Allahabad University IPS Information Brochure

Information Booklet

Admission 2015

Institute of Professional Studies
University of Allahabad

Institute of Professional Studies(Admission Test-2015)
About The Institute
The Institute of Professional Studies was set up in May 2000 by the Executive Council of the University of Allahabad under
Section 44 of the Act. Institute of Professional Studies (IPS) is a UNIVERSITY INSTITUTE under Statute 30 (I) (ii), read with section
3(Y) & section 27 (L) of the University of Allahabad (Central University) Act 2005. It is an Institute established and maintained by the
University. The basic objective is to develop linkages between the 'world of learning' and the 'world of work' through professional
courses. The basic objective of the Institute is to provide short, medium and long-term professional courses on a regular and selffinancing basis under the aegis of Centres dedicated to specific areas.
Presently the Institute has five Centres:

·
·
·

·
·

Centre of Food Technology
Centre of Computer Education & Training
Centre of Fashion Design & Technology

Centre of Media Studies
Centre of e-Learning Initiatives

Admission to the UG, PG and Diploma courses offered by the Centres (Table.01):
Centre
Centre of
Media
Studies

Centre of
Computer
Education

Centre of
Food
Technology

Courses
B.A. in Media Studies
Post Graduate Diploma in
Photojournalism & Visual
Communication

10-June-2015
(Wednesday)

Master in Computer
Applications(MCA)

10-June-2015
(Wednesday)

Bachelor of Computer
Applications(BCA)

10-June-2015
(Wednesday)

Post Graduate Diploma in
Computer
Applications(PGDCA)

10-June-2015
(Wednesday)

M.Sc. Food Technology

11-June-2015
(Thursday)

M.Sc. Nutritional Science

11-June-2015
(Thursday)

PG Diploma in Food Tech. &
Processing
Centre of
Fashion
Design &
Technology
(For
females
only)

Entrance Date
10-June-2015
(Wednesday)

B.A in Fashion Design &
Technology
Two Year Advanced
Diploma in Fashion Design
and Technology
Two Year Diploma in
Computer Aided Fashion
Design

Date of interview
will be declared
later
11-June-2015
(Thursday)
11-June-2015
(Thursday)

Eligibility*
10+2 in any discipline
Graduation in any discipline

Admission Procedure
Written & interview of all
the candidates,
Admission by the
process of counseling.

10+2+3 Course from any discipline
(B.A./B.Sc./B.Com.) from any
recognized university/institution or any
other examination equivalent with
mathematical aptitude.
10+2 with Mathematics (science group)
from any recognized Board or its
equivalent
10+2+3 in any stream from any
recognized university or its equivalent
Degree with mathematical aptitude.

Written & subsequent
interview of the shortlisted candidates.
Admission by the
process of counseling.

B.Sc. Examination from any recognized
University with Chemistry or
Biochemistry as one of their major or
minor subjects, B.Sc. (Home Science),
B.Sc. (Home Economics) or equivalent
examination, B.Sc. in
Agriculture/Agriculture Sciences or
B.Tech./B.E.
Only female candidates who have
passed intermediate or equivalent
examination

Written & subsequent
interview of all the
candidates. Admission
by the process of
counseling.
Selection on the basis of
interview.

Selection on the basis of
written test.

Written & interview of all
the candidates.
Admission by the
process of counseling.

11-June-2015
(Thursday)

§ Seats, Fee Structure, Syllabus for Entrance, Model Questions etc. (URL: http://www.allduniv-ips.in/admission.php)
§ The date of the interview will be declared at the time of the written test.
§ The fees once deposited by the candidate at the time of admission will not be refunded

* Candidates appearing in the final year of the qualifying examination may also apply but they have to produce the pass mark-sheet of
the final year at the time of the Admission.

How to obtain Admission 2015 Registration Form?
Online Registration can be done at the University’s website www.aupravesh.org and candidates can submit it
without having to visit the University for collecting and submitting the form. OMR Forms along with information booklet will
also be available from Pravesh Bhawan, Chaitham Lines, University of Allahabad, Allahabad-211002 U.P. on all working days
between 10.00 a.m. to 4.00 p.m. on cash payment of:
1) For UG & PG Courses: Rs. 600/- for General and OBC candidates and Rs. 300/- for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled
Tribe and Differentially Able applicants.
2) For Diploma: Rs. 300/- for all candidates.
Online registration at website www.aupravesh.org is starting from 12th March, 2015 and sale of OMR forms from
Pravesh Bhawan will start from 18th March, 2015. Last date of online submission and submission of OMR form is 20th May, 2015.
Page 2 of 16

Applicants are hereby informed that in no case the Registration Form shall be sent to them by post.

Registration Form: Registration can be done by any of the two options.
(a)
(b)

Online Registration at www.aupravesh.org
OMR Registration Form

How to fill OMR Registration Form?

1. OMR Registration Form, designed on Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) technology in which 'oval' filled by black
2.
3.
4.

5.

6.

ballpoint pen are recognized by the computer and are preserved in electronic form for future use.
The OMR Registration Form is an important document. Do not mutilate or spoil it. Do not fold it from any other place, which
has not been specified. Do not write any other thing unless otherwise asked to and do not make any symbol/mark on it
either by pen or pencil.
The University may cancel the candidature of such applicants who furnish incomplete, wrong or deliberate
misinformation; or conceal the facts in Online/OMR Registration Form.
The information provided and the data supplied by the applicant through the Registration Form shall be preserved in the
University. The University shall use the data for various purposes; hence, in no case shall any change be allowed at a later
stage. Therefore, all the information must be furnished correctly, completely and clearly by the applicant himself/herself as
per the instruction given in the website or information booklet.
If an applicant fails to follow the instructions/rules printed in this booklet and fills the OMR Registration Form illegibly or
the Form is left incomplete; and, because of these reasons the computer fails to scan the OMR Registration Form, the
applicant shall be responsible for such an error and in that case the University reserves the right to cancel the
candidature of such an applicant.
In the OMR Registration Form the required 'ovals' are to be blackened carefully by a black ballpoint pen. Fill the
corresponding boxes using capital letters of English alphabet clearly by a black ballpoint pen only. Write only one letter
in one box. Be careful and avoid cutting/overwriting.

