Emergency Disaster Nursing
Content
1. Emergency Nursing is best defined as: A. Unforeseen combination of circumstances, requiring immediate action B. Natural or Man-made events that causes destruction and devastation C. Unforeseen circumstances for varied clients, calling for immediate help D. Events that require extraordinary efforts beyond everyday emergencies 2. What body governs Emergency and Disaster Nursing in the Philippines? A. Philippine Red Cross C. NDRRMC B. DND D. DILG 3. The NDRRMC is headed by the: A. President of the Philippines B. Secretary General of PNRC C. Secretary of the Dept. of National Defense D. Secretary of DILG 4. In cases of emergency and disaster, the person to declare as state of calamity is the: A. President of the Philippines B. Secretary General of PNRC C. Secretary of the Dept. of National Defense D. Secretary of DILG 5. The Philippine governments have several programs to raise awareness and consciousness about emergency and disaster, what month is the National Disaster consciousness month celebrated? A. June B. July C. August D. December 6. The national health emergency preparedness day is celebrated in what day of December? A. 1 B. 6 C. 3-9 D. 10
7. Roles of nurses are varied in emergencies and disasters, what best exemplifies the role of nurses during the presence of a disaster? A. Identification of available resources in the community B. Create rescue plan and practicing it with community C. Providing treatment to the patient D. Debriefing the survivors 8. A dead body was discovered 2 hours after an explosion, upon assessment the body is in 36% surface area of burns and whole body is cold to touch, what stage of death is the patient in? A. Pallor Mortis C. Algor Mortis B. Rigor Mortis D. Livor Mortis 9. The 1991 earthquake and the Mt Pinatubo explosion is considered what level of disaster? A. Level 1 B. Level 2 C. Level 3 D. Level 4 10. The EMS called the hospital and reported that they will be bringing patients from a mass casualty incident, as a nurse you will anticipate the number of victims to be? A. Not more than 10 C. more than 10 B. Children of varying age D. more than 100 11. In a mass casualty incident, the 2 team EMS arrived, they were commanded by the incident commander to wear Personal Protective Equipment, they know that they will be designated to what zone of the disaster? A. Hot zone B. Warm zone C. Cold zone D. Cool zone 12. This is a written plan to help control, direct and coordinate personnel and equipment from the scene and transport of patient to definitive care? A. Incident Command System C. Emergency Plan B. Floor Plan D. Incident Management System 13. Scene Safety is the immediate goal of responders in an emergency situation, in what order will you prioritize the safety of the following?
nd
1. Scene 2. Self 3. Survivors A. 1 2 3 B. 2 1 3 C. 3 2 1
D. 3 1 2
14. The primary purpose of triage is to: A. Save lives B. Restoration to pre-disaster state
C. Prioritize treatment D. Prevent secondary compications
15. The Triage Nurse assigned a patient under the color of yellow. As the attending nurse you know that prompt treatment should be given within what period of time? A. Immediately C. 20 minutes-1 hour B. More than 2 hours D. depending on the availability of the nurse 16. A number of patients entered the Emergency Department at the same time, a patient complains of fever and with signs of dehydration. How will you classify this patient? A. Immediate B. Urgent C. Non-urgent D. Delayed 17. While dining in a restaurant, you observed on the other table that a woman is probably choking most probably caused by food. What observation will tell you that the woman is choking due to foreign body airway obstruction? A. Cyanosis of face and lips C. Protrusion of eyeballs B. Pulseless D. Clenching of neck 18. The patient is coughing due to foreign body airway obstruction, what initial step should be done to assist the patient to be relieved from the obstruction? A. Perform CPR C. Perform Heimlich maneuver B. Encourage her to cough D. call for help Scenario: A school bus full load of children ran over a café. Obvious damages are seen, START and jumpSTART triage is to be done to quickly transport victims to hospitals for directive and definitive care. Your assessment reveals: 19. A young boy is found lying away from the bus, with RR of 10/min, good distal pulse and groans to painful stimuli. A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Black 20. An adult kneels on the sidewalk, shaking his head and says he is too dizzy to walk. RR 20, Capillary refill of 2, obeys command. A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Black 21. A school age girl, crawling out of the wreckage, stood up and walks towards you crying. A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Black 22. A toddler lies with his lower body trapped underneath the seat. Apneic, remains apneic with jaw thrust, no pulse. A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Black 23. A toddler lies along the wreckage with RR of 50, palpable distal pulse and withdraws from painful stimuli. A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Black CPR 24. A nurse finds out that a patient is unresponsive. The client is obviously not breathing and don’t have a pulse. The nurse calls for help. The next action would be to: A. Ventilate with a mouth to mask device B. Start chest compressions C. Give the client oxygen D. Open the airway 25. The nurse is performing CPR to an adult client. The nurse understands that to give effective compressions the nurse should depress the sternum A. ½ to ¾ inch C. 1 ½ inch to 2 inch B. 1 inch D. at least 2 inches 26. The nurse is teaching community folks CPR, the nurse describes why finger sweeps are not recommended for infants and children. The nurse determines they understands this reason if they make which statement? A. The object may be forced farther back in the throat B. The mouth is too small to see the object C. The object may have been swallowed
