CL CAT Online Sample Paper
Content
2/12/2015
CL CAT Online Sample Paper
Mock MICAT 2014
Q 1.
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Directions for questions 1 to 15: There are fifteen problems in this section. Each problem consists of four clues and
against that set of four clues, five alternatives are given. These alternatives are associated with either one or more than
one clues in some manner. Amongst all these five alternatives, there is only one alternative that is associated with all the
four clues in some manner. This alternative is the right answer. Your task is to mark the right answer from amongst the
alternatives given.
Q 2.
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E)
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Q 15.
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Direction for questions 16 to 20: Each question consists of a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider
the statement and decide which of the assumptions are implicit in forming the statement.
Q 16. Statement:
India won the third one day match against Australia due to Dhoni’s cool captaincy.
Assumptions:
I. Australia lost the third one day match against India.
II. Dhoni is a cool captain.
A) if only assumption I is implicit.
B) if only assumption II is implicit.
C) if either I or II is implicit
D) if neither I nor II is implicit
E) if both are implicit
Q 17. Statement:
Excessive advertising is leading to unbridled consumerism.
Assumptions:
I. There is rampant consumerism in the society.
II. Advertising has increased in the past year .
A) if only assumption I is implicit.
B) if only assumption II is implicit.
C) if either I or II is implicit
D) if neither I nor II is implicit
E) if both are implicit
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Q 18. Statement:
Engineers, doctors and other professionals who join the administrative services are wasting national resources.
Assumptions:
I. Indian administrative officers waste national resources.
II. National resources are invested only in imparting engineering, medical and other professional education.
A) if only assumption I is implicit.
B) if only assumption II is implicit.
C) if either I or II is implicit
D) if neither I nor II is implicit
E) if both are implicit
Q 19. Statement:
Healthy mind lives in healthy body.
Assumptions:
I. Physical health determines mental health.
II. Mental health and physical health are interdependent.
A) if only assumption I is implicit.
B) if only assumption II is implicit.
C) if either I or II is implicit
D) if neither I nor II is implicit
E) if both are implicit
Q 20. Statement:
Incidents of acid rain are increasing because of environmental pollution.
Assumptions:
I. Environmental pollution leads to acid rains only.
II.Environmental pollution causes acid rains.
A) if only assumption I is implicit.
B) if only assumption II is implicit.
C) if either I or II is implicit.
D) if neither I nor II is implicit.
E) if both are implicit.
Direction for questions 21 to 25: Each question is followed by two statements which may or may not contain data
necessary to answer the question. Choose the most appropriate option as per the code given below.
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Q 21. Question:
Has India experienced abnormal monsoons this year?
Statement:
I. El Nino phenomenon affects monsoons in India.
II.This year El Nino was active.
A) If only statement I is sufficient to answer the question
B) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C) If both I and II are required to answer the question
D) If either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
E) If neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question
Direction for questions 21 to 25: Each question is followed by two statements which may or may not contain data
necessary to answer the question. Choose the most appropriate option as per the code given below.
Q 22. Question:
Why is economic development in India not uniform across regions?
Statement:
I.Policies for economic development are centrally planned.
II.Conditions in India vary from one region to another.
A) If only statement I is sufficient to answer the question
B) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C) If both I and II are required to answer the question
D) If either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
E) If neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question
Q 23. Question:
Why are RK and SG not speaking with each other?
Statement:
I.RK and SG do not know each other.
II.RK and SG were friends earlier but have recently fought with each other.
A) If only statement I is sufficient to answer the question
B) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C) If both I and II are required to answer the question
D) If either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
E) If neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question
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Q 24. Question:
Why is ‘X’ a leading brand in ‘Y’ product category?
Statement:
I. Most of the customers of Y product category purchase ‘X’.
II.‘X’ has the highest advertising spend.
A) If only statement I is sufficient to answer the question
B) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C) If both I and II are required to answer the question
D) If either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
E) If neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question
Q 25. Question:
Why has Keshav done well in his exam of class 8th?
Statement:
I. There were only a few good students in his class.
II.Keshav took tuition for all the subjects.
A) If only statement I is sufficient to answer the question
B) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C) If both I and II are required to answer the question
D) If either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
E) If neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question
Directions for questions 26 to 35: In each of the following questions there are two sets of figures. The figures given
above are “Problem Figures” and those given under them are “Answer Figures”. A series is established if one of the
answer figures is placed in place of question mark. You have to select that option from the answer figures which will
continue the series given in the “Problem Figures” and mark it as the answer.
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Q 26.
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Q 27.
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Q 30.
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Q 32.
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B)
C)
D)
Directions for questions 26 to 35: In each of the following questions there are two sets of figures. The figures given
above are “Problem Figures” and those given under them are “Answer Figures”. A series is established if one of the
answer figures is placed in place of question mark. You have to select that option from the answer figures which will
continue the series given in the “Problem Figures” and mark it as the answer.
Q 33.
A)
B)
C)
D)
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Q 34.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Directions for questions 26 to 35: In each of the following questions there are two sets of figures. The figures given
above are “Problem Figures” and those given under them are “Answer Figures”. A series is established if one of the
answer figures is placed in place of question mark. You have to select that option from the answer figures which will
continue the series given in the “Problem Figures” and mark it as the answer.
Q 35.
A)
B)
C)
D)
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Q 36.
A) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (c), (IV) (d)
B) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
C) (I) (c), (II) (d), (III) (a), (IV) (b)
D) (I) (d), (II) (c), (III) (b), (IV) (a)
Q 37. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) Mikhail Kalashnikov was the designer of AK 47.
B) Janet Yellen has become the first woman to lead the Federal Reserve of USA.
C) Thomas Gresham proposed that ‘Bad money drives out good money’.
D)
LiFi Tech, a new cheaper way of getting connected to internet by using signals sent through light bulbs, has been
developed by the scientists of Japan.
Q 38. Brazilian football legend Pele launched a new book titled ‘1283’. No. ‘1283’ denotes
A) Total no. of matches played by him
B) Total no. of tournaments won by Brazil
C) Total no. goals scored by him
D) Total no. of days he was ranked as ‘NO. 1 Footballer of the World’
Q 39. “I am the master of my fate, I am the captain of my soul”, these are the famous lines of
A) ‘I Too Have A Dream’
B) ‘Candle In the Wind’
C) ‘White Men’s Burden’
D) Invictus
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Q 40. Government of India has allowed British retailer Tesco to invest in brownfield entities in India. What is a brown
field investment?
A) Investment by a parent company to start a new venture in a foreign country
B) Investment in a venture which has been abandoned
C) Investment in a company which has declared itself as bankrupt
D) Investment in an existing asset or company
Q 41. Muhammad Yunus of Gramin Bank from Bangladesh won Nobel Peace Prize in 2006 for
A) Welfare economics
B) Microcredit economics
C) Sustainable development
D) Peace
Q 42.
A) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (c), (IV) (d)
B) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
C) (I) (c), (II) (d), (III) (a), (IV) (b)
D) (I) (d), (II) (c), (III) (b), (IV) (a)
Q 43. Who among the following used the term ‘Green Economy’?
