CL Mock CAT 10 2008

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Mock CAT - 10
Before the Test: 1. 2.

Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 3 6 8

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL TO START IS GIVEN. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose paper. These should be left at a place as indicated by the invigilator. Use only an HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet. Enter in your Answer Sheet: (a) in Box 10 the Test Form Number, which appears at the bottom of this page, (b) in Box 11 the Test Booklet Serial number, which appears at the top of this page. Ensure that your personal data have been entered correctly on Side 1 of the Answer Sheet. Check whether you have entered your 7-digit Enrollment ID in Box 2 of the Answer sheet correctly.

3. 4. 5. 6.

At the Start of the Test: 1. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet. 2. This Test booklet contains 27 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. Also that the Test form Number indicated on the cover page and at the bottom of the inner pages is the same. If there is a problem with your Test Booklet, immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided with a replacement. How to answer: 1. This test has three sections which examine various abilities. These 3 sections have 105 questions in all with each section having 35 questions. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections. 2. Directions for answering the questions are given before some of the questions wherever necessary. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question. 3. Each section carries 100 marks. Each section is divided into two sub-sections, A and B. All Questions in sub-sections I-A, II-A and III-A carry two marks each. All Questions in sub sections I-B, II-B and III-B carry four marks each. Wrong answers will attract a penalty of one-fourth the marks allotted to the questions. 4. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet. 5. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified. After the Test: 1. At the end of the test, remain seated. The invigilator will collect the Answer Sheet from your seat. Do not leave the hall until the invigilator announces. “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the candidates in the room. 2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you. Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or copying in any manner in the test will have their Answer Sheets cancelled.


Test Form Number:


Space for rough work

Sub-section I-A: Number of Questions = 20
Note: Questions 1 to 20 carry 2 marks each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. There are only four companies viz. P, Q, R and S that manufacture shirts in the market. The shirts manufactured by these companies are made of one or the other of the five types of cloth viz. Silk, Cotton, Linen, Khadi and Polyester. The following pie-charts provide information about the number of shirts of each of the mentioned types of cloth manufactured by the company as a percentage of the total number of shirts manufactured by the that company.

P 18%


15% 30%


24% 30%



R 30% 22%



12% 21%


20% 25%







The following table provides information about the number of Linen shirts manufactured by each of the mentioned companies as a percentage of the total number of Linen shirts manufactured by all the companies.
P 25.00% Q 25.00% R 20.00% S 30.00%


For which of the mentioned companies, the total number of shirts manufactured by it is the second largest among the mentioned companies? (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S (5) Both (1) and (4)




What is the minimum possible number of shirts that should have been manufactured by all the companies combined such that for each company, the number of shirts of each of the mentioned types of cloth manufactured by it an integer? (1) 6925 (2) 5540 (3) 27700 (4) 1750 (5) Cannot be determined Each of the two companies Q and S sell each shirt manufactured by them at Rs.10 above the cost price of each shirt. If the difference between the profit generated by both the companies is Rs.15000, then what is the difference between the number of Polyester shirts manufactured by the companies P and R? (Assume that all the shirts that are manufactured are sold). (1) 960 (2) 150 (3) 1500 (4) 3000 (5) Cannot be determined What is the ratio of the profit generated by the company R by selling all the Cotton shirts to the profit generated by selling all the Khadi shirts manufactured by it? (Given that the ratio of the profit generated on a sale of one Khadi shirt to the sale of one Cotton shirt by the company R is 3:4). (1) 3:7 (2) 4:3 (3) 21:16 (4) 1:3 (5) None of these Which of the following statement(s) (is/are) true? I. The number of Cotton shirts manufactured by Q is equal to the number of Polyester shirts manufactured by S. II. The number of Linen shirts manufactured by P is equal to the number of Cotton shirts manufactured by Q. III. Total number of Cotton shirts manufactured by all the companies is 10% less than the total number of Linen shirts manufactured by the all companies. (1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) II and III (5) I, II and III




DIRECTIONS for Questions 6 to 10: Read the following arguments and answer the questions that follow. 6. The Washington Post has taken a bold decision by launching a new web section that links readers to the best of political coverage, including that carried by rival newspapers. The idea behind the political browser is to brief political junkies on the top “must reads” of the day. Encouraging readers to leave one’s own website to find more content was unthinkable not long ago. But traditional news organisations have started breaking down their “walled garden” mentality in the past few years, writes the Editor. The shift is partly a response to the growing influence of bloggers, who link to items they find interesting regardless of the source. From the above paragraph, which of the following is a logical conclusions? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) The Washington post was considered a traditional publication earlier. Newspaper readers are increasingly becoming disloyal. The Washington post wants to cater to the blogger type discriminative reader also. Bloggers do not read traditional newspapers. The quality of the political articles in The Washington post is not upto the mark.




Mrs A lives in Dover court Road in north Bristol and considers five people on her street as friends. But Mrs B, who is roughly the same age and lives round the corner in a very similar house in Muller Street, has only one friend. The difference, says a study, has nothing to do with personality, but is because of the weight of traffic. Fewer than 150 vehicles a day pass down Dover court Road, compared with more than 21,130 a day on Muller Street. New research, based on interviews with households on three Bristol streets, has found that people who live with high levels of motor traffic are far more likely to be socially disconnected and even ill than people who live in quiet, clean streets. The conclusion above would be weakened if it was true that (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) North Bristol has the highest number of social networking organizations in the world. People in Bristol are generally more anti-social than people in other cities. The households which were interviewed were more social than the average North Bristol resident. Whether a person is socializing or not is solely determined by genetic factors. People in surveys usually project themselves as having a large number of friends.


“One of the most interesting puzzles in child development is how infants and young children come to understand other people’s emotions, thoughts and inner feelings. They can see another person’s body move, but they can’t see into another person’s heart and mind. How do babies get from observing body movements to making attributions about internal thoughts and feelings? This research indicates that a key is that they use themselves as a model for understanding others. They assume that what affects them in a certain way, also affects others in that same way. It’s a good bet, and it works,” added Meltzoff. Which of the following can be inferred from the above argument? (1) Adults can understand other people’s hearts and minds easily. (2) It is easy to understand babies. (3) In the absence of body movements, it is impossible to understand the other person’s thoughts and feelings. (4) Understanding oneself can help one to understand others. (5) Behaviour of babies is complex as compared to adults.


