: (a) If both A and R are based on information given in the passage and R is the correct explanation of A (b) If both A and R are based on information given in the passage but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) If A is based on information given in the passage but R is not based on the facts given. (d) If A is not based on information given in the passage but R is based on information given in the passage (e) If both A and R are not based on information given in the passage 86. Why has the marketing of fairness creams in India come in for criticism? (a) The marketing strategy of promoting fairness as an ideal to be attained and helping people attain that particular image plays on insecurities and fears and strengthens social stereotypes. (r) The use of light-skinned models to endorse fairness products has led to a boost in the demand for skinlightening products among the target audience What prompted cosmetics manufacturers to come out with separate fairness products for both men and women? (a) 50 per cent of men were using fairness creams meant for women (r) Indian men felt that using fairness products meant for women would help them get a fairer complexion Why did the ‘Fair and Handsome’ commercial attract the ire of the civil rights groups? (a) The celebrity in the commercial was seen actively advocating the use of a men’s fairness cream to enhance sex appeal (r) Advertising professionals felt that there was no difference between a woman using a lipstick and a man using a fairness cream Which of the following is not one of the reasons why skin-lightening products accounted for almost 40 per cent of the Indian cosmetics industry? (a) In the Indian context fairness is associated with power, superiority and influence (b) There was a growing awareness among men to look good (c) The industry had used light-skinned models and even celebrities to endorse their fairness products (d) Marketing experts have contended that the controversy surrounding fairness creams has been blown out of proportion (e) Fairness creams work as sun-blocking agents helping in preventing the skin from getting tanned.

87.

88.

89.

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90. In order to solve the controversy surrounding the ‘Fair & Handsome’ ad Emami is considering taking the following measures. 1. Reshooting the ad, but this time not with a celebrity like Shah Rukh Khan 2. Upholding their advertising strategy maintaining that it is necessary to use such a strategy to attract the target segment. 3. Issuing a public explanation to the effect that the ad is not directed towards ‘disease mongering’? 4. Removing the controversial ad The measures in order of their decreasing impact in lessening the controversy are as follows: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 (c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1 (e) 4, 3, 1, 2 DIRECTIONS for Questions 91 to 94: The caselets given below are followed by a set of question/s. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. For years after it was set up in 1999, JetBlue Airways had been a favorite with airline analysts. Modeled loosely on America’s legendary low cost carrier Southwest Airlines, JetBlue achieved relatively quick success by bringing an element of ‘coolness’ to low cost travel. Unlike Southwest, which took its low cost image seriously and avoided frills altogether, JetBlue offered comforts like leather seats and seat-back televisions. The airline also flew a new fleet of Airbus A380s and Embraer-190s, and the crew was known to be cheery and helpful - seemingly, a rarity in the airline industry. JetBlue was especially known for its commitment to customer service, and positioned itself as an airline that cared about its passengers. It was known to give away free food passes and flight tickets to passengers even when flights were delayed because of external causes that were no fault of the airline. JetBlue was also known to never cancel any of its flights, no matter what the delay, as it believed that passengers would rather get to their destinations late than never. It was this policy that landed JetBlue in trouble in mid February 2007, when a huge snow storm affected the Northeast and Midwest regions of the US. While other airlines cancelled flights and rescheduled operations, JetBlue persisted in believing that the flights would eventually take off, and kept passengers stranded for several hours. In one extreme and well publicized instance, passengers were stranded on board a plane on the tarmac at New York’s JFK airport for nearly 11 hours. Eventually however, the airline was forced to cancel most of its flights. However, even after the storm cleared JetBlue struggled to get back on its feet as the cancelled flights had played havoc with its systems which were not equipped to deal with cancellations. The airline’s poor database management systems also resulted in major problems in tracking and lining up pilots and flight crew who were within federal regulation limits for the number of flying hours to operate the resumed flights. In addition to this, the delays and cancellations had caused a baggage crisis with several passengers finding their luggage missing. It took several days for JetBlue’s operations to smoothen, and the airline was forced to cancel nearly 1,200 flights in all in the days following the storm. Meanwhile, airlines like American Airlines, Continental Airlines and Delta Airways, which had cancelled flights immediately were able to resume operations more quickly. The fiasco reportedly cost JetBlue $30 million, and was expected to affect the company’s financial position adversely. JetBlue had been grappling with financial difficulties (mainly because of a sharp rise in fuel prices) since 2005, after years of spectacular growth. Notwithstanding financial losses, the loss of goodwill was expected to be much more serious for the airline. 91. The reason behind ‘coolness’ brought by JetBlue into its operations can be ascribed to Page 20