Do not enclose any document along with the filled-in OMR Registration Form at the time of submission.
A special identification mark (bar code
) has been provided on each OMR/Registration Form, which is
unique for every form. Therefore, submit the original Registration Form only to the University Admission Office
at Pravesh Bhawan. A photocopy or any other copy of the Registration Form or its duplicate will in no case be
accepted.
9. The applicant should fill and sign at specified places in the OMR Registration Form by himself/herself. If at any stage
the signature of the applicant is found to be forged or has not been done by the candidate himself/herself, his/her
candidature is liable to be cancelled.
10. The Acknowledgment slip (which is part of the OMR Registration Form) will be detached at the time of
the submission of the form at the Pravesh Bhavan counter of the University and will be returned to the
applicant or his/her representative after stamping it.
7.
8.

Column wise filling of OMR Registration Form
Note: (a) The information in the OMR Registration Form should be filled by using black ballpoint pen only.
(b) This form should be filled with utmost care and without any error. The applicant is advised to practice filling of
the 'form' on a photocopy of the OMR Registration Form first then check the errors (if any) and fill the original
form correctly.
(c) Please preserve a photocopy of the completely and correctly filled-in OMR Registration Form for
future reference.
Column 1: Test Desired: Blacken only one oval against the course you are eligible and interested in.
Column 2: Name of the Applicant: Write your name as it appears in your High School or equivalent certificate, using
CAPITAL LETTERS. Blacken the corresponding ovals. Do not write Surname first. Leave one box blank
between First and Middle name and one between Middle and Surname in the same order. Do not use Mr. /
Shri / Kumari / Shrimati / Dr. / Ms. etc before the name. Firstly the applicant must ensure the number of
boxes required for writing the full name on a blank paper. Enough boxes have been provided for the
purpose. Yet the name may be condensed in the following manner. For example, SACHIDANAND HIRANAND
VATSYAYAN AGYEYA may be written as SACHIDANAND H V AGYEYA.
Page 3 of 16

Column 3: Date of Birth: Enter one digit in each box indicating the date, month and year of your birth. If you are using
a single digit, write 'Zero' before it. Blacken the corresponding ovals.
Column 4: Subject Code: Write the Subject Code (as in column 1) in the boxes and blacken the corresponding ovals.
Column 5: Social Category: Blacken the corresponding oval representing your social category. Reservation shall apply
as per Central Government rule, for Candidates of Reserved Category qualifying in General Merit shall be
given seats of General Candidates. No change in category shall be entertained after submission of OMR
Registration Form.
Column 6: Differentially Abled: If differentially abled choose ‘Yes’ else ‘No’ and blacken the corresponding oval.
Column 7: Annual Family Income: Blacken the oval of the applicable option i.e. less than 1 lac, between 1-2 lacs and
more than 2 lacs.
Column 8: Gender: Blacken the oval representing your gender.
Column 9: If Minority: Blacken the oval of the minority community you belong to (i.e. Buddhist, Christian, Jain, Muslim, Parsi,
Sikh, Others).
Column 10: State/UT code: Write the code of the State / UT you belong to as given in the column 21.
Column 11: Photograph: Paste your recent clear colour photograph (3.4 x 4.5 cm), bearing your name, in the box provided
for this purpose (The applicant is advised to get him-self/herself photographed by putting the name plate in front of
him/her, so that the photograph should bear the name of the applicant clearly). No attestation is required on the
photograph. It is to be noted that the same photograph shall be used on the admit card and attendance sheet of
the Admission-2015 and also on other important documents such as identity card, admit card of main
examination, etc. after admission. In no case the photograph shall be changed after admission to the course.
Column 12: Name and full Mailing Address: The applicant should write in BLOCK letters (using black ball point pen)
his/her name, full postal address and also the pin code, where he/she wants his/her admit card to be posted. The
postal address should clearly bear applicant's name, father/guardian's name, House no., Street no., Mohalla /
Village / Tola, post Office, District and State. The scanned image of the address furnished by the applicant will, as
such, be used for generating the postal address. Also mention your mobile number.
Column 13: Signature: Put your signature in the specified box. This signature should match the signature of applicant
at the time of Admission Test. In case the two signatures don't match, the applicant to be debarred from the
Test.
Column 14: Father's Name: Fill in the complete name of your father in the boxes and blacken the corresponding ovals as per
the instruction given in Column 2.
Column 15: Nationality: Blacken the appropriate oval whether (i) Foreigner (ii) Indian (iii) NRI
Column 16: Mobile Number: Write the Mobile Number in the boxes and blacken the corresponding ovals.
Column 17: Mother's Name: Fill in the complete name of your mother in the boxes. Leave one box blank between First and
Middle name and one between Middle and Surname in the same order
Column 18: Under Graduate and Postgraduate Courses:
Qualifying Examination: If appearing/result awaited in/of the qualifying examination choose ‘Appeared’
and if passed the qualifying examination choose ‘Passed’ and blacken the corresponding oval.
Qualifying (10+2) Examination passed from: Blacken the oval representing the name of the
Examination Board, which has conducted the qualifying examination, i.e. intermediate or equivalent
examination (10+2). In case, if the Examination Board does not fall within the first three categories, blacken
the category, 'OTHERS'.
Qualifying (10+2) Examination Year: Write the year of the Qualifying Examination in the boxes and
blacken the corresponding ovals.
Percentage Obtained (10+2): Enter one digit in each box indicating the percentage. Blacken the corresponding
ovals.
Page 4 of 16

Column 18(a): High School Examination passed from: Blacken the oval representing the name of the Examination
Board, which has conducted the High School examination or equivalent examination. In case, if the
Examination Board does not fall within the first three categories, blacken the category, 'OTHERS'.
High School Examination Year: Write the year of the Qualifying Examination in the boxes and blacken
the corresponding ovals.
Column 19: Only for Postgraduate Courses:
Qualifying Examination: If appearing/result awaited in/of the qualifying examination choose ‘Appeared’
and if passed the qualifying examination choose ‘Passed’ and blacken the corresponding oval.
Qualifying Examination Passed: Blacken the oval representing the name of the Examination Passed
B.Sc/BCA/BA/B.Com/Others. In case, if the examination does not fall within the first four categories, blacken
the category, 'OTHERS'.
Qualifying Examination Year: Write the year of the Qualifying Examination in the boxes and blacken the
corresponding ovals.
Percentage Obtained: Enter one digit in each box indicating the percentage. Blacken the corresponding ovals.
Email: Write your functional email address legibly.
Column 20: Declaration: Read the declaration and put your signature at appropriate place on the other side of the OMR
Registration From.
Column 21: State/Union Territory code to be used for filling the column No. 10.
Column 22: Acknowledgment: The applicant must fill the Acknowledgment slip by providing his/her name, Father's name,
Test desired and mailing address (As given in Column no. 12). This acknowledgment shall be detached and be
given back to the applicant after the University receives the filled-in OMR Registration Form by hand.