Discourse on Inequality is one of the most powerful critiques of modernity ever written. It attempts to trace the psychological and political effects of modern society on human nature, and to show how these effects were produced. In order to do this, Rousseau demonstrates that human evolution and the development of inequality between men are closely related. The result is both a sweeping explanation of how modern man was created, and a sharp criticism of unequal modern political institutions. In the Discourse, Rousseau diagnoses the problem with modern political institutions that he later attempted to resolve in the Social Contract. Rousseau would agree with which of the following statements A. Inequality is good since it has been instrumental in creating modern man. B. Inequality has hampered human evolution. C. Political institutions have inherently created inequality. (1) Only A (2) A and C (3) A and B (4) B and C (5) None




Anna runs the canteen service in Buffalo Pvt. Ltd. On the first 3 days of the week he serves normal Indian food without any special delicacies. On the next 3 days of the week he serves special delicacies like Chinese food, Chaat, sweets etc. Customers are disgruntled with normal Indian food and wait for the 3 days of special food. The Special Delicacies cost more than the normal food. By this practice, Anna hopes to optimise cost as well as retain the disgruntled customers of the first 3 days of the week. Which of the following is being assumed by Anna? (1) (2) (3) (4) Customers are worried about cost when it comes to food. There are some customers who are not worried about special food. Retaining customers is a very difficult task. Customers would put up with the first three days of normal food if special food is served in the next three days. (5) The difference in cost between normal food and special food is not much.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 11 to 13: In each of the following questions a set of propositions are given. Choose the option which is logically consistent with the given propositions. 11. If Raman does not opt for an Ballet class, then either Salsa or Techno is chosen. But if either Salsa or Techno is chosen, then Odissi is not chosen. But Odissi is chosen by Raman. (1) Either Salsa or Techno is chosen. (2) Neither Salsa nor Techno is chosen. (3) Salsa is chosen. (4) Raman does not opt for a ballet class (5) None of the above If Naren passes the exam, then he begins his internship. If he begins his internship then he will get industry exposure. If he gets industry exposure, then he will gain practical knowledge. (1) If Naren passes the exam, then he will not be able to begin his internship. (2) If Naren does not pass the exam, then he will gain practical knowledge. (3) If Naren gains practical knowledge, then he passed the exam. (4) If Naren passes the exam, then he will gain practical knowledge. (5) None of the above All All (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) parrots are bulls. All bulls are cows. All cows are goats. All goats are tigers. All tigers are lions. lions are frogs. So, All parrots are frogs. Inference is false Inference is definitely true Inference is irrelevant Inference is possible None of these



DIRECTIONS for Questions 14 and 15: Do as directed. 14. If it is true that ‘Neither sham is true nor it is practical’, then which one of the following statements is true? (1) Sham is true; however, it is not practical. (2) Sham is true and it is practical. (3) Sham is practical and untrue. (4) Sham is not practical and it is not true. (5) None of the above.




Identify the statement which is False, if it is true that ‘no people other than the members of the club are allowed inside the club premises’. (1) Some people are members of the club. (2) All members of the club may be allowed inside the club premises. (3) All people are allowed inside the club premises. (4) All those who are allowed inside the club premises are members of the club. (5) None of the above.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Each of the six siblings namely Azhar, Atif, Aslam, Aaqib, Armaan and Ahmad are asked to choose three sports out of six different sports namely Cricket, Football, Hockey, Basketball, Swimming and Volleyball. Each of the given sports is chosen by at least one of the siblings. The number of siblings who chose Cricket, Football, Hockey, Basketball, Swimming and Volleyball are denoted by C, F, H, B, S and V respectively. The following bar – graph provides details about the values of C, F, H, B and V. Additional Information Given I. Atif has chosen exactly one sport, which Armaan did not choose. II. There are exactly two sports that have been chosen by Azhar as well as Aslam and there are exactly three sports that have not been chosen by Aslam as well as Ahmad. III. Ahmad chose Cricket and Swimming and Armaan did not choose Basketball.

6 5 4 3 2 1 0 C
16. What is the value of (6 – S)? (1) 4 (4) 1

5 4 3 2 2





(2) 3 (5) Cannot be uniquely determined

(3) 2


Which of the following sports is definitely chosen by Azhar? (1) Swimming (2) Cricket (4) Both (2) and (3) (5) Both (1) and (3)

(3) Basketball


For how many siblings, the three sports chosen by them can be uniquely determined? (1) Six (2) Five (3) Four (4) Three (5) Two Which of the following siblings did not play Volleyball? (1) Armaan (2) Aslam (3) Aaqib (4) Atif Which of the following two siblings played Hockey? (1) Armaan and Aaqib (2) Aaqib and Atif (4) Atif and Azhar (5) Cannot be determined

19. 20.

(5) Azhar (3) Atif and Armaan



Sub-section I-B: Number of Questions = 15
Note: Questions 21 to 35 carry 4 marks each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a school, there are four chemical laboratories namely Lab 1, Lab 2, Lab 3 and Lab 4. There are only six types of acids that are available in these mentioned laboratories. The acids are contained in bottles of different capacities. The following table provides information about the number of bottles of each type of acid in each of these four mentioned laboratories.

Sulphuric Nitric Benzoic Hydrochloric Salicylic Nitrous

Lab 1 68 52 113 87 79 101

Lab 2 98 65 123 138 104 81

Lab 3 111 89 143 77 80 103

Lab 4 107 161 75 99 129 117

Every bottle of acid in the chemical laboratories is further categorized on the basis of its capacity under one or the other of the five different categories namely ‘S’, ‘M’, ‘L’, ‘XL’ and ‘XXL’. The following chart provides information about the number of bottles of acids in each of the mentioned categories as a percentage of the total number of bottles of acids.




25% 30% 10% S M L XL XXL

Additional Information for questions 21 and 22: In Lab 2 as well as Lab 3, the number of bottles of acids in the category XL as a percentage of the total number of bottles of acids in the respective laboratories is not more than 1%. 21. In Lab 1, the total number of bottles of acids in the category XL as a percentage of the total number of bottles of acids in Lab 1 cannot be less than (1) 2% (2) 3% (3) 4% (4) 5% (5) 6% If the ratio of the number of bottles of acids in Lab 1 and Lab 4 that are in the category XL is 2: 7, then what is the difference between the number of number of bottles of acids in Lab 1 and Lab 4 that are not in the category XL? (1) 212 (2) 202 (3) 207 (4) Either (1) or (3) (5) Either (1) or (2)




Additional Information for questions 23 and 24: All the bottles containing one or the other of the three acids namely Sulphuric, Nitric and Nitrous are in one or the other of the three categories S, M and L only. Also, the total number of bottles of Benzoic, Hydrochloric and Salicylic acid that are in one or the other of three categories S, M and L be ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ respectively. 23. Which of the following can be equal to the ratio a : b : c? (1) 2 : 31 : 5 (2) 13 : 17 : 17 (3) 15 : 7 : 19 (4) 13 : 7 : 30

(5) None of these


If the value of ‘a’ is maximum possible, then the number of bottles of Benzoic acid in Lab 2 that do not belong to any of the three categories S, M and L cannot be less than (1) 76 (2) 75 (3) 78 (4) 77 (5) 79 The number of bottles of how many of the mentioned acids is less than the average number of bottles per variety of the mentioned acids? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3 (5) None of these


DIRECTIONS for Questions 26 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information give below: A FMCG company produced potato chips of three different flavours viz. Mint, Chilly and Cream. Before starting large scale production of the chips, the company surveyed a sample of 1000 people in each of the three market segments viz. Metros, Towns and Villages. In the survey, all participants were requested to select exactly one of the four options P, Q, R and S in a survey response form given to each one of them. Selection of one particular option, amongst P, Q, R and S, indicated that the participant had not liked any of the three varieties of the chips. Selection of any of the other three options indicated the variety of the potato chips that the participant had liked the most. The data collected in the survey was represented to the brand manager, in table given below.