A) Paul Krugman, John Nash and Jean Drèze
B) D Pearce, E Barbier and A Markandya
C) Amartya Sen and Samelsan
D) None of the above
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Q 44. Term ‘Sustainable development’ was coined at/by
A) The Bretton Woods Conference
B) Brundtland Commission
C) IMF
D) UNEP
Q 45. ‘The Motorcycle Diaries’ is a memoir of
A) Lenin
B) Che Guevara
C) Fidel Castro
D) Hugo Chavez
Q 46. Moore’s law is related with
A) carrying capacity of environment
B) population and demography with special reference to ‘Malthusianism economics’
C) Geographical phenomenon of earthquakes
D) the number of transistors on integrated circuits
Q 47.
A) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
B) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
C) (I) (c), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (b)
D) (I) (d), (II) (a), (III) (b), (IV) (c)
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Q 48. Which of the following phenomenon was responsible for the unprecedented cold conditions in the US during Dec
2013 and Jan 2014?
A) Aurora borealis
B) Polar vortex
C) Aurora australis
D) North Atlantic drift
Q 49.
A) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (c), (IV) (d), (V) (e)
B) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (c), (V) (e)
C) (I) (d), (II) (c), (III) (a), (IV) (b), (V) (e)
D) (I) (a), (II) (d), (III) (c), (IV) (b), (V) (e)
Q 50.
A) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
B) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
C) (I) (c), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (b)
D) (I) (d), (II) (a), (III) (b), (IV) (c)
Q 51. Which of the following unveiled a smart contact lens that can help diabetics to measure their glucose level in
tears?
A) Microsoft Research Lab (MRL)
B) Google X Lab
C) IBM Humanoid cell
D) Celera Genomics
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Q 52. The only person to have been awarded both the Nobel as well as Oscar award is
A) Albert Einstein
B) George Bernard Shaw
C) Steven Spielberg
D) Stephen Hawking
Q 53. Which of the following brands are owned by PVH Corp.?
A) Moschino, Diesel, Rockport, Crocs
B) Burberry, Bebe, Guess, Gap
C) Gucci, DKNY, D&G, Ralph Lauren, Canali
D) Tommy Hilfiger, Calvin Klein, Van Heusen, IZOD, Arrow
Q 54. Which of the following is not a goal of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?
A)
To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger, to achieve universal primary education, to promote gender equality and
empowering women
B) To reduce child mortality rates, to improve maternal health
C) To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, to ensure environmental sustainability
D) To reduce digital divide, to eradicate racism and to promote brotherhood.
Q 55.
A) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
B) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
C) (I) (c), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (b)
D) (I) (d), (II) (a), (III) (b), (IV) (c)
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Q 56. Which of the following is/are the possible outcomes after Quantitative easing?
1. Increase in Inflationary tendency in the economy.
2. Stimulus to the growth prospects of economy.
3. Availability of more credit in the market.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Q 57. Which of the following companies name signifies the Latin word for “sharp, acute, able and facile”?
A) Lenovo
B) Dell
C) Acer
D) ASUS
Q 58. Penguin India, the publisher of book The Hindus: An Alternative History, agreed to withdraw the book from the
Indian market. This book is written by
A) Wendy Doniger
B) Salman Rushdi
C) Noam Chomsky
D) Eleanor Catton
Q 59. Which of the following is not an element/factor of Human Development Index?
A) Life expectancy at birth
B) Adult literacy rate
C) Per capita income
D) Percentage of senior citizens
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Q 60. Volkswagen Group sells passenger cars under the following names.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) Audi, Bentley, Bugatti, Lamborghini, Porsche, SEAT, Škoda
B) Nissan, Porsche, Beetle, Ferrai
C) Lamborghini, Porsche, SEAT, RR, Beetle
D) Chrysler, Ford, RR, Bentley, Bugatti
Directions for questions 61 to 63: Answer the following questions based on the given information.
Q 61. If 3 girls weighing 52 kg each join section A, then what will be the change in the average weight of section A?
A) 0.8
B) 1.8
C) 1.9
D) 2.8
Q 62. What is the difference between the average weight of girls and that of boys in section E?
A) 1.78
B) 0.96
C) 0.75
D) 1.26
Q 63. Which section has the second highest average weight of girls?
A) A
B) C
C) E
D) D
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Q 64. The value(s) of k for which the system of linear equations kx + 2y = k – 2 & 8x + ky = k has an infinite number of
solutions is/are
A)
B) 0, 4
C) 4
D) – 4
Q 65. Three cards are drawn randomly from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that two of the drawn cards are
aces and the third is queen?
A) 1/8
B) 1/2210
C) 3/2762
D) 6/5525
Q 66.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q 67. The standard deviation of scores 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 is:
A) 4
B) 2
C) 4/7
D) 2/7
Directions for questions 68 and 69: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Radhika and Madhusudan got lost in a Maze, whose blue print is as given below. Refer to this blue print and answer the
questions given below.
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Q 68. Radhika makes a round trip with her scooty from P, via J, K, L, N and M in 4 hr 45 minutes. If she takes 3 hr 15
minutes to reach the N, then what should be her speed after N to complete the journey on time?
A) 44 km/hr
B) 42 km/hr
C) 45 km/hr
D) 40 km/hr
Q 69. If Madhusudan travels at a speed of 30.4 km/hr from place P to place L via K only, then find the time taken by him
to reach L?
A) 2 hr 40 min
B) 2 hr 20 min
C) 2 hr 50 min
D) 2 hr 30 min
Q 70. If Q is an odd prime number, then the LCM of Q and (Q + 2) is:
A) Q (Q + 2)
B) (Q + 1) Q
C) (Q + 1) (Q – 1)
D) None of these
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Q 71. How many words can be formed using all the letters of the word DISTANCE such that all the vowels are not
together?
A) 8!
B) 8! – 3 × 6!
C) 8! – 3! × 6!
D) 9!
Q 72.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q 73. If p, q , r and s are four positive integers, then the minimum value of
is
A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
D) 10
Q 74. A square is inscribed in a circle of area 36 π cm2 . The area of the square is
A) 72 cm2
B) 36 cm2
C) 72 π cm2
D) 36 π cm2
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Q 75. The age of a father is 4 times the age of his son. Five years ago, the age of the father was 9 times the age of his
son. What is the present age of the father?
A) 36 years
B) 24 years
C) 48 years
D) 32 years
Q 76. A certain sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs.1,008 in 4 years and Rs.1,164 in
Find the sum and the rate of interest.
A) Rs. 700, 13% p.a.
B) Rs. 592, 17.56% p.a.
C) Rs. 600, 18% p.a.
D) Rs. 600, 12.56% p.a.
Q 77. The sum and product of digits of a twodigit number is 12 and 27 respectively. What is one third of the smaller
number formed by the digits of the number?
A) 31
B) 48
C) 13
D) 27
Q 78. Sum of the squares of two natural numbers is 225, and the square of the larger number is 16 times that of the
smaller number. Find the larger number.