How to submit the Form?
1)

After completing the OMR Registration Form the applicants should submit the same in prescribed envelop at Pravesh
Bhavan (Chatham Line), University of Allahabad between 18th March and 20th May, 2015 from 10:00 a.m.
to 4.00 p.m. personally/or through representative and receive the acknowledgment slip.
2) An eligible applicant desirous of applying for admission to more than one stream/faculty, shall be
required to fill separate Registration Form for each stream/faculty.
3) The applicant must submit each Registration Form in a separate envelop and super scribe the name of the course
applied for.
IMPORTANT NOTE: The University will accept OMR registration form by Postal -Registered or Speed Post
Admit Card: Admit Card for all the valid applications received by the University will be processed and enabled on the
website www.aupravesh.org. The Candidates can download their admit card from the website after entering their OMR
Application Number and date of birth in case of OMR Registration and Application ID and Date of Birth in case of Online
Registration. Admit Cards will be uploaded for all the valid applications by 1st June, 2015. University will not be sending
any admit card by post or distribute them from the counters.
Test Centres: Test Centre will be at Allahabad only. The name of the Test Centers will be explicitly written on the
Admit Card of the applicant and will not be changed in any case. No traveling allowances will be paid to the applicant
appearing in the Test. If the total number of candidates for a particular centre is not sufficient then the University
reserves the right to cancel that centre and allocate the nearest centre to such candidates.
Test Schedule: Test Schedule is as per the above Table 01. Timing of the exam will be explicitly written on the Admit
Card of the applicant and will not be changed in any case.
Note: 1. Even if the day of the admission test is declared a Public holiday, the examination will be held as per above schedule.
2. The applicants are advised to reach the Test Centre half an hour before the commencement of the examination.

Interview Schedule: Schedule of the interview will be declared later.
Result: The results can be seen on the university website www.aupravesh.org / www.allduniv-ips.in and notice
board of Pravesh Bhawan.

Counseling and Admission Process
1. Admissions will take place by the process of ‘Counselling'. The details of information regarding the counselling will be
available on University website www.allduniv.ac.in, www.aupravesh.org and www.allduniv-ips.in. No information regarding
'Counselling' will be given to the candidate individually, and no enquiries in this regard will be entertained.
2. The purpose of 'Counselling' is to help provide information regarding the availability of combination/seats in accordance
to the merit.
3. The candidates will be required to present themselves in person for the counselling and admission on the announced
(to be announced later) date, time and place. If a candidate fails to present himself on such date and time, or he fails to
bring required documents/fees etc. he/she will forfeit his/her claim of admission to the particular course/ combination of
subject and the candidate next in merit will be accommodated against such seat/combination of subjects.
4. In all the courses of the Institute, employee ward will be admitted as per University rules.
For further individual queries the candidate may visit the following:
1) Website of the Institute: www.allduniv-ips.in
2) Mail to: [email protected]
3) Visit the Respective Centres.
Page 5 of 16

Guidelines, Syllabus and Sample questions for
Entrance Test 2015

Page 6 of 16

Centre of Food Technology
M.Sc. Food Technology, M.Sc. Nutritional Sciences
Guideline for the Entrance Test
1.
2.
3.

Admission will be done on the basis of Entrance Test and subsequent interview, which has to be faced by all the candidates.
The written test and interview shall carry 150 marks and 100 marks respectively. The final result shall be prepared out of total 250
marks.
The Written Test will be of TWO hours duration containing 150 multiple choice objective questions. The question paper will be
divided into three sections, Section A (General Awareness) and Section B (Chemistry) having 50 questions, each is compulsory
for all the candidates, whereas, candidates are required to attempt any one of the following subject groups from Section C having 50
questions:
1. Biology Group
2. Maths Group
3. Food and Dairy Technology Group
4. Agriculture Group
5. Home Science Group

Sample Questions:
Section A
(1)

If X % of 1400.00 Rs. is 119.00 then what is X:
(a) 17
(b) 28

(c) 8.5

d) 7.5

(2)

Milk is lacking of:
(a) Ca

(c) Fe

(d) Lipids

b) Protein

Section B
(1)

Which compound can exist in a dipolar (Zwitterion) structure?
(a) C6H5CH2CH(N=CH2)COOH
(b) (CH3)2 CH.CH(NH2)COOH
(c) (CH3)2 CH.CH(NH2)COOH
(d) COOH.CH2CH2COCOOH

(2)

Which of the following is not an electrophile?
(a) NH3
(b) BF3

(d) HG2+

(c) AlCl3

Section C
(Biology group)
(1)

The enzymes for electron transport system are located in the:
(a) Plastid
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Ribosomes

(d) Mitochondria

(2)

A plant cell attains turgidity due to:
(a) Electrolysis
(b) Plasmolysis

(d) Exosmosis

(c) Endosmosis

(Maths Group)
(1)

(2)

Amongst the following, the one which does not match correctly is :
(a) Raman effect
- Scattering of light
(b) Thomson effect
(c) Hall effect
- Work function
(d) Photoelectric effect

- Thermoelectricity
- Quantum nature of light

The mean translational kinetic energy per molecule of a gas is:
(a) 2/3 kT
(b) 3/2 kT
(c) 1/2 kT

(d) kT

(Food & Dairy Technology Group)
(1)

(2)