P Market Segement Villages Market Segement Metros Market Segment Towns 95 180 210

Q 390 405 220

R 135 230 220

S 380 185 350

As the brand manager knew which option indicated which flavour, he derived the following conclusions from the given table. I. In the market segment - Towns, as many as 22% of all the participants in the survey, rejected all the three flavours. II. The total number of participants, in all the three market segments put together, who selected Chilly flavour, differed from the total number of participants who selected Cream flavour, by 100. 26. If it was in Villages, where the minimum number of participants had selected the Mint flavour of potato chips, then which of the following can be definitely concluded? (1) It was in Metros, where the maximum number of participants had selected the Chilly flavour of potato chips. (2) It was in Metros, where the minimum number of participants had selected the Cream flavour of potato chips. (3) It was in Towns, where the minimum number of participants had selected the Cream flavour potato chips. (4) It was in Villages, where the maximum number of participants had selected the Chilly flavour of potato chips. (5) It was in Villages, where the minimum number of participants had rejected all the three flavours.




If Cream flavour was selected by the minimum number of participants, in all the three market segments put together, then which of the following statements is definitely false ? (1) Of all the participants who selected Chilly flavour in the three market segments, the minimum number belonged to the market segment, Villages. (2) Of all the participants who selected Mint flavour in the three market segments, the minimum number belonged to the market segment, Metros. (3) Of all the participants who rejected all the three flavours in the three market segments, the minimum number belonged to the market segment, Villages. (4) Of all the participants who rejected all the three flavours in the three market segments, the maximum number belonged to the market segment, Metros. (5) None of the above. In the market segment -Towns, if the number of participants who selected Mint flavour was the minimum, then which of the following is definitely true? (1) In the market segment- Villages, the number of participants who selected neither the Chilly nor the Cream flavour, was 280. (2) In the market segment- Towns, the number of participants who selected neither the Mint nor the Cream flavour, was 570. (3) In the market segment- Metros, the number of participants who selected neither the Chilly nor the Mint flavour, was 635. (4) In the market segment- Towns, the number of participants who selected neither the Chilly nor the Cream flavour, was 430. (5) None of the above. A maximum of how many of the following five statements, can simultaneously be true ? I. In Villages, 135 participants rejected all the three flavours. II. In Towns, 210 participants selected Cream flavour. III. In Metros, 185 participants selected Chilly Flavour. IV. In Towns, 220 participants selected Cream flavour. V. In Metros, 180 participants selected the Mint flavour. (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5 (5) 0 Of the three flavours of potato chips, only those which were selected by at least one third of all the participants within at least one of the three market segment(s) were simultaneously selected for large scale productions. Which of the flavour(s) could have been selected, for large scale productions? (1) Cream only (2) Mint as well as Cream (3) Chilly as well as Mint (4) Cream as well as Chilly (5) All the three flavours






DIRECTIONS for Questions 31 to 35: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Devendra has 15 different locks viz. L1, L2 through L15 The locks were classified into three categories based upon their number of levers. L1, L15, L13 and L4 were of 8 levers each. L6, L2, L7, L9 and L14 were of 6 levers each and the remaining locks were of 10 levers each. He selects five out of these fifteen locks on each of the eight consecutive days viz. Day 1, Day 2, Day 3, Day 4, Day 5, Day 6, Day 7 and Day 8. On each day he tries to unlock the selected locks but is successful in unlocking only one of the selected locks. If he unlocks any lock on a particular day, that lock is not selected by him on the subsequent days. It is also known that out of the locks unlocked by him, the number of locks of 6 levers is less than the number of locks of 8 levers. The following table gives details about the locks selected by him on the given six days.

Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 Day 5 Day 6 Day 7 Day 8

L1 L3 L2 L15 L2 L13 L14 L5

L7 L15 L7 L13 L15 L6 L11 L6

L8 L14 L15 L10 L9 L1 L8 L10

L4 L12 L9 L3 L10 L8 L2 L14

L11 L8 L10 L6 L5 L10 L13 L11

On how many days it is possible to uniquely determine which lock was unlocked by Devendra? (1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (5) Seven If after day 8 Devendra found that aggregate levers of all the locks that he has unlocked is minimum then the lever of the lock unlocked on day 7 is (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) Either (1) or (3)


Additional Information for questions 33 to 35: After Day 8 Devendra found that aggregate levers of all the locks that he has unlocked is more than 64 but not more than 68. 33. Which of the following locks is definitely unlocked by Devendra? (1) L15 (2) L13 (3) L10 (4) L11

(5) Cannot be determined


If L9 is not unlocked and L8 is unlocked by Devendra, then which of the following can be the lock that is unlocked by him? (1) L2 (2) L5 (3) L11 (4) L14 (5) L10 If out of the locks unlocked by him, the number of locks of 10 levers is less than the number of locks of 8 levers, which is the lock unlocked on Day 7? (1) L8 (2) L13 (3) L2 (4) L11 (5) Cannot be uniquely determined




Sub-section II-A: Number of Questions = 20
Note: Questions 36 to 55 carry 2 marks each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 36 to 39: In each question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/ paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option. 36. A. The most important part of the Analytical Engine was undoubtedly the mechanical method of carrying the tens. B. The difficulty did not consist so much in the more or less complexity of the contrivance as in the reduction of the time required affecting the carriage. C. At last I came to the conclusion that I had exhausted the principle of successive carriage. D. On this I laboured incessantly, each succeeding improvement advancing me a step or two. E. Twenty or thirty different plans and modifications had been drawn. (1) CBDE (2) BECD (3) DBEC (4) ECDB (5) EBCD A. The Vedic hymns are probably the earliest important religious documents of the human race. B. Often the favours sought are of the nature of material blessings, such as long life, vigorous offspring, cattle and horses, gold, etc. C. The hymns of the Rig Veda, on the other hand, are often praises of various deities, who are frequently mere personifications of the different powers of nature. D. The prayers in these hymns are praises of the greatness and power, the mysterious nature, and the exploits of these deities, as well as prayers for various favours. E. The Atharva Veda contains among other things descriptions of charms for securing harmony and influence in an assembly etc. (1) ECDB (2) CEBD (3) DBCE (4) BDCE (5) EBCD A. The paintings, sculptures, and balloons of Takashi Murakami are colourful and attractive, and accessible in their reference to lovable cartoon characters. B. Not stopping with the production of artworks, Murakami shocked the world with his entrepreneurial collaboration with Louis Vuitton, when he challenged the divide between art and commerce. C. As a curator, Murakami challenges our notions of history and culture. D. Murakami uses his deep understanding of Western art to integrate his work into its structure; working from the inside to portray “Japanese-ness” as a tool to bring about revolution in the world of art. E. As an artist, Murakami questions the lines drawn between East and West, past and present, high art and popular culture. (1) BDEC (2) CBDE (3) CEBD (4) DEBC (5) BCDE A. By the turn of the century it did not seem extraordinary that managers should manage by walking about. B. The outside world filtered through via a secretary who, traditionally, sat like a guard dog in front of their (usually closed) office door. C. But in the 1950s many white-collar managers turned their offices into fortresses from which they rarely emerged. D. The technologies of mobile communications made it so much easier for them to both walk about and stay in touch at the same time. E. Edicts were sent out to the blue-collar workforce whom they rarely met face-to-face. (1) CBDE (2) BCDE (3) CBED (4) DBCE (5) DCEB






DIRECTIONS for Questions 40 to 43: In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option. 40. A. B. C. D. E. While girls typically tend to spend more of their time socialising with friends, boys often become obsessive about a certain pursuit, be it playing the electric guitar, collect records or watching hundreds of cult films. The notion of “collecting” knowledge on a subject that is considered to be cool by your peers, and becoming admired as an authority on it, seems to be particularly appealing for boys. (2) A, B & D (3) C, D & E (4) C only (5) E only

(1) B & E 41. A. B. C. D. E.