A) 14
B) 16
C) 12
D) 9
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Q 79. A circus artist is climbing along a rope stretching from the top of a vertical pole to a point on the ground. The
height of the pole is 15 m and the angle made by the rope with the ground is 60°. The distance covered by the artist in
climbing to the top of the pole is
A) 7.5 m
B) 10√3 m
C) 30 m
D) 15√3 m
Q 80. Nasir, Tushar and Vidya decided to make a sequel to 'Dirty Picture' and invested in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 7 to meet
half the investment of the film. Ekta invested the remaining amount and directed the film. While Nasir and Vidya withdrew
their money after 1/6 and 1/3 of the period of film making, Tushar and Ekta invested for the whole period of film making. If
the film made a net profit of Rs.63.5 crore, what is the share (in Rs. crore) of Vidya in the profit?
A) 10.5
B) 7
C) 14
D) 17.5
Directions for question 81 to 83: Study the following bargraph and answer the questions given below.
The given bar graph shows the exports (in thousands tones) of iron ores by India in different years over the period 2004
11.
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Q 81. In how many of the given years were the exports of iron ores at least 25% more than in the previous year?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 3
D) 5
Directions for question 81 to 83: Study the following bargraph and answer the questions given below.
The given bar graph shows the exports (in thousands tones) of iron ores by India in different years over the period 2004
11.
Q 82. The average exports of the years 2004, 2009 and 2011 was exactly equal to the average exports of which of the
following years?
A) 2006, 2008 and 2010
B) 2005, 2007 and 2011
C) 2005, 2008 and 2010
D) None of these
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Q 83. By what percentage was the total exports in the years 2007 and 2011 put together less than that in the years
2004, 2006 and 2008 put together?
A) 20.69%
B) 30%
C) 26.08%
D) None of these
Q 84. If 12 carpenters working 6 hours a day can make 460 chairs in 24 days, how many chairs can 18 carpenters
working 8 hours a day make in 36 days?
A) 1200
B) 1380
C) 1280
D) 1260
Q 85. The ratio of gold and silver in two alloys A and B is 5 : 4 and 7 : 11 respectively. An equal quantity of the two
alloys are melted to form a third alloy Z. Now, alloy Z is mixed with another alloy C, containing gold and silver in the ratio
of 4 : 5, to form a new alloy Q. If the ratio of alloys Z and C in alloy Q is 2 : 1, what is the ratio of gold to silver in alloy ‘Q’?
A) 25 : 29
B) 2 : 1
C) 3 : 1
D) 10 : 7
Q 86. A number when divided by 37 leaves a remainder of 24. When twice the original number is divided by the same
divisor, the remainder is 11. What is the minimum possible value of the number?
A) 172
B) 135
C) 122
D) 61
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Q 87. In how many ways can a group of 5 students be selected out of 9 students?
A) 45
B) 15120
C) 120
D) 126
Q 88. Twelve men can complete a job in 8 days. Six days after they start the work, 4 more men join them. How many
more days will it take to complete the job?
A) 2.5 days
B) 3.5 days
C) 1.5 days
D) 4 days
Q 89. Two litres of a mixture of spirit and water containing 12% water is added to 3 L of another mixture of spirit and
water containing 5% water. The resulting mixture is added to 10 L of another mixture containing 30% water. What is the
percentage of water in the final mixture?
A) 22.6%
B) 20%
C) 28%
D) 25%
Q 90. In a group of 130 players numbered 1 to 130, all the even numbered players choose Hockey, those whose
numbers are divisible by 5 choose badminton and those whose numbers are divisible by 7 choose Basketball. How
many of the players choose at least one of the three sports?
A) 120
B) 30
C) 50
D) 85
Directions for questions 91 to 94: Read the following paragraph and answer the questions given as under. Enter the
alphabet against the question number in the answer booklet.
In particular, economic news coverage specially, emphasis upon favorable or unfavorable developments or indicators
may help shape evaluations of presidential job performance because it provides citizens with sociotropic criteria on
which to judge the president. Scholars repeatedly have found that voters do not evaluate economic conditions through
their own pocketbooks, focusing instead on national economic conditions. Although the informational demands of
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monitoring the state of economy seem great, Kinder and Kiewiet (1981) suggest, “Voters must only develop rough
evaluations of national economic condition”. Thus, news media may either help “construct” a picture of the national
economy through their reporting or function as a “conduit” through which economic information reaches citizens.
Regardless, coverage linking the President to economic conditions may be a predominant influence on citizens’
assessments of political performance.
Q 91. The criterion to evaluate the performance of the nations’ top executive is usually:
A) Coverage of microeconomic conditions
B) Coverage of macroeconomic conditions
C) None of the above
D) Both (A) and (B)
Q 92. In terms of economic news the media helps:
A) In providing a representative picture of the economy
B) In serving as a filter for information
C) None of the above
D) Both (A) and (B)
Q 93. The essence of the above paragraph is:
A) Examination of media and its reportage of the economy
B) Voter behaviour visàvis media coverage of the economic condition
C) Role of the executive
D) None of the above
Q 94. Which of the following correctly expresses the meaning of the word “conduit”, as used in the given passage?
A) Channel
B) Source
C) Membrane
D) Package
Directions for questions 95 to 98: Read the following paragraph and answer the questions given as under. Enter the
alphabet of the correct answer against the question number in the answer booklet.
Let’s talk first about the facts on income distribution. Thirty years ago we were a relatively middleclass nation. It had not
always been thus: Gilded Age America was a highly unequal society, and it stayed that way through the 1920s. During the
1930s and the 1940s, however, America experienced what the economic historians Claudia Goldin and Robert Margo
have dubbed the Great Compression: a drastic narrowing of income gaps, probably as a result of New Deal policies. And
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the new economic order persisted for more than a generation – Strong unions, taxes on inherited wealth, corporate profits
and high incomes, close public scrutiny of corporate management – all helped to keep income gaps relatively small. The
economy was hardly egalitarian, but a generation ago the gross inequalities of the 1920s seemed very distant. Now
they’re back. According to estimates by the economists Thomas Piketty and Emmanuel Saez —confirmed by data from the
Congressional Budget Office — between 1973 and 2000 the average real income of the bottom 90 percent of American
taxpayers actually fell by 7 percent. Meanwhile, the income of the top one percent rose by 148 percent, the income of the
top 0.1 percent rose by 343 percent and the income of the top 0.01 percent rose 599 percent. (Those numbers exclude
capital gains.) The distribution of income in the United States has gone right back to Gilded Age levels of inequality.
Q 95. Figures about the American Economy show that
A) the New Deal is responsible for the decline in US economy.
B) the income differences between American people have become similar to those in the 1920s.
C) a drastic narrowing of income differences has occurred.
D) None of the above
Q 96. Between 1973 and 2000
A) About 90% of Americans have seen relatively better income levels.
B) Over 90% of Americans have seen their income dip.
C) the average income of 90% Americans decreased.
D) about 90% of Americans’ income has escalated more than the income of 0.001% Americans.
Q 97. All the data quoted are from
A) US government
B) the data provided by Thomas Piketty and Emmanuel Saez.
C) the studies done by Claudia Goldin and Robert Margo.
D) None of the above.