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(a) its policy of caring for its passengers in a way other airlines did not (b) the need to differentiate itself from other low cost carriers on important parameters (c) the fact that regular airlines offered these services to their passengers (d) the view that passengers would rather go to their destinations late than never (e) the fact that its crew members were cheery and helpful 92. In the light of its after-effects, JetBlue’s decision not to cancel its flights in the face of a snowstorm can be viewed as an instance of (a) absence of the right infrastructure to handle operational problems (b) inflexibility in adapting its policies to extraordinary situations (c) inability to judge the possible repercussions of a managerial decision (d) All of the above (e) Only (A) and (B) above Which of the possible following measures that JetBlue can take to remedy the situation would be most helpful in salvaging its goodwill? (a) announcing a clear policy towards compensating passengers for delays and cancellations (b) launching a new database management system to help it track crew and baggage better. (c) Switching over to a ‘no frills’ low cost carrier like Southwest Airlines (d) Changing the management team responsible for the fiasco and replacing it with more adaptable managers (e) Moving its operations more towards that of a regular airlines Which of the following business operations most closely resembles that of Jet Blue in the airlines industry? (a) A car rental agency providing chauffeur service, limousine facility and easy installment payment terms (b) A recruitment agency providing legal and management consulting service to its clients (c) A circus company providing refreshments and short theatrical acts in between a normal performance (d) A fast food outlet providing sit-in dining arrangement, waiter service, a la carte menu and money back in case service is delayed (e) An advertising agency providing its clients with end-to-end solutions like event management, database marketing, etc.

93.

94.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 95 to 97: On December 5, 2007, an explosion occurred at the coal mine owned by Rui Zhiyuan Company (RZC) in China. It was yet another deadly coal mining explosion in China reported that year. Official estimates suggested that at least 105 people might have died immediately in the gas explosion at RZC. The earlier explosions had occurred at Yujialing Coal Mine killing 26 workers in March 2007 and Pudeng Coal Mine where 28 mine workers had died in May 2007. The exact number of deaths remained a mystery. The major reason cited for hazardous conditions in coal mines was the negligent attitude of mine owners who allegedly did not pay enough attention to workplace safety. It was alleged that the mine owners often put the lives of the workers at risk by not investing in fire control and other equipment, proper ventilation, etc. In addition, mine owners in China often breached safety regulations to increase production beyond the permissible level. China relies heavily on coal due to scarcity in petroleum resources. About two-thirds of the country’s electricity is generated by burning coal, making China the largest consumer and producer of coal in the world. In addition to electricity generation, China depends on coal for running its factories which comprise China’s huge manufacturing base. The following questions are based on two statements I and II. Examine the statements and then mark: (a) If statement I is an evidence from the passage and statement II is a conclusion that must be true based on that evidence. (b) If statement I is an evidence from the passage and statement II is a conclusion that is not necessarily true based on that evidence. BYJU’S CLASSES Page 21

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(c) If statement I is not an evidence from the passage but statement II is a conclusion that must be true based on that evidence. (d) If statement I is not an evidence from the passage and statement II is a conclusion that is not necessarily true based on that evidence. (e) If statement I is a conclusion based on the passage and statement II is not a conclusion that is necessarily true based on the passage. 95. I. Most mine owners in China had a negligent attitude and did not pay enough attention to workplace safety. II. The heavy reliance of China on coal was responsible for mine owners breaching safety regulations and raising production beyond permissible levels. I. Installing effective fire control and ventilation measures can enhance safety for those involved in mining operations. II. If the mines of China were run by the government instead of private owners, chances of accident would reduce. I. There had been other deadly coal mining explosions in China prior to the one on December 5,2007. II. It was becoming difficult to find workers for the coal mines in China.

96.

97 .