Children in school are encouraged to stop daydreaming and “focus.” Wandering minds are often cited as leading cause of traffic accidents. In a culture obsessed with efficiency, daydreaming is derided as lazy habit or a lack of discipline, the kind of thinking we rely on when we don’t really want to think. It’s a sign of procrastination, something to be put away with your flip-flops and hammock. (2) B, C & E (3) C & D (4) B only (5) C only

(1) A, D & E 42. A. B. C. D. E.

Tides are generated through a combination of forces exerted by the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon and the rotation of the earth. The relatives motion of the three bodies produced different tidal cycles which affect the range of the tides. In addition, the tidal range are increased substantially by local effects such as shelving, funneling, reflection and resonance. (2) A, B & C (3) A & E (4) E only (5) B only

(1) B, C & D 43. A. B. C. D. E.

Piety towards nature was main theme of William Wordsworth, whose poetry was in vogue America in the 1820’s. Wordsworth’s depiction of an active and powerful mind cohere with the shaping power of the mind that his collaborator in the Lyrical Ballads, Samuel Taylor Coleridge, traced to Kant. The idea of such power pervades Emerson’s Nature, where he writes of nature as “obedient” to spirit and counsels each of us to “Build … your own world.” (2) B, C & E (3) D & E (4) E only (5) B only

(1) A, C & E



DIRECTIONS for Questions 44 to 47: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. 44. Library shelves groan under an insupportable mass of volumes about the dreadful flea-borne pestilence that spread across Europe in the middle of the 14th century — the number of books being equaled only by the scores that deal with the very similar plague that killed thousands in London three centuries later. The Black Death, the Awful Malady, the Vast Pestilence, the Great Mortality, the plague has been called by many names, and is in many senses a perfect topic for the lazy historian — the subject matter is adequately horrifying, the known descriptions are vividly readable, the social implications are sufficiently varied to allow for the kind of wild speculations that make for a book publicist’s dream. _____________________________________________ (1) But the accounts that have resulted in the past all seem to tell in essence much the same story, and in the very same way. (2) Rumours are heard of distant illness, neighbours appear with lurid tales, and then suddenly local people become afflicted. (3) That is the Black Death as sound bite, and rare is the account that manages to take it very much further. (4) Huge swellings appear in groins and armpits, leaving thousands to be limed and buried, while stunned communities try desperately to recover sanity and order. (5) No wonder that centuries after it happened, the Black Death is still a bestseller. 45. In a way, to be indifferent to that suffering is what makes the human being inhuman. Indifference, after all, is more dangerous than anger and hatred. Anger can at times be creative. One writes a great poem, a great symphony, one does something special for the sake of humanity because one is angry at the injustice that one witnesses. But indifference is never creative. Even hatred at times may elicit a response. You fight it. You denounce it. You disarm it. Indifference elicits no response. Indifference is not a response. Indifference is not a beginning, it is an end. ____________________________________ (1) The political prisoner in his cell, the hungry children, the homeless refugees — not to respond to their plight, not to relieve their solitude by offering them a spark of hope is to exile them from human memory. (2) And in denying their humanity we betray our own. Indifference, then, is not only a sin, it is a punishment. (3) And this is one of the most important lessons of this outgoing century’s wide-ranging experiments in good and evil. (4) We are on the threshold of a new century, a new millennium. What will the legacy of this vanishing century be? (5) And, therefore, indifference is always the friend of the enemy, for it benefits the aggressor — never his victim, whose pain is magnified when he or she feels forgotten.




When Paru Jaykrishna was elected president of the Gujarat Chambers of Commerce earlier this year, it was more than a personal achievement for this 64-year-old lady. This was the first time a woman had entered a male bastion in a state that has spawned hundreds of entrepreneurs and innovators. But importantly it was symbolic of the coming of age of Indian women in enterprise. “I knew that where I was venturing has been a male bastion. But that didn’t deter me. Women in India are today equal partners in business, aren’t we?” she says. __________________________________________ (1) Even as the corporate world celebrates the rise of women in its ranks, thousands of women entrepreneurs are working hard to prove that they are second to none. (2) When it comes to success, women are as good as men, if not better. (3) It isn’t an easy journey, as any entrepreneur will tell you. (4) But for these women, it has also been about breaking tradition and overcoming long-held sociocultural mindsets. (5) They feel life is not worth it if you have not unleashed the entrepreneur within you.


Sports psychologists have found that losing does indeed make fans unhappy, just as winning brings joy. While little work has been done to assess the durability of these emotions, they can be quite powerful - one survey, for example, found that West Germans professed themselves more pleased with the national economy and their own jobs after their national soccer team won a game at the 1982 World Cup. But what is particularly striking is the almost comical extent to which fans appropriate the successes and failures of their team.____________________________________ (1) Along with their mothers they see their accomplishments rise and fall with the fortunes of the team (2) Accomplishments of their team are seen as fulfillment of personal goals of the stage moms. (3) Like a stadium full of stage moms, they see the accomplishments of their team as reflections of themselves (4) Winning teams are always accompanied by their moms to help accomplish the desired goals. (5) The stadium reverberates with the tempo of the triumphant team celebrating the accomplishment of their dreams.

Directions for Questions 48 to 51: In each question, the word at the top of the table is used in five different ways, numbered (1) to (5). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate. 48. GAME
(1) With a few minutes to play, the game was 6 to 0. (2) His game of tennis was improving. (3) The new boy at school seemed to be fair game for practical jokers. (4) They are in the real-estate game. (5) Their game was quite see through.



(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

There was considerable conflict about which plan should be accepted. The two accounts of what had happened were on conflict with each other. His conflict of interest made him ineligible for the post. He was immobilized by conflict and indecision. Fortunately, analysis is not the only way to resolve inner conflict.





(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

These days a lot of spas recommend pure oxygen treatment. A memory without a blot or contamination is a source of pure tonic. We felt pure and sweet as a new baby. He has descended from pure genetics. We all heard the pure and lovely music wafting into our rooms.