Yogurt is produced by:
(a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus only
(c) Streptococcus thermophilus only

(b) Lactobacillus acidophilus only
(d) Both a and b

Butter is a colloid formed solution when:
(a) Fat is dispersed in water
(c) Water is dispersed in fat

(b) Fat globules are dispersed in water
(d) None of the above

(Agriculture Group)
(1)

Where is Sugarcane Breeding Institute located:
(a) Lucknow
(b) Mysore

(c) Coimbatore

(d) Ludhiana

(2)

The man made cereal is:
(a) Tritical

(c) Zea mays

(d) Oryza sativa

(b) Tritical aestivum

(Home Science Group)
(1)

Which one of the following minerals is necessary to control heart beat:
(a) Sodium
(b) Sulphur
(c) Potassium

(2)

If albumin is finding a way into urine the person is likely to be suffering from failure of:
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Heart
(d) Spleen

Page 7 of 16

(d) Iron

Centre of Fashion Design & Technology
·

BA in Fashion Design & Technology

·

2 Yr Advanced Diploma in Fashion Design & Technology

·

2 Yr Diploma in Computer Aided Fashion Design

Guideline for the Entrance Test/Interview
1.

Admission will be done on the basis of Entrance Test and subsequent interview, which has to be faced by all the candidates.

2.

The written test and interview shall carry 200 marks and 100 marks respectively. The final result shall be prepared out of total 300

marks.
3.

The Written Test will be of TWO hours duration containing Section(I) 150 multiple choice questions on fashion awareness, general
awareness, information technology etc.; and Section (II) drawing and sketching - Applicants are required to bring Colour Pencil Set
along with HB Pencil for drawing and sketching.

Sample Questions
Section-I
1.

Which city is known as the birth place of the Fashion:
(a) Paris
(b) New York
(c) Singapore

(d) Delhi

2.

Vouge is a:
(a) Company

(d) Model

3.

Which of these influences fashion:
(a) Geographical Condition
(c) Economic & Political Condition

(b) City

(c) Magazine
(b) Cultural Values
(d) All the above

4.

Which among these is a cool colour:
(a) Red
(b) Orange

(c) Blue

(d) Maroon

5.

Find the odd one out:
(a) Lenhga
(b) Salwar

(c) Jeans

(d) Kurti

Batik printing is done by:
(a) Wax
(b) Pastel colors

(c) Tie & Die

(d) Oil colours

7.

Silk is obtained from:
(a) Insects
(b) Worm

(c) Tree

(d) Flower

8.

Floral, strips, checks are types of:
(a) Print
(b) Color

(c) Garment

(d) Accessories

6.

9.

Raymonds : Shooting Shirting : Parag : ________
(a) Salwar Suit
(b) Sarees
(c) Frock

(d) Dupatta

10.

Which political leader has started the trend of wearing a Poncho over a saree:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Jaya Lalita
(c) Jayaprada
(d) Uma Bharati

11.

The Bellbottoms were in fashion during:
(a) The 60s
(b) The 70s

(c) 90s

(d) None of these

12.

Wholesalers & retailers are related to:
(a) Marketing
(b) Manufacturing

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

'AUTOCAD' is associated with:
(a) Computer
(b) Textile

(c) Economic Sector

(d) Agriculture

14.

Multiplication of 6789 and 4673 will be:
(a) 31734596
(b) 31273526

(c) 31724997

(d) 31734996

15.

Sleeves are attached with the armhole curve of the garment:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can't say

13.

(d) None of these

Section-II

1.

Make a female figure in any posture and dress it in casual college going outfit with proper hairstyle
and accessories and color it with color pencil.

2.

Make a female figure and dress it for wedding party.
Page 8 of 16

Centre of Media Studies

P G Diploma in Photojournalism & Visual Communication
Guidelines for Entrance Test:
1.
2.
3.

Admission will be done on the basis of Entrance Test and subsequent interview, which has to be faced by all the candidates.
The written test of 200 marks and the interview shall carry 100 marks. The final result shall be prepared out of total 300 marks.
The Written Test will be of THREE hours duration containing (i) 100 multiple choice questions on general awareness, media, photography,
information technology etc.; and (ii) questions of descriptive type.

Sample Questions

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

11-

12-

7.

Qslcqd ds ek/;e ls bftIV esa ØkfUr ykus dk dke
fdlus fd;k&
(a) okby xkfue
(b) ukby xkfue
(c) ekdZ tqdjs cxZ
(d) tSd nksjth
v[kckjksa dk laxgz ky; ^U;wft;e* dgk¡ fLFkr gS&
(a) Hkksiky
(b) okf'kaxVu
(c) U;w;kdZ
(d) eqEcbZ
^fx¶V flVh* dgka fodflr fd;k tk jgk gS&
(a) xqtjkr
(b) dukZVd
(c) egkjk"Vª
(d) rfeyukMq
ghjks gkaMk dEiuh dk u;k uke gks x;k gS&
(a) ghjks eksVlZ
(b) ghjks eksVks dkiZ
(c) ghjks gkaMk dkiksZj's ku
(d) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
lksfu;k xka/kh ds thou ij vk/kkfjr iqLrd ^n jsM lkM+h*
ds ys[kd tsfo;j eksjks fdl Hkk"kk ds lkfgR;dkj gSa&
(a) bVkfy;u
(b) vaxst
z h
(c) Lisfu'k
(d) vÝhdh
dEI;wVj ok;jl gS&
(a) dEI;wVj izksxkz e
(b) dEI;wVj dh Hkk"kk
(c) gkMZos;j
(d) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

J`a[kyk dks iwjk dhft,& 9, 15, 27, 51, 99, ?
(a) 165
(c) 195

(b) 180
(d) 190

8.

He walked ............. the long corridor leading to
the play ground
(a) by
(b) thorough
(c) threw
(d) through

9.

vrqy dlcsdj QksVksxkz Qh dh fdl 'kk[kk ds
fo'ks"kK gSa\
QksVks i=dkfjrk
(b) QS'ku ,oa ekWMy QksVksxkz Qh
okbYM ykbQ QksVksxkz Qh
VªSosy QksVksxkz Qh
fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr dhft,&
(A) dkfMZ;ksykWftLV
(i) vk¡[k
(B) usÝksykWftLV
(ii) ;wfjujh V~;c
w
(C) ;wjksykWftLV
(iii) ân;
(D) vkdqfyLV
(iv) xqnkZ
(a)
(c)
(d)

10.