Q 98. Which of the following was the ‘new economic order’ that is mentioned in the passage?
A) The Great Compression
B) Egalitarianism
C) The New Deal policies
D) Gilded Age America
Directions for questions 99 to 103: In the questions below, a sentence is followed by four different ways of phrasing the
same sentence. Choose the most grammatically and semantically correct alternative.
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Q 99. Medieval culture perhaps remained closer to the ancient world in its attitude toward language than in its attitude
toward space, time or history.
A) Medieval culture has remained close to the ancient world in its theory of language.
B) Medieval culture has stayed closer to the ancient world in its attitude to time and history.
C) Medieval culture has remained loyal to modernity in its theory of knowledge.
D) Medieval culture has stayed close to the ancient as a theory of memory.
Q 100. At the very heart of the power relationship, and constantly provoking it, are the recalcitrance of the will and the
intransigence of freedom.
A) The power relationship is based on a dialectics of will and technology.
B) The power relationship has a heart whose soul is freedom.
C) The power relationship is based on a dialectic of will and freedom.
D) The power relationship is based on a contradiction of will and freedom.
Q 101. Upward continuity means that a person who wishes to govern the state well must first learn how to govern
himself.
A) Upward continuity means that a person who seeks to govern must comprehend the responsibility of the state.
B) Upward continuity means that a person who seeks to govern must be cybernetic to violence.
C) Upward continuity means that a person who seeks to govern must be sovereign.
D) Upward continuity means that a person who seeks to govern must know selfgovernance.
Q 102. A Turing machine is a game in which no room is left for player initiative.
A) A Turing machine is a structured game with no agency.
B) A Turing machine is a zerosum game.
C) A Turing machine is a meaningless game.
D) A Turing machine is a predictable game with no surprise.
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Q 103. The technologists of the twentieth century share the goals of their predecessors: to make the world of nature
serve the material needs and desires of mankind.
A) The technologists of the twentieth century were unlike their predecessors in their materialism
B) The technologists of the twentieth century were like their ancestors in making nature serve man’s material needs.
C) The technologists of the twentieth century were like their predecessors in being nature lovers.
D) The technologists of the twentieth century were ignorant of their predecessors need.
Directions for questions 104 to 114: In each of the following sentences, parts of the sentences have been left blank.
Beneath each sentence four different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. From among the given choices
choose the best alternative.
Q 104. Ethics is closer to wisdom than to reason, closer to ___________ what is good than to correctly ___________
particular situations.
A) dissimilating, assimilating
B) distinguishing, absorbing
C) disorganizing, appreciating
D) understanding, adjudicating
Q 105. There are strong indications that within the loose ___________ of sciences dealing with knowledge and
cognition the cognitive sciences the conviction is slowly growing that this picture is upside down and that a radical
paradigm shift is ___________.
A) unity, imperative
B) federation, imminent
C) organicity, important
D) community, indicative
Q 106. Obviously it is not ___________ true, but it seems a clear indication that guilt (not revenge) was the fuel of
Orson Welles’s psyche, although it is certainly possible that guilt bred a degree of ____________.
A) literally, resentment
B) positively, therapy
C) inherently, freedom
D) genetically, agility
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Q 107. Merely acting in a film was clearly regarded by Orson Welles and his team as a dire ________________: how
could he, who had done every job on a movie, simply take ___________ from some lesser mortal?
A) statement, information
B) injury, indication
C) demotion, direction
D) insinuation, injection
Q 108. The ________________ of halfcompleted thoughts, which come sometimes as we are falling asleep, also
cannot be ________________ .
A) aspiration, isolated
B) anomaly, computed
C) objection, fractioned
D) annoyance, multiplied
Q 109. The ensuing courtship was an unusual one for Henry, in that he made no attempt to ___________ Victoria into
___________
A) compel, temerity
B) persuade , compliance
C) coerce, infringement
D) exhort, obedience
Q 110. The ___________ basis for the creation of a secular society and polity was conceived, elaborated and
___________ during the course of the nineteenth century.
A) inordinate, incorporated
B) exact, installed
C) intellectual ,disseminated
D) superficial ,discussed
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Q 111. The Milky Way contains at least a hundred billion stars in our home galaxy, perhaps as many as 300 billion. But
a few members of this vast __________ population have a special claim to ________fame.
A) outstanding, empyrean
B) premier, universal
C) celestial, galaxy
D) stellar, cosmic
Q 112. Then, with ___________ black gowns flapping, they ride off on rusty bicycles to another world: lunch with 3,751
arts undergraduates (never “students”) fresh from reading _________ and Shakespeare in a library built by Christopher
Wren.
A) medieval : Sophocles
B) shiny: caustic
C) stoneage: astute
D) commonplace: ruddy
Q 113. Hundreds of Negroes were _________ last year in Little Rock, and the U.S. Air Force aims to drop a/an
_________ on Havana.
A) stanched: bathetic
B) lynched : Hbomb
C) impaired: air bomb
D) coy: agenda
Q 114. Being a ________ had never been a political ______ in the past (in Utah, it is virtually a political requirement).
A) mormon: liability
B) refractory: bale
C) pert: issue
D) epigram: requirement
Directions for questions 115 to 120: Each question has a sentence followed by four options. Please arrange the four
sentences in a logical sequence in continuation with the given statement.
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Q 115. The Tiger Reserve was brimming with people.
a. It was in need of money.
b. It was the public display day after all.
c. The day was important for the reserve.
d. And the potential investors were going to come that day.
A) abcd
B) bcda
C) adcb
D) bcad
Q 116. The institute recently went out of business.
a. There always had been fears of the institute not doing well.
b. Many strikes and riots had originated from the institute classrooms.
c. As a consequence, the students were in trepidation.
d. The founders are now planning some other venture.
A) acbd
B) abcd
C) bcda
D) adcb
Q 117. Apollonius was a stalwart.
a. Though his greatest achievement was the Apollonius theorem.
b. He grew up an orphan in the streets of Athens.
c. He was a prodigy since then, studying under street lamps.
d. He went on to publish many great works.
A) bcda
B) dacb
C) acdb
D) bdca
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Q 118. The Indian flag is today a symbol of many great achievements.
a. But during its early stages, it faced a lot of debate.
b. The flag was supposed to be entirely saffron in color.
c. Later, some of the leaders stepped in, and modified it.
d. This modification gave it the present shape.
A) abcd
B) dbca
C) bdca
D) cabd
Q 119. The prisons now days have become extremely secure.
a. Lots of prisoners escaped.
b. Only barbed wires comprised the security.
c. But earlier, this wasn’t the case.
d. These were quite easy to bypass.
A) cdba
B) bcda
C) dcab
D) cbda
Q 120. Albatross has the largest wingspan for any bird.
a. With such a wingspan, it has a monstrous presence when flying.
b. Fish is its favorite meal.
c. The wings’ reflection makes it seem so.
d. It flies over the seas for food.