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

The topic of Balzac’s study was human nature. She made a study of the music industry for her project. He published a study of Eliot’s poetry. She was lost in her study and did not hear us come in. He made a quick pencil sketch of her face as a study for the full portrait in oils.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 52 to 55: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Nothing about global warming is simple, alas. Meteorological models fry the circuits of the largest supercomputers. Feedback loops and anomalies turbocharge an ill-tempered debate about what will happen where and when. And don’t even start on the politics of negotiating a global agreement on emissions or the intricacies of cap-and-trade. Unfortunately, the technology of climate change is no simpler than anything else. A field that you may think is governed by level-headed, spreadsheet-wielding engineers is alarmingly prone to zealotry and taboos. Climate change is too important and too complex to yield to either. It is seductive to think a new technology can solve your problems at a stroke. But zealotry has lately suffered a defeat. It used to be an article of faith in the motor industry that hydrogen-powered fuel cells were the green future, and companies spent billions of dollars on the technology. But it turns out that fuel cells have three Achilles heels. The first is the chicken-andegg problem that, as there are virtually no hydrogen filling-stations, there are no hydrogen cars—and hence there is no reason to build the filling-stations. Then comes the cost of hydrogen-based vehicles. Just the platinum for the catalyst inside a fuel cell costs as much as an internal-combustion engine of equivalent power, according to a recent study. And producing hydrogen from natural gas creates a lot of carbon dioxide— about double what a small, petrol-based car emits. One day hydrogen may be produced from the electrolysis of water. But it would have to be transported and stored, which would require a new infrastructure. So, for the next few decades, at least, technological pragmatism will rule motoring. More efficient internal-combustion engines will wring out mileage from every drop of fuel, and hybrid powertrains will combine an electric motor with a conventional engine. Soon there will be “plug-in” hybrids, which can be recharged from the mains and call on a petrol-powered generator when needed. The plug-ins, in turn, are a bridge towards all-electric vehicles. The plan mapped out by the car industry may not be as technologically elegant as the fuel cell, but it has the merit that it is based on technology that works, is not expensive and can use existing infrastructure. Elsewhere, however, the taboos still rule. Nowhere more so than in geo-engineering, the idea of combating global warming by altering the climate by, say, absorbing carbon dioxide in the oceans, or reflecting sunlight back into space. This involves fantastic sounding schemes, such as fertilising the oceans with iron (to cause a bloom of planktonic algae, thus sucking carbon dioxide out of the atmosphere) or ejecting carbon from the poles using lasers. Scientists and policymakers



have been reluctant even to discuss the subject—much less research it, because they worry that it could cause more problems than it solves and that it will give politicians an excuse to avoid curbing carbon emissions. Both fears are reasonable. The farmer who introduced rabbits into Australia said the bunnies would do “little harm and might provide a touch of home, in addition to a spot of hunting.” The rabbit went on to become a devastating pest. And the world’s politicians, they may well negotiate with less commitment if they feel that they may one day be let off the hook. But neither reason should stop research as insurance. Some forms of geo-engineering may in fact turn out to be easier and cheaper than widespread global curbs on climate emissions-though they may still be unacceptably risky. Only research can tell. As for the politics, geo-engineering cannot just be put back in its box. And because research creates new information, it is as likely to disabuse those who think they can avoid climate-change agreements as it is to offer them false hope. Just ask the people who have given their lives to the fuel cell. The solution to climate change will probably involve an array of technologies, from renewables, nuclear, carbon sequestration, public transport to energy conservation. It is too early to say whether geo-engineering or anything else will be part of this mix. Geo-engineering may turn out to be too risky, however much is spent on researching it. Then again, there may come a time when it is needed. The world needs to be ready—and research is the only way to prepare. 52. According to the passage the technology of climate change is not a simple field because (1) It is governed by spreadsheet-wielding engineers. (2) It is too complicated and too vital to succumb to governance. (3) It is susceptible to zealotry and taboos. (4) It requires a global agreement on emissions. (5) It is governed by level-headed engineers. According to the passage, why are the hydrogen-powered fuel cells no longer the green future? (1) Because billions of dollars were spent on the technology. (2) Because there is the chicken-and-egg problem. (3) Because there are no hydrogen cars. (4) Because there are three problems with the technology. (5) Because there a lack of faith in the technology. Which of the following is not a reason for the debacle of the fuel cells in the passage? (1) The platinum catalyst cell costs as much as an internal-combustion engine. (2) Producing hydrogen from natural gas creates a lot of carbondioxide. (3) There are virtually no hydrogen filling-stations and cars. (4) The cost of hydrogen-based vehicles is high. (5) The fuel cell technology combats climate change. Which of the following statements best supports the argument in the passage that taboos still rule in geo-engineering ? (1) Transportation and storage of hydrogen will require a new infrastructure. (2) Scientists and policymakers worry that it could cause more problems than it solves. (3) The idea of combating global warming by altering the climate is fantastic. (4) Forms of geo-engineering may be cheaper than curbs on climate emissions. (5) Geo-engineering cannot just be put back in its box and needs adequate research.






Sub-section II-B: Number of Questions = 15
Note: Questions 56 to 70 carry 4 marks each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 56 to 59: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Writers’ invisibility has little or nothing to do with Fame, just as Fame has little or nothing to do with Literature. (Fame merits its capital F for its fickleness, Literature its capital L for its lastingness.) Thespians, celebrities and politicians, whose appetite for bottomless draughts of public acclaim, much of it manufactured, is beyond any normal measure, may feed hotly on Fame – but Fame is always a product of the present culture: topical and variable, hence ephemeral. Writers are made otherwise. What writers’ prize is simpler, quieter and more enduring than clamorous Fame: it is recognition. Fame, by and large, is an accountant’s category, tallied in Amazonian sales. Recognition, hushed and inherent in the silence of the page, is a reader’s category: its stealth is its wealth. And recognition itself can be fragile, a light too easily shuttered. Recall Henry James’s lamentation over his culminating New York Edition, with its considered revisions and invaluable prefaces: the mammoth work of a lifetime unheralded, unread, and unsold. That all this came to be munificently reversed is of no moment: the denizens of Parnassus are deaf to after-the-fact earthly notice; belatedness does them no good. Nothing is more poisonous to steady recognition than death: how often is a writer – lauded, fêted, bemedalled – plummeted into eclipse no more than a year or two after the final departure? Who nowadays speaks of Bernard Malamud, once a diadem in the grand American trinity of Bellow-Roth-Malamud? Who thinks of Lionel Trilling, except with dismissive commemorative contempt? Already Norman Mailer is a distant unregretted noise and William Styron a mote in the middle distance (a phrase the nearly forgotten Max Beerbohm applied to the fading Henry James). As for poor befuddled mystical Jack Kerouac and declamatory fiddle-strumming mystical Allen Ginsberg, both are diminished to Documents of an Era: the stale turf of social historians and tedious professors of cultural studies. Yet these eruptions of sudden mufflings and posthumous silences must be ranked entirely apart from the forced muteness of living writers who work in minority languages, away from the klieg lights of the lingua franca, and whose oeuvres linger too often untranslated. The invisibility of recently dead writers is one thing, and can even, in certain cases (I would be pleased to name a few), bring relief; but the invisibility of the living is a different matter altogether, crucial to literary continuity. Political shunning – of writers who are made invisible, and also inaudible, by repressive design – results in what might be called public invisibility, rooted in external circumstance: the thuggish prejudices of gangsters who run rotted regimes, the vengeful prejudices of corrupt academics who propose intellectual boycotts, the shallow prejudices of the publishing lords of the currently dominant languages, and finally (reductio ad absurdum!) the ideologically narrow prejudices of some magazine editors. All these are rampant and scandalous and undermining of free expression. But what of an intrinsic, delicate and far more ubiquitous private invisibility? Vladimir Nabokov was once an invisible writer suffering from three of these unhappy conditions: the public, the private, and the linguistic. As an émigré fleeing the Bolshevik upheavals, and later as a refugee from the Nazis, he escaped the 20th century’s two great tyrannies. And as an émigré writing in Russian in Berlin and Paris, he remained invisible to nearly all but his exiled compatriots. Only on his arrival in America did the marginalising term “émigré” begin to vanish, replaced first by citizen and ultimately by American writer – since it was in America that the invisible became invincible. But Brian Boyd, in his intimate yet panoramic biography, recounts the difficulties, even in welcoming America, of invisible ink’s turning visible – not only in the protracted struggle for the publication of Lolita, but in the most liberal of literary journals.