(a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(c) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

(b) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(d) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

fuEufyf[kr fgUnh lekpkj dk vaxzsth esa vuqokn dhft,&
'kgjh xjhcksa dks lLrs esa Nr nsxh ljdkj
ubZ fnYyhA dsUnz ljdkj us 'kgjksa ds >qXxhokfl;ksa dks iDds edku nsus ds fy, jktho xka/kh vkokl ;kstuk ds igys pj.k dks
eatjw h iznku dj nh gSA blds rgr dsUnz ljdkj 50 Qhlnh lgk;rk miyC/k djk,xhA
;kstuk ns'k ds 250 'kgjksa ds fy, gksxh ftudh vkcknh ,d yk[k ;k blls T;knk gSA blds vykok] vuqlwfpr tutkfr ds
cPpksa dks feyus okyh Nk=o`fRr esa djhc 70 Qhlnh dh o`f) dh xbZ gSA lkFk gh] vc nks yk[k rd dh vk; okys vfHkHkkodksa
ds cPps Hkh Nk=o`fRr ds gdnkj gksax]s tcfd igys ;g lhek 1-45 yk[k FkhA iz/kkuea=h Mk- eueksgu flag dh v/;{krk esa gqbZ
vkfFkZd ekeyksa dh dSfcusV lfefr dh cSBd esa ;g QSlyk fy;k x;kA

fuEufyf[kr vaxst
z h lekpkj dk fgUnh esa vuqokn dhft,&

Fans get stuck at the ticket fences

LONDON: Olympic organisers face a growing backslash from hundreds of thousands of sports fans who
woke up on Wednesday to find they were ticketless, despite some bidding thousands of pounds for tickets.
Even Boris Johnson, the mayor of London, failed to secure any tickets from his personal application, but
said it proves that the process was fair. "I am proud to be British nation where the mayor of the host city goes
into a ballot for tickets for his family and gets rejected", he said,. But others were crying foul. The controversial
ballot, held after 20 million people applied for the six million tickets, was criticised for effectively favouring
wealthier buyers who could afford to make multiple bids.

13-

fuEufyf[kr ij fVIi.kh fyf[k, ¼'kCn lhek 75 'kCn½&

14-

(a)
[kki iapk;r (Khap Panchayats)
(b) czsfdax U;wt (Breaking News)
fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlh ,d fo"k; ij vf/kdre 150 'kCnksa esa vius fopkj nhft,&

Write short notes on the following (word limit 75 words)

Give your views on any one of the following in 150 words.

¼a½

vjc txr esa yksdrkaf=d mHkkj esa lks'ky ehfM;k dh Hkwfedk

¼b½

isM U;wt dk Q.Mk yksdra= dks uqdlku igq¡pk jgk gSA

Role of social media in the democrating uprising in the Arab word.
Funda of Paid News is undermining democracy.

Page 9 of 16

B. A. in Media Studies:

Guidelines for Entrance Test:
1.
2.
3.

Admission will be done on the basis of Entrance Test and subsequent interview, which has to be faced by all the candidates.
The written test of 200 marks and the interview shall carry 100 marks. The final result shall be prepared out of total 300 marks.
The Written Test will be of THREE hours duration containing (i) 100 multiple choice questions on general awareness, media, photography,
information technology etc.; and (ii) questions of descriptive type.

Sample Questions

fdl rkuk'kkg us ^tchck ,aM n fdax* miU;kl fy[kk gS]
ftl ij ^n fMVsDVj* fQYe cuh gS&
(a) ln~nke gqlSu
(b) eksgEen xn~nkQh
(c) gksLuh eqckjd
(d) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
fodhyhDl ds laLFkkid dk uke gS&
(a) ,ysu ikWy
(b) tqfy;ku vlkats
(c) fteh osYl
(d) tqfy;ku vkslkats
^vej fp=dFkk* dkfed cqd fy[kus okys ys[kd dkSu Fks&
(a) vkj- d`".kewfrZ
(b) vuar ibZ
(c) vkfcn lqrhZ
(d) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
vkbZih,y&4 dk f[krkc thrus okyh Vhe psUubZ lqij fdaXl
ds f[kykfM+;ksa us fdl jax dh Mªsl igu j[kh Fkh&
(a) ihys jax dh
(b) yky jax dh
(c) gjs jax dh
(d) uhys jax dh
^fgUnqLrku* v[kckj fdl dEiuh }kjk izdkf'kr gksrk gS&
(a) fgUnqLrku VkbEl fyfeVsM
(b) ,p-Vh- ehfM;k fyfeVsM
(c) fgUnqLrku ehfM;k osUplZ fyfeVsM
(d) fgUnqLrku osUplZ fyfeVsM

1.

'The Dictator' film based on the novel 'Jabiba
and the King' is written by:
(a) Saddam Husain
(b) Mohd. Gaddafi
(c) Hosni Mubarak
(d) None of these

2.

Founder of Wikileaks is:
(a) Allen Paul
(b) Julian Assange
(c) Jimmy Wales
(d) Julian Osange

3.

Who wrote comic book 'Amar Chitrakatha'
(a) R. Krishnamurthy (b) Anant Pai
(c) Abid Surti
(d) None of these

4.

What was the colour of the dress of Chennai
Super Kings, the IPL-4 champion:
(a) Yellow
(b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Blue

5.

'Hindustan' newspaper is published by:
(a) Hindustan Times Limited
(b) HT Media Limited
(c) Hindustan Media Ventures Limited
(d) Hindustan Ventures Limited

MhVhih dk iwjk :i gS&
(a) MkVk Vw ist
(c) MsVk Vsyh fizaVj

6.
(b)
(d)

Full form of DTP is
(a) Data to page
(c) Data Tele Printer

(b) Desktop Publishing
(d) Disc to Pendrive

7.

3058 ÷ 27 x 3 = ?
(a) 360
(c) 340

(b) 348
(d) 330

7.