A) acdb
B) dabc
C) cdba
D) dbca
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Mock MICAT 2014
Q 1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Directions for questions 1 to 15: There are fifteen problems in this section. Each problem consists of four clues and
against that set of four clues, five alternatives are given. These alternatives are associated with either one or more than
one clues in some manner. Amongst all these five alternatives, there is only one alternative that is associated with all the
four clues in some manner. This alternative is the right answer. Your task is to mark the right answer from amongst the
alternatives given.
Q 2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
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Q 3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Q 4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Q 5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
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Q 6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Q 7.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Q 8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
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Q 9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Q 10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Q 11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
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Q 12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Q 13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Q 14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
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Q 15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Direction for questions 16 to 20: Each question consists of a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider
the statement and decide which of the assumptions are implicit in forming the statement.
Q 16. Statement:
India won the third one day match against Australia due to Dhoni’s cool captaincy.
Assumptions:
I. Australia lost the third one day match against India.
II. Dhoni is a cool captain.
A) if only assumption I is implicit.
B) if only assumption II is implicit.
C) if either I or II is implicit
D) if neither I nor II is implicit
E) if both are implicit
Q 17. Statement:
Excessive advertising is leading to unbridled consumerism.
Assumptions:
I. There is rampant consumerism in the society.
II. Advertising has increased in the past year .
A) if only assumption I is implicit.
B) if only assumption II is implicit.
C) if either I or II is implicit
D) if neither I nor II is implicit
E) if both are implicit
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Q 18. Statement:
Engineers, doctors and other professionals who join the administrative services are wasting national resources.
Assumptions:
I. Indian administrative officers waste national resources.
II. National resources are invested only in imparting engineering, medical and other professional education.
A) if only assumption I is implicit.
B) if only assumption II is implicit.
C) if either I or II is implicit
D) if neither I nor II is implicit
E) if both are implicit
Q 19. Statement:
Healthy mind lives in healthy body.
Assumptions:
I. Physical health determines mental health.
II. Mental health and physical health are interdependent.
A) if only assumption I is implicit.
B) if only assumption II is implicit.
C) if either I or II is implicit
D) if neither I nor II is implicit
E) if both are implicit
Q 20. Statement:
Incidents of acid rain are increasing because of environmental pollution.
Assumptions:
I. Environmental pollution leads to acid rains only.
II.Environmental pollution causes acid rains.
A) if only assumption I is implicit.
B) if only assumption II is implicit.
C) if either I or II is implicit.
D) if neither I nor II is implicit.
E) if both are implicit.
Direction for questions 21 to 25: Each question is followed by two statements which may or may not contain data
necessary to answer the question. Choose the most appropriate option as per the code given below.
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Q 21. Question:
Has India experienced abnormal monsoons this year?
Statement:
I. El Nino phenomenon affects monsoons in India.
II.This year El Nino was active.
A) If only statement I is sufficient to answer the question
B) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C) If both I and II are required to answer the question
D) If either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
E) If neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question
Direction for questions 21 to 25: Each question is followed by two statements which may or may not contain data
necessary to answer the question. Choose the most appropriate option as per the code given below.
Q 22. Question:
Why is economic development in India not uniform across regions?
Statement:
I.Policies for economic development are centrally planned.
II.Conditions in India vary from one region to another.
A) If only statement I is sufficient to answer the question
B) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C) If both I and II are required to answer the question
D) If either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
E) If neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question
Q 23. Question:
Why are RK and SG not speaking with each other?
Statement:
I.RK and SG do not know each other.
II.RK and SG were friends earlier but have recently fought with each other.
A) If only statement I is sufficient to answer the question
B) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C) If both I and II are required to answer the question
D) If either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
E) If neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question
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Q 24. Question:
Why is ‘X’ a leading brand in ‘Y’ product category?
Statement:
I. Most of the customers of Y product category purchase ‘X’.
II.‘X’ has the highest advertising spend.
A) If only statement I is sufficient to answer the question
B) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C) If both I and II are required to answer the question
D) If either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
E) If neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question
Q 25. Question:
Why has Keshav done well in his exam of class 8th?
Statement:
I. There were only a few good students in his class.
II.Keshav took tuition for all the subjects.
A) If only statement I is sufficient to answer the question
B) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C) If both I and II are required to answer the question
D) If either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
E) If neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question
Directions for questions 26 to 35: In each of the following questions there are two sets of figures. The figures given
above are “Problem Figures” and those given under them are “Answer Figures”. A series is established if one of the
answer figures is placed in place of question mark. You have to select that option from the answer figures which will
continue the series given in the “Problem Figures” and mark it as the answer.
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Q 26.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q 27.
A)
B)
C)
D)
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Q 28.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q 29.
A)
B)
C)
D)
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Q 30.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q 31.
A)
B)
C)
D)
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Q 32.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Directions for questions 26 to 35: In each of the following questions there are two sets of figures. The figures given
above are “Problem Figures” and those given under them are “Answer Figures”. A series is established if one of the
answer figures is placed in place of question mark. You have to select that option from the answer figures which will
continue the series given in the “Problem Figures” and mark it as the answer.
Q 33.
A)
B)
C)
D)
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Q 34.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Directions for questions 26 to 35: In each of the following questions there are two sets of figures. The figures given
above are “Problem Figures” and those given under them are “Answer Figures”. A series is established if one of the
answer figures is placed in place of question mark. You have to select that option from the answer figures which will
continue the series given in the “Problem Figures” and mark it as the answer.
Q 35.
A)
B)
C)
D)
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Q 36.
A) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (c), (IV) (d)
B) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
C) (I) (c), (II) (d), (III) (a), (IV) (b)
D) (I) (d), (II) (c), (III) (b), (IV) (a)
Q 37. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) Mikhail Kalashnikov was the designer of AK 47.
B) Janet Yellen has become the first woman to lead the Federal Reserve of USA.
C) Thomas Gresham proposed that ‘Bad money drives out good money’.
D)
LiFi Tech, a new cheaper way of getting connected to internet by using signals sent through light bulbs, has been
developed by the scientists of Japan.
Q 38. Brazilian football legend Pele launched a new book titled ‘1283’. No. ‘1283’ denotes
A) Total no. of matches played by him
B) Total no. of tournaments won by Brazil
C) Total no. goals scored by him
D) Total no. of days he was ranked as ‘NO. 1 Footballer of the World’
Q 39. “I am the master of my fate, I am the captain of my soul”, these are the famous lines of
A) ‘I Too Have A Dream’
B) ‘Candle In the Wind’
C) ‘White Men’s Burden’
D) Invictus
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Q 40. Government of India has allowed British retailer Tesco to invest in brownfield entities in India. What is a brown
field investment?
A) Investment by a parent company to start a new venture in a foreign country
B) Investment in a venture which has been abandoned
C) Investment in a company which has declared itself as bankrupt
D) Investment in an existing asset or company
Q 41. Muhammad Yunus of Gramin Bank from Bangladesh won Nobel Peace Prize in 2006 for
A) Welfare economics
B) Microcredit economics
C) Sustainable development
D) Peace
Q 42.
A) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (c), (IV) (d)
B) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
C) (I) (c), (II) (d), (III) (a), (IV) (b)
D) (I) (d), (II) (c), (III) (b), (IV) (a)
Q 43. Who among the following used the term ‘Green Economy’?