DIRECTIONS for Questions 98 to 102: Six friends namely Aabhas, Barun, Charu, Deepak, Farooq and Govinda. are one or the other of MD, Actor, B.M, Footballer, Consultant, Doctor (not in the same order) by profession and stay in one or the other of six cities namely Faridabad, Chennai, Delhi, Gurgaon, Kolkata and Bombay (not in the same order). Also, each of six friends owns exactly one or the other of six different models of car, namely Corolla, ercedes, Santro, Swift, Dicor, BMW. The colour of the cars owned by the six friends is one or the other of the six colours namely Blue, White, Black, Yellow, Green and Red not necessarily in the same order. Additional information: (1) Aabhas stays in Faridabad and owns a Swift. (2) One of the friends has every attribute starting with the first alphabet of his name. (3) One of the friends has no attribute starting with the first alphabet of his name. (4) Except for the above two people every one has exactly one attribute starting with the first alphabet of their name and this attribute is different for all of them. (5) Person having Black Corolla stays in Gurgaon. (6) Actor has Mercedes and he stays in Delhi. (7) Dicor is Yellow in colour and Santro is owned by the Doctor but is not Green in colour. (8) One of the cars is BMW. 98. Which of the attributes of Charu starts with the first alphabet of his name? (a) Corolla (b) Chennai (c) Consultant (d) Both (A) and (B) Which profession is the person staying in Kolkata engaged in? (a) Doctor (b) MD (c) Footballer (d) Consultant Who owns the Santro? (a) Charu (b) Govinda

(e) Cannot be determined

99.

(e) Cannot be determined

100.

(c) Farooq

(d) Deepak

(e) Cannot be determined

101. 102.

If the Consultant does not own a red car, then who owns the Red car? (a) Aabhas (b) Doctor (c) MD (d) Deepak (e) Cannot be determined If MD owns a White car, then the Consultant is (a) Charu (b) Govinda (c) Aabhas (d) Deepak (e) Cannot be determined A marching group of devotees going to Vaishnav Devi goes up the path in single line. Then one devotee sits down because of fatigue, and the rest of them continue on in two equal rows. One more sits and the rest continue in three equal rows, and so on, until one sits and the rest continue in equal rows of Page 22

103.

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ten. Consider the smallest number of devotees that could have started this journey to Vaishnav Devi under the given condition. If the same number of devotees march to Amarnath, then find the number of devotees who will have to sit down at the start of the journey, so that the rest of them move in sixteen equal rows throughout the journey. (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 7 104. There are 100 books (numbered 1 to 100) placed on the bookshelf. Rohit starts picking up 2 books in one move and throws them away. He starts this process with the books, whose numbers sum upto 195 and throws all the pairs of books with the same sum. Then in the subsequent move he throws the books having next available sum less than the previous sum and he continues to do so. He just leaves 18 books intact on the shelf. The sum of the number written on the books which he throws away in 35th move is (a) 49 (b) 53 (c) 59 (d) 63 (e) 67

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You have to write an essay (length - one side of the page) on the following topic: Essay Topic: Education is not preparation for life; education is life itself. __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________

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Answer Key
1 11 21 31 41 51 61 71 81 91 101
E B E B D A C B D B E

2 12 22 32 42 52 62 72 82 92 102

C A D A E D D B A D D

3 13 23 33 43 53 63 73 83 93 103

B C E A E A B C C A E

4 14 24 34 44 54 64 74 84 94 104

E E A E B D C E A D D

5 15 25 35 45 55 65 75 85 95

E D D A B B E C D B

6 16 26 36 46 56 66 76 86 96

C A A B A D B E B E

7 17 27 37 47 57 67 77 87 97

B B C D D B B A E B

8 18 28 38 48 58 68 78 88 98

B C A A E A D E C B

9 19 29 39 49 59 69 79 89 99

E C B B E B B B D E

10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

E E D A B A E A E A

Quantitative Ability / Data Interpretation Verbal and Logic ability Analytical Reasoning and Decision Making TOTAL

MY PERFORMANCE Total Time Taken Total Questions (Min) Attempts 38 35 31 104 120

Correct Attempts

Incorrect Attempts

Net Score

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