3058 ÷ 27 x 3 = ?
(a) 360
(c) 340

(b) 348
(d) 330

8-

fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdUgha pkj ij fVIi.kh fyf[k, ¼'kCn lhek 75 'kCn½&

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

MsLdVkWi ifCyf'kax
fMLd Vw isuMªkbo

Write short notes on any FOUR of the following (word limit 75 words):

(i)

lks'ky usVofdZax

(ii) bftIV fjoksY;w'ku Qkj MseksØslh

Social Networking

9-

Egypt Revolution for Democracy

fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlh ,d fo"k; ij vf/kdre 150 'kCnksa esa vius fopkj nhft,&
Give your views on any one of the following in maximum 150 words:

¼v½ gekjs liuksa dk fo'ofo|ky;

¼c½

Our Dream University

10-

fj;fyVh 'kks esa cPpksa dh Hkkxhnkjh % lgh ;k xyr
Participation of children in reality show : right or wrong

fuEufyf[kr vaxzsth lekpkj dk fgUnh esa vuqokn dhft,&

Fans get stuck at the ticket fences

LONDON: Olympic organisers face a growing backslash from hundreds of thousands of sports fans who woke up on
Wednesday to find they were ticketless, despite some bidding thousands of pounds for tickets.
Even Boris Johnson, the mayor of London, failed to secure any tickets from his personal application, but said it proves
that the process was fair. "I am proud to be British nation where the mayor of the host city goes into a ballot for tickets for his
family and gets rejected", he said,. But others were crying foul. The controversial ballot, held after 20 million people applied for
the six million tickets, was criticised for effectively favouring wealthier buyers who could afford to make multiple bids.

11. fuEufyf[kr fgUnh lekpkj dk vaxzsth esa vuqokn dhft,&
'kgjh xjhcksa dks lLrs esa Nr nsxh ljdkj
ubZ fnYyhA dsUnz ljdkj us 'kgjksa ds >qXxhokfl;ksa dks iDds edku nsus ds fy, jktho xka/kh vkokl ;kstuk ds igys pj.k dks eatwjh iznku dj
nh gSA blds rgr dsUnz ljdkj 50 Qhlnh lgk;rk miyC/k djk,xhA ;kstuk ns'k ds 250 'kgjksa ds fy, gksxh ftudh vkcknh ,d yk[k ;k
blls T;knk gSA blds vykok] vuqlwfpr tutkfr ds cPpksa dks feyus okyh Nk=o`fRr esa djhc 70 Qhlnh dh o`f) dh xbZ gSA lkFk gh] vc nks
yk[k rd dh vk; okys vfHkHkkodksa ds cPps Hkh Nk=o`fRr ds gdnkj gksaxs] tcfd igys ;g lhek 1-45 yk[k FkhA iz/kkuea=h Mk- eueksgu flag dh
v/;{krk esa gqbZ vkfFkZd ekeyksa dh dSfcusV lfefr dh cSBd esa ;g QSlyk fy;k x;kA
Page 10 of 16

Centre of Computer Education

Master of Computer Applications (MCA)
Guideline for the Entrance Test
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

MCA Admissions will be done on the basis of Entrance Test and subsequent interview of the short-listed
candidates.
The entrance examination for admission to the MCA Course consists of a written test of 150 Marks.
The interview shall carry 100 marks.
The final result shall be prepared out of total 250 marks.
There shall be one paper of three hours, comprising of 150 objective/short answer type questions. The paper
shall have 70 questions from Mathematics, 40 questions from Analytical Ability and Logical Reasoning, General
Knowledge and General Science, 20 questions from Computer Awareness and 20 questions from General
English.

Syllabus for the Entrance Test
The questions in this paper will cover: Logical Reasoning, Quantitative Reasoning, Intermediate level Mathematics,
Vocabulary, Computer Awareness, English Comprehension and Verbal Ability

Mathematics:
Algebra: Fundamental Operations in Algebra, Expansion, Factorization, Quadratic Equations, Indices, Logarithms,
Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic Progressions, Binomial Theorem, Permutations and Combinations;
Probability and Statistics : Basic concepts of Probability Theory, Averages, Frequency Distributions, and Measures
of Dispersions and Skewness Binomial, Poisson, Normal Distributions, Curve Fitting, and Principle of Least Squares,
Correlation and Regression.
Arithmetic: Ratios and Proportions, Problems on Time-Work, Distance-Speed, Percentage.
Basic Set Theory and Functions: Set, Relations and Mappings.
Mensuration: Areas, Triangles and Quadrilaterals, Area and Circumference of Circles, Volumes and Surface Areas
of Simple Solids such as Cubes, Spheres, Cylinders and Cones.
Limits, Continuity and Differentiability, Differentiation, Application of Derivatives, Indefinite and Definite Integration,
Differential Equations, Co-ordinates and Straight Lines, Circles, Conic Sections, Complex Numbers, Sequences and
Series, Exponential and Log Series, Determinants and Matrices.

Analytical Ability, Logical Reasoning, General Knowledge and General Science:
General Aptitude: The main objective of this section is to assess the general aptitude of the candidate to pursue
computer application and software profession.

Computer Awareness:
Computer Basics: Organization of a Computer, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Structure of Instructions in CPU,
Input / Output Devices, Computer Memory, Memory Organization, Back-up Devices. Operating System.
Data Representation: Representation of Characters, Integers, and Fractions, Binary and Hexadecimal
Representations, Binary Arithmetic: Addition, Subtraction, Division, and Multiplication. Logic Algebra: Boolean
Algebra, Theorems, Switching Functions, Disjunctive and Conjunctive, Canonical forms of Switching Functions,
Combinational and Sequential Circuits.
Computer Architecture: Block Structure of Computers, Communication Between Processor and I/O Devices,
Interrupts.
Computer Language: Algorithms, Flow Chart, Control Structures, Design of Algorithm, Concepts of Low Level,
Intermediate Level and High Level Language Programming in ‘C’.