A) Paul Krugman, John Nash and Jean Drèze
B) D Pearce, E Barbier and A Markandya
C) Amartya Sen and Samelsan
D) None of the above
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Q 44. Term ‘Sustainable development’ was coined at/by
A) The Bretton Woods Conference
B) Brundtland Commission
C) IMF
D) UNEP
Q 45. ‘The Motorcycle Diaries’ is a memoir of
A) Lenin
B) Che Guevara
C) Fidel Castro
D) Hugo Chavez
Q 46. Moore’s law is related with
A) carrying capacity of environment
B) population and demography with special reference to ‘Malthusianism economics’
C) Geographical phenomenon of earthquakes
D) the number of transistors on integrated circuits
Q 47.
A) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
B) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
C) (I) (c), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (b)
D) (I) (d), (II) (a), (III) (b), (IV) (c)
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Q 48. Which of the following phenomenon was responsible for the unprecedented cold conditions in the US during Dec
2013 and Jan 2014?
A) Aurora borealis
B) Polar vortex
C) Aurora australis
D) North Atlantic drift
Q 49.
A) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (c), (IV) (d), (V) (e)
B) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (c), (V) (e)
C) (I) (d), (II) (c), (III) (a), (IV) (b), (V) (e)
D) (I) (a), (II) (d), (III) (c), (IV) (b), (V) (e)
Q 50.
A) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
B) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
C) (I) (c), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (b)
D) (I) (d), (II) (a), (III) (b), (IV) (c)
Q 51. Which of the following unveiled a smart contact lens that can help diabetics to measure their glucose level in
tears?
A) Microsoft Research Lab (MRL)
B) Google X Lab
C) IBM Humanoid cell
D) Celera Genomics
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Q 52. The only person to have been awarded both the Nobel as well as Oscar award is
A) Albert Einstein
B) George Bernard Shaw
C) Steven Spielberg
D) Stephen Hawking
Q 53. Which of the following brands are owned by PVH Corp.?
A) Moschino, Diesel, Rockport, Crocs
B) Burberry, Bebe, Guess, Gap
C) Gucci, DKNY, D&G, Ralph Lauren, Canali
D) Tommy Hilfiger, Calvin Klein, Van Heusen, IZOD, Arrow
Q 54. Which of the following is not a goal of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?
A)
To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger, to achieve universal primary education, to promote gender equality and
empowering women
B) To reduce child mortality rates, to improve maternal health
C) To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, to ensure environmental sustainability
D) To reduce digital divide, to eradicate racism and to promote brotherhood.
Q 55.
A) (I) (b), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
B) (I) (a), (II) (b), (III) (d), (IV) (c)
C) (I) (c), (II) (a), (III) (d), (IV) (b)
D) (I) (d), (II) (a), (III) (b), (IV) (c)
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Q 56. Which of the following is/are the possible outcomes after Quantitative easing?
1. Increase in Inflationary tendency in the economy.
2. Stimulus to the growth prospects of economy.
3. Availability of more credit in the market.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Q 57. Which of the following companies name signifies the Latin word for “sharp, acute, able and facile”?
A) Lenovo
B) Dell
C) Acer
D) ASUS
Q 58. Penguin India, the publisher of book The Hindus: An Alternative History, agreed to withdraw the book from the
Indian market. This book is written by
A) Wendy Doniger
B) Salman Rushdi
C) Noam Chomsky
D) Eleanor Catton
Q 59. Which of the following is not an element/factor of Human Development Index?
A) Life expectancy at birth
B) Adult literacy rate
C) Per capita income
D) Percentage of senior citizens
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Q 60. Volkswagen Group sells passenger cars under the following names.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) Audi, Bentley, Bugatti, Lamborghini, Porsche, SEAT, Škoda
B) Nissan, Porsche, Beetle, Ferrai
C) Lamborghini, Porsche, SEAT, RR, Beetle
D) Chrysler, Ford, RR, Bentley, Bugatti
Directions for questions 61 to 63: Answer the following questions based on the given information.
Q 61. If 3 girls weighing 52 kg each join section A, then what will be the change in the average weight of section A?
A) 0.8
B) 1.8
C) 1.9
D) 2.8
Q 62. What is the difference between the average weight of girls and that of boys in section E?
A) 1.78
B) 0.96
C) 0.75
D) 1.26
Q 63. Which section has the second highest average weight of girls?
A) A
B) C
C) E
D) D
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Q 64. The value(s) of k for which the system of linear equations kx + 2y = k – 2 & 8x + ky = k has an infinite number of
solutions is/are
A)
B) 0, 4
C) 4
D) – 4
Q 65. Three cards are drawn randomly from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that two of the drawn cards are
aces and the third is queen?
A) 1/8
B) 1/2210
C) 3/2762
D) 6/5525
Q 66.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q 67. The standard deviation of scores 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 is:
A) 4
B) 2
C) 4/7
D) 2/7
Directions for questions 68 and 69: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Radhika and Madhusudan got lost in a Maze, whose blue print is as given below. Refer to this blue print and answer the
questions given below.
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Q 68. Radhika makes a round trip with her scooty from P, via J, K, L, N and M in 4 hr 45 minutes. If she takes 3 hr 15
minutes to reach the N, then what should be her speed after N to complete the journey on time?
A) 44 km/hr
B) 42 km/hr
C) 45 km/hr
D) 40 km/hr
Q 69. If Madhusudan travels at a speed of 30.4 km/hr from place P to place L via K only, then find the time taken by him
to reach L?
A) 2 hr 40 min
B) 2 hr 20 min
C) 2 hr 50 min
D) 2 hr 30 min
Q 70. If Q is an odd prime number, then the LCM of Q and (Q + 2) is:
A) Q (Q + 2)
B) (Q + 1) Q
C) (Q + 1) (Q – 1)
D) None of these
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Q 71. How many words can be formed using all the letters of the word DISTANCE such that all the vowels are not
together?
A) 8!
B) 8! – 3 × 6!
C) 8! – 3! × 6!
D) 9!
Q 72.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Q 73. If p, q , r and s are four positive integers, then the minimum value of
is
A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
D) 10
Q 74. A square is inscribed in a circle of area 36 π cm2 . The area of the square is
A) 72 cm2
B) 36 cm2
C) 72 π cm2
D) 36 π cm2
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Q 75. The age of a father is 4 times the age of his son. Five years ago, the age of the father was 9 times the age of his
son. What is the present age of the father?
A) 36 years
B) 24 years
C) 48 years
D) 32 years
Q 76. A certain sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs.1,008 in 4 years and Rs.1,164 in
Find the sum and the rate of interest.
A) Rs. 700, 13% p.a.
B) Rs. 592, 17.56% p.a.
C) Rs. 600, 18% p.a.
D) Rs. 600, 12.56% p.a.
Q 77. The sum and product of digits of a twodigit number is 12 and 27 respectively. What is one third of the smaller
number formed by the digits of the number?
A) 31
B) 48
C) 13
D) 27
Q 78. Sum of the squares of two natural numbers is 225, and the square of the larger number is 16 times that of the
smaller number. Find the larger number.