And here at last is the crux: writers are hidden beings. You have never met one – or, if you should ever believe you are seeing a writer, or having an argument with a writer, or listening to a talk by a writer, then you can be sure it is all a mistake. Inevitably, we are returned to Henry James, who long ago unriddled the conundrum of writers’ invisibility. In a story called “The Private Life”, Clare Vawdrey, a writer burdened by one of those peculiar Jamesian names (rhyming perhaps not accidentally with “tawdry”), is visible everywhere in every conceivable social situation. He is always available for a conversation or a stroll, always accessible, always pleasantly anecdotal, never remote or preoccupied. He has a light-minded bourgeois affability: “He talks, he circulates,” James’s narrator informs us, “he’s awfully popular, he flirts with you.” His work, as it happens, is the very opposite of his visible character: it is steeped in unalloyed greatness. One evening, while Vawdrey is loitering outdoors on a terrace, exchanging banalities with a companion, the narrator steals into Vawdrey’s room – only to discover him seated at his writing table in the dark, feverishly driving his pen. Since it is physically impossible for a material body to be in two places simultaneously, the narrator concludes that the social Vawdrey is a phantom, while the writer working in the dark is the real Vawdrey. “One is the genius,” he explains, “the other’s the bourgeois, and it’s only the bourgeois whom we personally know.” 56. The significance of admiration for writers is dissimilar from that of celebrities and politicians because (1) Fame is transient. (2) Fame offers immeasurable public approbation. (3) Writers look for deeper recognition. (4) Fame is clamorous. (5) Furtiveness is what the writers prefer. What, according to the author, is the reason for the invisibility of the living? (1) It hampers literary continuity. (2) The living are shy of the arc lights. (3) Their work is not worthy of consideration. (4) The language is difficult to follow. (5) They are victims of parochialism. According to the passage, the two tyrannies escaped by Nabokov were: (1) That he was an invisible writer and suffered linguistic problems. (2) That he fled from the Bolshevik revolution and the Nazi turmoil. (3) That he was welcomed in America but also suffered a rejection. (4) That his invisibility extended to all and the fact that he wrote in Russian. (5) That as he began as an émigré and was replaced gradually as an American writer. Which of the following is best exemplified by the character Vawdrey in the passage? (1) Light-minded bourgeois affability. (2) Vawdrey is the answer to the writers’ invisibility. (3) The fact that a writer is the opposite of his perceptible character. (4) The premise that the writer is an apparition. (5) The truth that the writer is a brain.






DIRECTIONS for Questions 60 to 63: The poem given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Let us go then, you and I, When the evening is spread out against the sky Like a patient etherized upon a table; Let us go, through certain half-deserted streets, The muttering retreats Of restless nights in one-night cheap hotels And sawdust restaurants with oyster-shells: Streets that follow like a tedious argument Of insidious intent To lead you to an overwhelming question. . . Oh, do not ask, “What is it?” Let us go and make our visit. In the room the women come and go Talking of Michelangelo. The yellow fog that rubs its back upon the window-panes The yellow smoke that rubs its muzzle on the window-panes Licked its tongue into the corners of the evening Lingered upon the pools that stand in drains, Let fall upon its back the soot that falls from chimneys, Slipped by the terrace, made a sudden leap, And seeing that it was a soft October night Curled once about the house, and fell asleep. And indeed there will be time For the yellow smoke that slides along the street, Rubbing its back upon the window-panes; There will be time, there will be time To prepare a face to meet the faces that you meet; There will be time to murder and create, And time for all the works and days of hands That lift and drop a question on your plate; Time for you and time for me, And time yet for a hundred indecisions And for a hundred visions and revisions Before the taking of a toast and tea. In the room the women come and go Talking of Michelangelo.



And indeed there will be time To wonder, “Do I dare?” and, “Do I dare?” Time to turn back and descend the stair, With a bald spot in the middle of my hair— [They will say: “How his hair is growing thin!”] My morning coat, my collar mounting firmly to the chin, My necktie rich and modest, but asserted by a simple pin— [They will say: “But how his arms and legs are thin!”] Do I dare Disturb the universe? In a minute there is time For decisions and revisions which a minute will reverse. For I have known them all already, known them all; Have known the evenings, mornings, afternoons, I have measured out my life with coffee spoons; I know the voices dying with a dying fall Beneath the music from a farther room. So how should I presume? 60. In the passage, evening is compared to: (1) The spreading sky (2) The anesthetized patient (3) Wicked people (4) The deserted streets (5) A walk in the streets In the first ten lines of the passage the author embodies which of the following with human attributes? (1) toast (2) restaurants (3) intent (4) retreats (5) arguments What, according to the passage, is the reason for the author’s optimism? (1) That the women are talking of Michelangelo. (2) That the yellow fog rubs upon the window-panes. (3) That it was an October night. (4) That there will be moments for everything. (5) That the falling soot made a sudden leap. Which of the following meanings can be inferred from the lines “Do I dare Disturb the universe?”? (1) The author is referring to his bright future. (2) The author fears that he will cause some major upheaval in world. (3) The author refers to the ‘status quo’ in which he is in. (4) The author expresses his feeling of being pinned against a wall. (5) The author is apprehensive about his last days.