General English:
Questions in this section will be designed to test the candidates' general understanding of the English language.
There will be questions on the following topics: Comprehension, Vocabulary, Basic English Grammar (like usage of
correct forms of verbs, prepositions and articles), Word power, Synonyms and Antonyms, Meanings of words and
phrases, Technical writing.

Page 11 of 16

Sample Questions

MCA
Sample Question Paper
1. TYRANNY means
a) Misrule

b) Power

c) Madness

d) Cruelty

2. The synonym of BELITTLE is
a) Diminish
b) Mock

c) Disparage

d) Scott

3. One who uses fear as a weapon of power is called a
a) Anarchist
b) Terrorist

c) Bully

d) Bad man

4. For any complex number z, the minimum value of |z| + |z-2i| is:
a) 0
b)
2
c)
1
5. The sum of the series
a)

n
2n + 1

1
1
1
+ 2
+ 2
+ L upto 2n terms is:
2 -1 4 -1 6 -1
1
1
b)
c)
2n + 1
n +1
2

6. Find the value of x which satisfies log x+1 (x2-3x+1) =1
a) 3
b)7
c) 4

é i - iù
ú & B=
i
i
ë
û

7. If A= ê
a) 4B

3

6

c) -128B
4

b) 4/ 3
2

2

d) -64B

2

9. The value of expression (1/cos290°) + (1/

3 /4

4
2n - 1

d) 0

8. If sinx+sin x+sin x=1 then cos x-4cos x+8cos x is equal to:
a) 0
b) 2
c) 4

a)

d)

é 1 - 1ù
8
ê - 1 1 ú then A equals:
ë
û
b) 128B

2

d) None of these

2

d) 8

3 sin250°) is equal to:
c) 2/ 3

d)

3 /2

2

10. If the two circles x +y +2gx+2fy=0 and x +y +2g1x+2f1y=0 touch each other, then:
a) f1g=fg1
b) ff1=gg1
c) f2+g2=f12+g12
d) None of these
11. Given f ¢ (2)=6 and f ¢ (1)=4,

lim
h - >0

a) 3/2

f ( 2 h + 2 + h 2 ) - f ( 2)
is equal to:
f (h - h 2 + 1) - f (1)

b) 3

c) 5/2

d) -3

12. If the sum of four integers in arithmetic progress is 24 and their product is 945, then the numbers are:
a) 3,5,7,9
b) 5,8,11,14
c) 4,8,12,16
d) None of these
13. Choose the pair/group of words having the same relationship as Wind : Hurricane
a) Clouds: Rain
b) Sky: Universe
c) Thunder: Lightning d) Water: Life
14. The orbit of Geo-stationary satellite is called
a) Stationary Orbit
b) Parking Orbit

c) Radial Orbit

d)None of these

15. How many address lines are needed to address each memory location in a 2048X4 memory chip
a) 10
b) 11
c) 8
d) 12

Page 12 of 16

Bachelor of Computer Applications (BCA)
Guideline for the Entrance Test
a)

BCA Admissions will be done on the basis of Entrance Test and subsequent interview of short-listed candidates.

b)

The entrance examination for admission to the BCA Course will consists of a written test of 150 Marks.

c)

The interview shall carry 100 marks.

d)

The final result shall be prepared out of total 250 marks.

e)

There shall be one paper of three hours, comprising of 150 objective/short answer type questions. The paper shall
have 70 questions from Mathematics, 40 questions from Analytical Ability and Logical Reasoning, General
Knowledge and General Science, 20 questions from Computer Awareness and 20 questions from General English.

Syllabus for the Entrance Test
The questions in this paper will cover: Logical Reasoning, Quantitative Reasoning, Intermediate level Mathematics,
Vocabulary, Intermediate level Computer Awareness, English Comprehension and Verbal Ability.

Mathematics:
Algebra: Fundamental Operations in Algebra, Expansion, Factorization, Quadratic Equations, Indices, Logarithms,
Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic Progressions, Binomial Theorem, Permutations and Combinations;
Probability and Statistics : Basic concepts of Probability Theory, Averages, Frequency Distributions, and Measures
of Dispersions and Skewness Binomial, Poisson, Normal Distributions, Curve Fitting, and Principle of Least Squares,
Correlation and Regression.
Arithmetic: Ratios and Proportions, Problems on Time-Work, Distance-Speed, Percentage.
Basic Set Theory and Functions: Set, Relations and Mappings.
Mensuration: Areas, Triangles and Quadrilaterals, Area and Circumference of Circles, Volumes and Surface Areas
of Simple Solids such as Cubes, Spheres, Cylinders and Cones.
Limits, Continuity and Differentiability, Differentiation, Application of Derivatives, Indefinite and Definite Integration,
Differential Equations, Co-ordinates and Straight Lines, Circles, Conic Sections, Complex Numbers, Sequences and
Series, Exponential and Log Series, Determinants and Matrices.

Analytical Ability, Logical Reasoning, General Knowledge and General Science General Aptitude:
The main objective of this section is to assess the General Aptitude of the candidate to pursue Computer Application
and Software Profession.

Computer Awareness:
Computer Basics: Organization of a Computer, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Structure of Instructions in CPU,
Input / Output Devices, Computer Memory, Memory Organization, Back-up Devices. Operating System.
Data Representation: Representation of Characters, Integers and Fractions, Binary and Hexadecimal
representations, Binary Arithmetic: Addition, Subtraction, Division, Multiplication.
Logic Algebra: Boolean Algebra, Theorems, Switching Functions, Disjunctive and Conjunctive, Canonical forms of
switching functions, Combinational and Sequential Circuits.
Computer Architecture: Block Structure of Computers, Communication between Processor and I/O Devices,
Interrupts.
Computer Language: Algorithms, Flow Chart, Control Structures, Design of Algorithm, Concepts of Low Level,
Intermediate Level and High Level Language Programming in ‘C’.

General English:
Questions in this section will be designed to test the candidates' general understanding of the English language.
There will be questions on the following topics: Comprehension, Vocabulary, Basic English Grammar (like usage of
correct forms of verbs, prepositions and articles), Word power, Synonyms and Antonyms, Meanings of words and
phrases, Technical writing.

Page 13 of 16

BCA
Sample Questions
1.

PLACID means
a) Clear

b) Calm

c) Enjoyable

d) Dull

2.