A) 14
B) 16
C) 12
D) 9
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Q 79. A circus artist is climbing along a rope stretching from the top of a vertical pole to a point on the ground. The
height of the pole is 15 m and the angle made by the rope with the ground is 60°. The distance covered by the artist in
climbing to the top of the pole is
A) 7.5 m
B) 10√3 m
C) 30 m
D) 15√3 m
Q 80. Nasir, Tushar and Vidya decided to make a sequel to 'Dirty Picture' and invested in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 7 to meet
half the investment of the film. Ekta invested the remaining amount and directed the film. While Nasir and Vidya withdrew
their money after 1/6 and 1/3 of the period of film making, Tushar and Ekta invested for the whole period of film making. If
the film made a net profit of Rs.63.5 crore, what is the share (in Rs. crore) of Vidya in the profit?
A) 10.5
B) 7
C) 14
D) 17.5
Directions for question 81 to 83: Study the following bargraph and answer the questions given below.
The given bar graph shows the exports (in thousands tones) of iron ores by India in different years over the period 2004
11.
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Q 81. In how many of the given years were the exports of iron ores at least 25% more than in the previous year?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 3
D) 5
Directions for question 81 to 83: Study the following bargraph and answer the questions given below.
The given bar graph shows the exports (in thousands tones) of iron ores by India in different years over the period 2004
11.
Q 82. The average exports of the years 2004, 2009 and 2011 was exactly equal to the average exports of which of the
following years?
A) 2006, 2008 and 2010
B) 2005, 2007 and 2011
C) 2005, 2008 and 2010
D) None of these
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Q 83. By what percentage was the total exports in the years 2007 and 2011 put together less than that in the years
2004, 2006 and 2008 put together?
A) 20.69%
B) 30%
C) 26.08%
D) None of these
Q 84. If 12 carpenters working 6 hours a day can make 460 chairs in 24 days, how many chairs can 18 carpenters
working 8 hours a day make in 36 days?
A) 1200
B) 1380
C) 1280
D) 1260
Q 85. The ratio of gold and silver in two alloys A and B is 5 : 4 and 7 : 11 respectively. An equal quantity of the two
alloys are melted to form a third alloy Z. Now, alloy Z is mixed with another alloy C, containing gold and silver in the ratio
of 4 : 5, to form a new alloy Q. If the ratio of alloys Z and C in alloy Q is 2 : 1, what is the ratio of gold to silver in alloy ‘Q’?
A) 25 : 29
B) 2 : 1
C) 3 : 1
D) 10 : 7
Q 86. A number when divided by 37 leaves a remainder of 24. When twice the original number is divided by the same
divisor, the remainder is 11. What is the minimum possible value of the number?
A) 172
B) 135
C) 122
D) 61
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Q 87. In how many ways can a group of 5 students be selected out of 9 students?
A) 45
B) 15120
C) 120
D) 126
Q 88. Twelve men can complete a job in 8 days. Six days after they start the work, 4 more men join them. How many
more days will it take to complete the job?
A) 2.5 days
B) 3.5 days
C) 1.5 days
D) 4 days
Q 89. Two litres of a mixture of spirit and water containing 12% water is added to 3 L of another mixture of spirit and
water containing 5% water. The resulting mixture is added to 10 L of another mixture containing 30% water. What is the
percentage of water in the final mixture?
A) 22.6%
B) 20%
C) 28%
D) 25%
Q 90. In a group of 130 players numbered 1 to 130, all the even numbered players choose Hockey, those whose
numbers are divisible by 5 choose badminton and those whose numbers are divisible by 7 choose Basketball. How
many of the players choose at least one of the three sports?
A) 120
B) 30
C) 50
D) 85
Directions for questions 91 to 94: Read the following paragraph and answer the questions given as under. Enter the
alphabet against the question number in the answer booklet.
In particular, economic news coverage specially, emphasis upon favorable or unfavorable developments or indicators
may help shape evaluations of presidential job performance because it provides citizens with sociotropic criteria on
which to judge the president. Scholars repeatedly have found that voters do not evaluate economic conditions through
their own pocketbooks, focusing instead on national economic conditions. Although the informational demands of
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monitoring the state of economy seem great, Kinder and Kiewiet (1981) suggest, “Voters must only develop rough
evaluations of national economic condition”. Thus, news media may either help “construct” a picture of the national
economy through their reporting or function as a “conduit” through which economic information reaches citizens.
Regardless, coverage linking the President to economic conditions may be a predominant influence on citizens’
assessments of political performance.
Q 91. The criterion to evaluate the performance of the nations’ top executive is usually:
A) Coverage of microeconomic conditions
B) Coverage of macroeconomic conditions
C) None of the above
D) Both (A) and (B)
Q 92. In terms of economic news the media helps:
A) In providing a representative picture of the economy
B) In serving as a filter for information
C) None of the above
D) Both (A) and (B)
Q 93. The essence of the above paragraph is:
A) Examination of media and its reportage of the economy
B) Voter behaviour visàvis media coverage of the economic condition
C) Role of the executive
D) None of the above
Q 94. Which of the following correctly expresses the meaning of the word “conduit”, as used in the given passage?
A) Channel
B) Source
C) Membrane
D) Package
Directions for questions 95 to 98: Read the following paragraph and answer the questions given as under. Enter the
alphabet of the correct answer against the question number in the answer booklet.
Let’s talk first about the facts on income distribution. Thirty years ago we were a relatively middleclass nation. It had not
always been thus: Gilded Age America was a highly unequal society, and it stayed that way through the 1920s. During the
1930s and the 1940s, however, America experienced what the economic historians Claudia Goldin and Robert Margo
have dubbed the Great Compression: a drastic narrowing of income gaps, probably as a result of New Deal policies. And
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the new economic order persisted for more than a generation – Strong unions, taxes on inherited wealth, corporate profits
and high incomes, close public scrutiny of corporate management – all helped to keep income gaps relatively small. The
economy was hardly egalitarian, but a generation ago the gross inequalities of the 1920s seemed very distant. Now
they’re back. According to estimates by the economists Thomas Piketty and Emmanuel Saez —confirmed by data from the
Congressional Budget Office — between 1973 and 2000 the average real income of the bottom 90 percent of American
taxpayers actually fell by 7 percent. Meanwhile, the income of the top one percent rose by 148 percent, the income of the
top 0.1 percent rose by 343 percent and the income of the top 0.01 percent rose 599 percent. (Those numbers exclude
capital gains.) The distribution of income in the United States has gone right back to Gilded Age levels of inequality.
Q 95. Figures about the American Economy show that
A) the New Deal is responsible for the decline in US economy.
B) the income differences between American people have become similar to those in the 1920s.
C) a drastic narrowing of income differences has occurred.
D) None of the above
Q 96. Between 1973 and 2000
A) About 90% of Americans have seen relatively better income levels.
B) Over 90% of Americans have seen their income dip.
C) the average income of 90% Americans decreased.
D) about 90% of Americans’ income has escalated more than the income of 0.001% Americans.