DIRECTIONS for Questions 64 to 67: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Modern identity politics springs from a hole in the political theory underlying liberal democracy. That hole is liberalism’s silence about the place and significance of groups. The line of modern political theory that begins with Machiavelli and continues through Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau and the American founding fathers understands the issue of political freedom as one that pits the state against individuals rather than groups. Hobbes and Locke, for example, argue that human beings possess natural rights as individuals in the state of nature—rights that can only be secured through a social contract that prevents one individual’s pursuit of selfinterest from harming others. Modern liberalism arose in good measure in reaction to the wars of religion that raged in Europe following the Reformation. Liberalism established the principle of religious toleration—the idea that religious goals could not be pursued in the public sphere in a way that restricted the religious freedom of other sects or churches. (As we will see below, the actual separation of church and state was never fully achieved in many modern European democracies.) But while modern liberalism clearly established the principle that state power should not be used to impose religious belief on individuals, it left unanswered the question of whether individual freedom could conflict with the rights of people to uphold a particular religious tradition. Freedom, understood not as the freedom of individuals but of cultural or religious or ethnic groups to protect their group identities, was not seen as a central issue by the American founders, perhaps because the new settlers were relatively homogeneous. In the words of John Jay (in the second “Federalist Paper”): “A people descended from the same ancestors, speaking the same language, professing the same religion, attached to the same principles.” In the west, identity politics began in earnest with the Reformation. Martin Luther argued that salvation could be achieved only through an inner state of faith, and attacked the emphasis on works—that is, exterior conformity to a set of social rules. The Reformation thus identified true religiosity as an individual’s subjective state, dissociating inner identity from outer practice. The Canadian philosopher Charles Taylor has written helpfully about the subsequent historical development of identity politics. Rousseau, in the Second Discourse and the Promenades, argued that there was a big disjuncture between our outer selves, which were the accretion of social customs and habits, and our true inner natures. Happiness lay in the recovery of inner authenticity. This idea was developed by Johann Gottfried von Herder, who argued that inner authenticity lay not just in individuals but in peoples, in the recovery of what we today call folk culture. In Taylor’s words, “This is the powerful ideal that has come down to us. It accords moral importance to a kind of contact with myself, with my own inner nature, which it sees as in danger of being lost… through the pressures toward social conformity.” The disjuncture between one’s inner and outer selves comes not merely out of the realm of ideas, but from the social reality of modern market democracies. After the American and French revolutions, the ideal of la carrière ouverte aux talents was increasingly put into practice as traditional barriers to social mobility were removed. One’s social status was now achieved rather than ascribed; it was the product of one’s talents, work and effort rather than an accident of birth. One’s life story was the search for fulfillment of an inner plan, rather than conformity to the expectations of one’s parents, kin, village or priest. 64. What according to the passage is the reason for the existence of modern identity politics? (1) The position and implication of factions has not been defined. (2) The individual has been pitted against the state. (3) The state restricts human rights when it comes to religion. (4) The definition of a social contract is not clear. (5) The natural rights of a human beings should be in accordance with the state.




According to the passage, the idea of religious toleration propagates which of the following? (1) That cultural freedom was a part of religion. (2) That religious objectives should not confine anyone’s freedom. (3) Tha religion should not be professed publicly. (4) That the religious bodies should be separate from the state. (5) That individuals were free to protect their identities. The Reformation was successful in accomplishing which of the following in the passage? (1) It marked the advent of socially relevant politics. (2) It controlled the state. (3) It bespoke of emphasis on work. (4) It demanded large scale reforms. (5) It beheld the virtuosity of inner conviction. According to the passage, the elimination of conventional barriers resulted in which of the following? (1) The chasm between the inner and outer selves was removed. (2) The ideal of talents was put into application. (3) Social status was attributed to personal efforts. (4) Expectations from the family increased. (5) Birth was a matter of no significance.



DIRECTIONS for Questions 68 to 70: In each question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are highlighted (in bold). From the highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one. 68. With that, he turns [A] / turned [B] on his heal [A] / heel [B] and fled. The Maestro assented [A] / ascented [B] to the request for an encore. It is, sometimes useful, to plumb [A] / plum [B] someone’s thoughts. The school had a great interest in music and was forming a choral [A] / coral [B] society. (1) AAABA (2) BBAAA (3) BBBBA (4) AABBA (5) BBBAA It is important to get the ideas of great philosophers through our skull [A] / scull [B]. The embankment was designed to levy [A] / levee [B] a treacherous stream. The negotiator made an offer who [A] / that [B] was very attractive to the [A] / a [B] union. He could profit [A] / prophet [B] greatly from his schooling. (1) AABAA (2) BBBAA (3) ABBAA (4) AABBB (5) BABAB He was baron [A] / barren [B] of tender feelings. The kohl [A] / coal [B] glowed [A] / glowered [B] in the dark giving solace to many. The pillars were decorated with a freeze [A] / frieze [B] of angels. The malls want to be in sync [A] / sink [B] with the customers’ demands. (1) ABAAA (2) BAABB (3) ABABA (4) BBABA (5) AABAB





Sub-section III-A: Number of Questions = 20
Note: Questions 71 to 90 carry 2 marks each. 71. One-fourth portion of each of the two solid spheres having radii 4 units and 6 units are joined together such that the centres of the two spheres coincide as shown in the figure given below. What is the total surface area of the solid thus formed?


(1) 88π sq. units 72. (2) 83π sq. units

(3) 75π sq. units

(4) 73π sq. units (5) 78π sq. units

Richa has three types of boxes large, medium and small. She plays a game in which she placed 9 large boxes on the table. She puts 5 medium boxes each, in few of the large boxes then she puts 5 small boxes each, in few of the medium boxes. If the number of boxes that have been left empty in the game is 41, then how many boxes were used in the game by Richa? (1) 72 (2) 49 (3) 63 (4) 56 (5) 102 The number of factors of the number N = 46 + 68 is (1) 18 (2) 36 (3) 54


(4) 72

(5) None of these


Mr. Chaalu while buying cloth uses a faulty meter tape which actually measures 110 cm and while selling cloth, he uses a faulty meter tape which actually measures 90 cm. If he buys the cloth at a discount of 5% on the marked price and sells it on a discount of 10% on the same marked price, then what is his percentage gain or loss? (1) 15.8% profit (2) 4.21% loss (3) 5% loss (4) 25% profit (5) None of these Given that 2 x + x 2 = 3. What is the total number of integral solutions of the given equation? (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3 (5) More than 3 In a unit square ABCD, points E and F are marked on the sides AB and BC respectively such that AE = BF. G is the point of intersection of the line segments DE and AF. What is the minimum possible length (in units) of the line segment BG? (1)
1 2
y y




1 2



1 7


1 3


1 6




Which of the following is a graph of the function f(x) = |x| + |x – 1|?

(– 1 , 1 )

(0 , 1 )

(0 , 1 )



(– 1 , 1 )

(1 , 1 )


(1 , 0


(5) None of these DIRECTIONS for Questions 78 and 79: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a group, there are five persons namely Amir, Bhutal, Chetali, Dhani and Esha such that there are two married couples and one person is not married. The average weight of the two couples is 79 kgs and 82 kgs. The average weight of all the women in the mentioned group is 78 kgs and the average weight of all the persons in the group is 80 kgs. Further, the weight of Chetali is 2 kgs more than the weight of Esha and weight of Bhutal is 8 kgs more than the weight of Amir. The weight of Dhani is 78 kgs and the weight of each person in the group is distinct. 78. Which of the following pairs is a married couple? (1) Amir and Esha (2) Bhutal and Esha (4) Esha and Dhani (5) Amir and Dhani Which of the following persons is not married? (1) Bhutal (2) Chetali (3) Dhani

(3) Amir and Bhutal


(4) Esha

(5) Amir




A point P lies inside a triangle ABC such that PA = PB = 10 cm and ∠APB = 60°. Find the length of PC, if the measure of ∠ACB = 30°. (1) 20 cm (2) 15 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 5 cm (5) Data insufficient My current age is two more than thrice the age of one of my two sisters named Richa. After N years, I will be two more than thrice the age of my other sister named Namita. What is the minimum possible integral difference (in years) between the age of my two mentioned sisters? (N is a natural number) (1) 10 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2 (5) None of these If f(z) = (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
1 1 1 f(z) + + + ......∞, | z | > 1, then is a 2 3 z z z f(z 2 )