Food subsidy leads to which of the following?
a) Sense of insecurity
b) Increased dependence
c) Shortage of food grains
d) Decrease in food grains production

3.

Choose the one which can be substituted for the given sentence.
‘An entertainer who performs difficult physical actions’.
a) Clown
b) Gymnast
c) Magician

4.

If z +
3

d) Acrobat

1
1
£ 2 , then z + can not exceed
3
2
z

a) 2

b) 1

2

c)

2 -1

d)

5.

An eight digit number divisible by 9 is to be formed by using 8 digits out of the digits 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9
without replacement. The number of ways in which this can be done is
a) 9!
b) 2(7!)
c) 4(7!)
d) 36(7!)

6.

If

a

b

g

g

a

b

a , b , g are the roots of x 3 + ax 2 + b = 0 then the determinant D = b g a equals

a) - c

3

b) a - 3b

c) a - 3b

3

d) a 3

2

7.

If sin x + sin 2 x = 1 , then the value of cos12 x + 3 cos10 x + 3 cos 8 x + cos 6 x - 1 is equal to
a) 0
b) 1
c) - 1
d) 2

8.

Equation of the normal at a point on the parabola y = 36 x where ordinate is three times its abscissa is
2

a) 2 x + 3 y + 44 = 0
9.

b) 2 x - 3 y + 44 = 0

c) 2 x + 3 y - 44 = 0

d) 2 x - 3 y = 0

The slope of the tangent to the curve represented by x = t 2 + 3t - 8 and y = 2t - 2t - 5 at the point M (2,-1) is
2

a)

7
6

b)

2
3

c)

3
2

d)

6
7

10.

The focal distance of a point on a parabola y = 8 x is 4. Its coordinates are

11.

a) 2,4
b) 2, -4
c) - 2,4
d) a & b both
Select the number group similar to the given group from the following four alternatives. Given group (84, 92, 109)
a) 9, 17, 36
b) 34, 42, 59
c) 7, 16, 32
d) 63, 71, 89

2

12.

The dielectric constant of the material is a measure of
a) The amount of voltage it can withstand before breaking down
b) How well the material concentrates electrostatic lines of force
c) The amount of opposition to the current flow
d) How well the material concentrates magnetic lines of force

13.

Which one of the following statements regarding ac circuits is correct
a) Current & voltages are in phase through a resistor b) Current leads the voltage through a resistor
c) Current lacks the voltage through a resistor
d) None of these

14.

The law of idempotence says
a) A × A = 0
b) A.A=A

15.

c) A+A=A

d) Both b & c

If 40 character records are being written on a tape at 400 bpi, what is the blocking factor that will reduce the
proportion of blank tape area to one third?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 10
d) 15
Page 14 of 16

PG Diploma in Computer Applications (PGDCA)
Guideline for the Entrance Test
1.

Admission will be done on the basis of Entrance Test merit.

2.

Test paper will be of 180 minutes duration of total 150 marks and the interview shall carry 100 marks. The final result
shall be prepared out of total 250 marks.

3.

The paper shall contain 150 objective/short answer type questions.

4.

The paper shall comprise of questions on Computer Awareness, Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, English
Language and General Awareness.

Syllabus for the Entrance Test
Computer Awareness:
Number System: Conversion from one base to another; Basic Knowledge of Combination Circuits and
Sequential Circuits;
Computer Fundamentals: Units of Digital Computer, CPU, Primary & Secondary Memory, I/O Devices, Basic
Programming Concepts, Design of Flow Chart and Algorithms;
Reasoning: Analogy (establishment of similarity in certain aspects, properties and relations); Classification;
Series (the general principle of progression or retrogression);
Quantitative Aptitude:
Mental Ability, Arithmetic, Algebra, Geometry, Trigonometry, Mensuration, Statistics;
English Language:
Comprehension, Vocabulary Test, Misspelled words, Error in Sentences, English Usage, English Structure,
Word Usage, Synonyms & Antonyms, Idioms and Phrases, One word Substitution, Jumbled Words, Fill in
the Blanks
General Awareness: History, Freedom Movements etc., Geography, Current Events, Sports, General
Science, General Information, Abbreviations etc.

Page 15 of 16

PGDCA
Sample Question Paper
1. The synonym of BOUNTY is
a) Donation
b) Gift

c) Pleasure

d) Reward

2. The antonym of VOLUNTARY is
a) Ordered
b) Alternative

c) Compulsory

d) Essential

c) Quietus

d) Recluse

3. Give one word for the following:
‘A person who lives by himself’.
a) Venerable

b) Sage

4. Divide 50 into two parts so that the sum of their reciprocals is
a) 20,30
5. If a =

b) 24, 26

1
12

c) 28,22

d) 36, 14

x
y
ab
and b =
then
is equal to
x+ y
x- y
a+b
x
c)
x+ y

æ y ö
÷÷
d) çç
x
+
y
è
ø

6. If 18 ´ 14 ´ x = 84 , x is equal to
a) 82
b) 28

c) 32

d) 42

7. Find the odd one out
a) NOQT

c) BCEH

d) RSUX

xy
a) 2
x + y2

x2 + y2
b)
xy

b) DEHK

8. One number is wrong in the given series. Find out the wrong number.
88 54 28 13 5 2 2
a) 28
b) 54
c) 13

2

d) 88

9. Five bells in a church toll at interval of 12 sec, 15 sec, 20 sec, 25 sec & 45 sec respectively.
If all of them toll at 5 am what time next they will toll together?
a) 5.10 am

b) 5.12 am

10. Absolute zero temperature equals
a) 0°C
b) - 273°C

c) 5.15 am

d) 5.20 am

c) - 276°C

d) None of these

11. What is the total resistance of a parallel circuit that contains two resistors having values of 220 W
and 470 W
a) 220 W
b) 150 W
c) 445 W
d) 690 W
12. If some device requires urgent service, normal execution of programs may be pre empted using
a) An Interrupt signal
b) A request to memory modules
c) DMA

d) None of these

13. The Octal equivalent of the number 11010.1011 is
a) 32.15
b) 32.25
c) 31.25

Page 16 of 16

d) 32.35