Q 97. All the data quoted are from
A) US government
B) the data provided by Thomas Piketty and Emmanuel Saez.
C) the studies done by Claudia Goldin and Robert Margo.
D) None of the above.
Q 98. Which of the following was the ‘new economic order’ that is mentioned in the passage?
A) The Great Compression
B) Egalitarianism
C) The New Deal policies
D) Gilded Age America
Directions for questions 99 to 103: In the questions below, a sentence is followed by four different ways of phrasing the
same sentence. Choose the most grammatically and semantically correct alternative.
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Q 99. Medieval culture perhaps remained closer to the ancient world in its attitude toward language than in its attitude
toward space, time or history.
A) Medieval culture has remained close to the ancient world in its theory of language.
B) Medieval culture has stayed closer to the ancient world in its attitude to time and history.
C) Medieval culture has remained loyal to modernity in its theory of knowledge.
D) Medieval culture has stayed close to the ancient as a theory of memory.
Q 100. At the very heart of the power relationship, and constantly provoking it, are the recalcitrance of the will and the
intransigence of freedom.
A) The power relationship is based on a dialectics of will and technology.
B) The power relationship has a heart whose soul is freedom.
C) The power relationship is based on a dialectic of will and freedom.
D) The power relationship is based on a contradiction of will and freedom.
Q 101. Upward continuity means that a person who wishes to govern the state well must first learn how to govern
himself.
A) Upward continuity means that a person who seeks to govern must comprehend the responsibility of the state.
B) Upward continuity means that a person who seeks to govern must be cybernetic to violence.
C) Upward continuity means that a person who seeks to govern must be sovereign.
D) Upward continuity means that a person who seeks to govern must know selfgovernance.
Q 102. A Turing machine is a game in which no room is left for player initiative.
A) A Turing machine is a structured game with no agency.
B) A Turing machine is a zerosum game.
C) A Turing machine is a meaningless game.
D) A Turing machine is a predictable game with no surprise.
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Q 103. The technologists of the twentieth century share the goals of their predecessors: to make the world of nature
serve the material needs and desires of mankind.
A) The technologists of the twentieth century were unlike their predecessors in their materialism
B) The technologists of the twentieth century were like their ancestors in making nature serve man’s material needs.
C) The technologists of the twentieth century were like their predecessors in being nature lovers.
D) The technologists of the twentieth century were ignorant of their predecessors need.
Directions for questions 104 to 114: In each of the following sentences, parts of the sentences have been left blank.
Beneath each sentence four different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. From among the given choices
choose the best alternative.
Q 104. Ethics is closer to wisdom than to reason, closer to ___________ what is good than to correctly ___________
particular situations.
A) dissimilating, assimilating
B) distinguishing, absorbing
C) disorganizing, appreciating
D) understanding, adjudicating
Q 105. There are strong indications that within the loose ___________ of sciences dealing with knowledge and
cognition the cognitive sciences the conviction is slowly growing that this picture is upside down and that a radical
paradigm shift is ___________.
A) unity, imperative
B) federation, imminent
C) organicity, important
D) community, indicative
Q 106. Obviously it is not ___________ true, but it seems a clear indication that guilt (not revenge) was the fuel of
Orson Welles’s psyche, although it is certainly possible that guilt bred a degree of ____________.
A) literally, resentment
B) positively, therapy
C) inherently, freedom
D) genetically, agility
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Q 107. Merely acting in a film was clearly regarded by Orson Welles and his team as a dire ________________: how
could he, who had done every job on a movie, simply take ___________ from some lesser mortal?
A) statement, information
B) injury, indication
C) demotion, direction
D) insinuation, injection
Q 108. The ________________ of halfcompleted thoughts, which come sometimes as we are falling asleep, also
cannot be ________________ .
A) aspiration, isolated
B) anomaly, computed
C) objection, fractioned
D) annoyance, multiplied
Q 109. The ensuing courtship was an unusual one for Henry, in that he made no attempt to ___________ Victoria into
___________
A) compel, temerity
B) persuade , compliance
C) coerce, infringement
D) exhort, obedience
Q 110. The ___________ basis for the creation of a secular society and polity was conceived, elaborated and
___________ during the course of the nineteenth century.
A) inordinate, incorporated
B) exact, installed
C) intellectual ,disseminated
D) superficial ,discussed
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Q 111. The Milky Way contains at least a hundred billion stars in our home galaxy, perhaps as many as 300 billion. But
a few members of this vast __________ population have a special claim to ________fame.
A) outstanding, empyrean
B) premier, universal
C) celestial, galaxy
D) stellar, cosmic
Q 112. Then, with ___________ black gowns flapping, they ride off on rusty bicycles to another world: lunch with 3,751
arts undergraduates (never “students”) fresh from reading _________ and Shakespeare in a library built by Christopher
Wren.
A) medieval : Sophocles
B) shiny: caustic
C) stoneage: astute
D) commonplace: ruddy
Q 113. Hundreds of Negroes were _________ last year in Little Rock, and the U.S. Air Force aims to drop a/an
_________ on Havana.
A) stanched: bathetic
B) lynched : Hbomb
C) impaired: air bomb
D) coy: agenda
Q 114. Being a ________ had never been a political ______ in the past (in Utah, it is virtually a political requirement).
A) mormon: liability
B) refractory: bale
C) pert: issue
D) epigram: requirement
Directions for questions 115 to 120: Each question has a sentence followed by four options. Please arrange the four
sentences in a logical sequence in continuation with the given statement.
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Q 115. The Tiger Reserve was brimming with people.
a. It was in need of money.
b. It was the public display day after all.
c. The day was important for the reserve.
d. And the potential investors were going to come that day.
A) abcd
B) bcda
C) adcb
D) bcad
Q 116. The institute recently went out of business.
a. There always had been fears of the institute not doing well.
b. Many strikes and riots had originated from the institute classrooms.
c. As a consequence, the students were in trepidation.
d. The founders are now planning some other venture.
A) acbd
B) abcd
C) bcda
D) adcb
Q 117. Apollonius was a stalwart.
a. Though his greatest achievement was the Apollonius theorem.
b. He grew up an orphan in the streets of Athens.
c. He was a prodigy since then, studying under street lamps.
d. He went on to publish many great works.
A) bcda
B) dacb
C) acdb
D) bdca
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Q 118. The Indian flag is today a symbol of many great achievements.
a. But during its early stages, it faced a lot of debate.
b. The flag was supposed to be entirely saffron in color.
c. Later, some of the leaders stepped in, and modified it.
d. This modification gave it the present shape.
A) abcd
B) dbca
C) bdca
D) cabd
Q 119. The prisons now days have become extremely secure.
a. Lots of prisoners escaped.
b. Only barbed wires comprised the security.
c. But earlier, this wasn’t the case.
d. These were quite easy to bypass.
A) cdba
B) bcda
C) dcab
D) cbda
Q 120. Albatross has the largest wingspan for any bird.
a. With such a wingspan, it has a monstrous presence when flying.
b. Fish is its favorite meal.
c. The wings’ reflection makes it seem so.
d. It flies over the seas for food.
A) acdb
B) dabc
C) cdba
D) dbca
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