Linear Function Quadratic Function Cubic Function Constant None of these


Let a, b, c, d be the lengths of consecutive sides of a rectangle. Which of the following can be the area of the rectangle? (1)

(a + c )( b + d )

4 (4) Both (1) and (2)

4 (5) Both (2) and (3)


(a + b )(c + d )


(a + d )( b + c )


If the lines y = x, y = – x, y = ax + c and y + ax + c = 0 are concurrent, then which of the following is correct? (a and c are real constants) (1) a = 1 (2) a = 0 (3) c = 0 (4) a = c (5) None of these If z = (x – 4)(x – 2) ≠ 0 and y = 4x + 41 – x, where x, y, z are all real numbers, then what is the maximum value of
1 ? ( yz )


(1) (4)

1 5 1 40

(2) (5)

1 15 1 20

(3) 1



DIRECTIONS for Question 86 and 87: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions: Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone. Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A alone. Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone. Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone. Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements. 86. What is the value of Y? A: XXYY is a perfect square. B: 87.

1 of the numbers from 1 to 3000000 are divisible by 2 but not by 3. Y

The arithmetic mean of four arithmetic series A1, A2, A3 and A4 is 4, 7, 8 and 9 respectively. What is the sum of the four arithmetic series? A: The total number of terms in the four mentioned series A 1, A 2, A 3 and A 4 is 3, 7, 9 and 11 respectively. B: The total number of terms in the four mentioned series is in a Arithmetic Progression. The number of terms in two out of the four mentioned series is 2 and 4. Find the minimum value of the following function: f(x) = (x – 5)2 + (x – 7)2 – (x – 4)2 – (x – 8)2 + (x – 3)2 + (x – 9)2 (1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 13 (4) 12


(5) 14


A five letter word having distinct alphabets is formed using the five alphabets ‘C’, ‘O’, ‘I’, ‘W’ and ‘T’. All such possible five letters words are written in an alphabetical order from CIOTW to WTOIC. What will be the 60th word written? (1) OTWIC (2) OTCIW (3) OIWTC (4) OCTIW (5) OICTW In a shop an acid is available only in sealed bottles of volume 1 litre. The concentration of the mentioned acid is one or the other of three concentrations 20%, 30% and 50%. The cost per litre of the acid having concentration 20%, 30% and 50% is Rs.20, Rs.30 and Rs.40 respectively. Sunil wants to prepare a solution of 10 litres of acid having concentration 40% using the bottles of acid available in the shop. What is the minimum possible amount Sunil must spent in buying the bottles of acid? (1) Rs.330 (2) Rs.340 (3) Rs.333.33 (4) Rs.360 (5) Rs.380




Sub-section III-B: Number of Questions = 15
Note: Questions 91 to 105 carry 4 marks each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 91 and 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a right ∆ABC, AB = 3 m, BC = 4 m and AC = 5 m. M and N are two points on sides AB and BC respectively such that MN divides the area and the perimeter of the ∆ABC in the ratios of 1:11 and 1:2 respectively. 91. Find the length of MN. (1) 8 m 92. (2)

10 m


15 m


14 m

(5) Cannot be determined

Find the area of triangle MNC. (1)
7−4 3 2 m 2


5−4 3 2 m 2


7+4 3 2 m 2


5+4 3 2 m 2

(5) None of these


How many two digit numbers have exactly four factors? (1) 29 (2) 31 (3) 32 (4) 28

(5) 30


Given that the product of two numbers AB and CD is a three digit number EEE, where A, B, C, D and E are distinct non zero digits. What is the sum of all the possible values of AB? (1) 228 (2) 240 (3) 246 (4) 165 (5) None of these

DIRECTIONS for Questions 95 and 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. 150 persons attended a fair, where everyone played at least one of the games out of Mario, Nintendo and NFS. The price that a person paid for playing exactly one game, exactly two games and all the three games is $2, $3 and $5 respectively. It is also known that 40 persons played Mario, 90 persons played Nintendo and 145 persons played NFS. 95. If 125 persons played atleast two games, then the number of persons that played only NFS cannot be less than (1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 15 (4) 45 (5) None of these What is the minimum possible amount that these 150 mentioned persons paid for playing the above mentioned games? (1) Rs.300 (2) Rs.425 (3) Rs.750 (4) Rs.500 (5) Rs.660 Find the total number of points having integral coordinates inside the region enclosed by 2|x| + 3|y| = 18 in the X-Y plane. (1) 111 (2) 103 (3) 107 (4) 102 (5) 88





DIRECTIONS for Questions 98 and 99: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. When two unbiased dice are tossed simultaneously, the numbers that appear on the top surface of the two dice are ‘a’ and ‘b’. 98. What is the probability that ab is a perfect square? (1) 99.

1 3


2 3


23 36


11 18


5 12

What is the probability that (a × b) is a perfect square? (1)

5 36


1 3


7 36


1 6


2 9

100. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ are positive integers such that that A 2 − 4 is divisible by B? (1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 32

A = 113.3125, then what is the smallest value of ‘B’ such B



(4) 48

(5) 64

101. There are nine balls on a billiards table numbered consecutively from 1 to 9. Each ball carries the points equal to its complement of 10 for pocketing a ball. If the sum of the points obtained by pocketing the ball in the first three strokes is 8 and the sum of the points obtained by pocketing the ball in the last three strokes is 22, then which of the following cannot be the sum of the numbers written on the ball which were pocketed in the 1st, 5th and 8th stroke? (Assume in each stroke exactly one ball was pocketed and all the 9 balls were pocketed in 9 strokes) (1) 19 (2) 12 (3) 23 (4) 8 (5) Data insufficient 102. The length of the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle is 240 units. The perimeter of the given triangle is a perfect square. If the perimeter of the given triangle is greater than 550 units, then which of the following can be the length of a side of the given right-angled triangle? (1) 192 units (2) 168 units (3) 144 units (4) Both (1) and (3) (5) Both (1) and (2) 103. The sum of four natural numbers a1, a2, a3 and a4 is 210. What is the minimum possible LCM of these 4 mentioned natural numbers? (1) 500 (2) 84 (3) 105 (4) 42 (5) None of these 104. 1 unit of A is made by mixing 4 units of B and 5 units of C. 1 unit of B is made by mixing 1 unit of X, 4 units of Y and 1 unit of Z. 1 unit of C is made by mixing 2 units of X, 6 units of Y and 1 unit of Z. The weight of 1 unit each of X, Y and Z is 5 kgs, 3 kgs and 8 kgs respectively. What is the total weight of Y required to make 1400 kgs of A? (1) 630 kgs (2) 720 kgs (3) 690 kgs (4) 870 kgs (5) 570 kgs 105. 10 points are chosen on a plane. Every possible pair of points is joined by a line and the midpoint of the line is marked with red colour. What is the minimum possible number points on the plane which have been marked with red colour? (1) 9 (2) 17 (3) 27 (4) 45 (5) None of these



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