D. The infant might bite down the finger 27. The nurse understands that the AED automatically discharges shock to the patient if it identifies which of the following dysrhythmia to the client? A. Normal sinus C. Asystole B. Ventricular fibrillation D. Sinus tachycardia 28. You are assisting a physician in defibrillating the patient, the physician says first charge, you are aware that the defibrillator is set to how many joules of electricity? A. 100 J B. 200 J C. 300 J D. 360 J 29. After a series of three shocks you assess the patient and finds him to be still pulseless, what is your next intervention? A. Declare the patient dead, and talk to the relatives B. Perform CPR for 1 minute and deliver another 3 shocks C. Give another 360 J shock to the patient D. Assess the pulse of the patient Natural disasters 30. The government unit announced a level 2 alert on a certain community affected with flood. As a responder you understand that the primary cause of mortality among patients during flood is: A. Drowning B. Dehydration C. Stress D. Electrocution 31. The government unit announced a level 2 alert on a certain community affected with flood. As a responder you understand that after a flood the most common medical problem of the people is? A. Infection B. diarrhea C. dehydration D. Drowning 32. A fire occurred at your building, fire extinguisher is present, how is the fire extinguisher recommended to be used? A. P A S S B. P A S C. A S S D. S S A P 33. You are teaching school aged children about earthquake. At the jolt of the beginning earthquake what is the best thing to teach the children while they are in their classrooms? A. Calmly go to open spaces C. Activate the EMS B. Dock hold and cover D. seek on sturdy support like walls and posts Poisoning 34. The substance that’s most common among inhalation injury is? A. Carbon dioxide C. Carbon monoxide B. Ammonia D. Argon 35. Antidotes are given as first aid for any types of poisoning, the primary action of antidote is to: A. Facilitate the excretion of the poison B. Counteract the action of poison C. Lessen the effects of the poison D. Treat the patient from the effects of the poison 36. The patient attempted to commit suicide through ingestion of a corrosive substance. The goal is to remove the poisonous substance to limit the effect of the poison. As a nurse you are aware that the next step is to: A. Prepare laxatives C. Prepare emetics B. Prepare NGT for lavage D. Prepare antidotes 37. A young boy comes in the ED with his mother, and the mother stated that the patient was stung by a bee, upon assessment the boy is fully conscious but complains of sharp pain, erythema on the sites of bee sting and wheezes upon auscultation. What drug will be best given to the patient? A. Benadryl C. Epinephrine B. Ibuprofen D. Ranitidine 38. A patient comes in due to lead poisoning, a chelation therapy was immediately ordered to the patient. Prior to the administration of this therapy what organ function should be assessed in the patient? A. Liver function B. Kidney function C. GI function D. Oral function Musculoskeletal
39. A patient was diagnosed of strain after playing basketball. You know that a strain is an injury involving the muscles and: A. Tendons B. Ligaments C. Bones D. Muscles only 40. You respond to a patient who fell from a flight of stairs he complains of pain in the ankles, you are in doubt if the patient had sprain, strain or fracture. What is the best intervention to do? A. Assess neurovascular status C. Encourage the patient to walk B. Splint the area D. Transport the patient 41. A patient experienced multiple fractures from a vehicular accident, what fracture would yield the highest amount of blood loss? A. Rib B. tibia C. femur D. humerus 42. What would be the best nursing intervention to perform in a patient with sprain and strain to promote faster healing and recovery of the injured parts? A. Rest B. Ice C. Compression D. Elevation 43. A professional runner complains of pain, immobility after completing a 25 kilometer run, upon further assessment swelling and discoloration of the foot, what type of fracture does the patient probably have? A. Spiral B. Comminuted C. Open D. Stress Burns 44. A client was admitted to the ED due to second degree burns. Which of the ff areas of the body is affected? A. Epidermis C. Epidermis and dermis B. Skin, subcutaneous fat and muscles D. Skin, subcutaneous fat, muscles and bones 45. The most common recommended route of giving pain medications during the emergent and acute phase would be? A. Rectal B. Oral C. IV D. SC 46. The weight of the patient prior to burns is 90 kg, his present weight is 83 kg. The surface area of burns is 83%, using the Parkland(Baxter) method, how much fluid will the patient receive in the first 8 hours? A. 3735 ml B. 7470 ml C. 14940 ml D. 29880 ml 47. In the acute phase of burns, the dietician prepared food for the patient, you are aware that the dietician should have prepared foods high in? A. Calorie and CHON C. Calorie and CHO B. CHON and Fats D. CHON and CHO 48. Wound care is given to the patient via the closed method, dressings applied will be changed every: A. Hourly B. 8 hours C. 24 hours D. as needed Abdominal, Facial Trauma 49. A barbeque stick was accidentally impaled in the boy’s left eye, after securing with stick for immobilization, what would be the next step to be done? A. Cover the affected eye C. Irrigate the eyes B. Cover both eyes D. Prepare for X-ray 50. Chemical was splashed to the eyes of a construction worker in the field of work, irrigation of the eye is promptly done, the best solution to be used is: A. 2 L of PLRS C. large quantities of cool running water B. Milk D. lukewarm water for at least 10 minutes 51. Blunt trauma to the abdomen of the patient is suspected after a MVA, what sign present to the patient would indicate an internal bleeding? A. Cullen’s sign C. Turners’ sign B. Coopernail’s sign D. Braxton Hicks 52. A patient experienced blast injury to the abdomen, evident evisceration is present, the patient is not breathing and is pulseless as a first responder to the scene what would be the best action? A. Rescue breathing only C. CPR without compressions B. CPR D. Position to side lying 53. A patient was exposed to flames in the face, actions to be given to the patient is all EXCEPT:
A. Establish airway B. Administration of O2 Respiratory Emergencies
C. Submerged in a cool water D. Extrication of fire
54. Pleurisy is a secondary problem caused by many pulmonary diseases, what is the best observation that the patient has pleurisy? A. Pleuritic chest pain B. Dyspnea C. Tachypnea D. Hypoxia 55. While transporting a patient with a sucking stab wound to the chest, how will you position the client? A. High fowlers B Semi fowlers C. lying on the affected side D. Lying on the unaffected side 56. Paradoxical respirations was observed in a patient who experienced chest trauma, the patient is most likely having what type of chest injury? A. Rib fracture B. Flail chest C. Pulmonary contusion D, Pneumothorax 57. You are caring for a patient with acute pulmonary edema. To immediately relieve the patient from dyspnea, you should first? A. Administer O2 C. Perform chest physiotherapy B. Position on high fowlers position D. have the patient perform DBE and coughing exercises 58. After covering the wound of the patient from open pneumothorax, the patient is transported to the hospital. You anticipate that the next intervention to the patient would be? A. Chest X ray C. Thoracentesis B. Administration of bronchodilators D. Maintaining in high fowlers position Anthrax and Radiation 59. You are caring for a patient with suspected anthrax, what precaution is needed in the care of the patient? A. Airborne precaution C. Contact precaution B. Standard precaution D. Isolation precaution 60. There are three primary methods of anthrax infection, which of the ff results in the most severe clinical manifestations: A. Inhalation B. Skin contact C. GI ingestion 61. The hallmark sign of anthrax, which if appears almost and consistently progresses to imminent death: A. Flu-like symptoms B. dyspnea C. respiratory distress D. mediastinitis 62. A radiation exposure is threatening a certain community , the intake of at least 2 grams of iodized salt was advised by the EMS, the local people asked you the purpose of it, the best response would be? A. Iodine is the antidote for radiation B. To increase the immunity of the person C. To avoid damage to the brain D. To protect the thyroid gland 63. The clothes of a patient that was suspected of having exposed to radiation was removed to limit further contact, as the nurse assisting the patient, you would place the clothes in what color coded container? A. Orange B. Blue C. Green D. Red
7. Roles of nurses are varied in emergencies and disasters, what best exemplifies the role of nurses during the presence of a disaster? A. Identification of available resources in the community B. Create rescue plan and practicing it with community C. Providing treatment to the patient D. Debriefing the survivors 8. A dead body was discovered 2 hours after an explosion, upon assessment the body is in 36% surface area of burns and whole body is cold to touch, what stage of death is the patient in? A. Pallor Mortis C. Algor Mortis B. Rigor Mortis D. Livor Mortis 9. The 1991 earthquake and the Mt Pinatubo explosion is considered what level of disaster? A. Level 1 B. Level 2 C. Level 3 D. Level 4 10. The EMS called the hospital and reported that they will be bringing patients from a mass casualty incident, as a nurse you will anticipate the number of victims to be? A. Not more than 10 C. more than 10 B. Children of varying age D. more than 100 11. In a mass casualty incident, the 2 team EMS arrived, they were commanded by the incident commander to wear Personal Protective Equipment, they know that they will be designated to what zone of the disaster? A. Hot zone B. Warm zone C. Cold zone D. Cool zone 12. This is a written plan to help control, direct and coordinate personnel and equipment from the scene and transport of patient to definitive care? A. Incident Command System C. Emergency Plan B. Floor Plan D. Incident Management System 13. Scene Safety is the immediate goal of responders in an emergency situation, in what order will you prioritize the safety of the following?
nd
1. Scene 2. Self 3. Survivors A. 1 2 3 B. 2 1 3 C. 3 2 1
D. 3 1 2
14. The primary purpose of triage is to: A. Save lives B. Restoration to pre-disaster state
C. Prioritize treatment D. Prevent secondary compications
15. The Triage Nurse assigned a patient under the color of yellow. As the attending nurse you know that prompt treatment should be given within what period of time? A. Immediately C. 20 minutes-1 hour B. More than 2 hours D. depending on the availability of the nurse 16. A number of patients entered the Emergency Department at the same time, a patient complains of fever and with signs of dehydration. How will you classify this patient? A. Immediate B. Urgent C. Non-urgent D. Delayed 17. While dining in a restaurant, you observed on the other table that a woman is probably choking most probably caused by food. What observation will tell you that the woman is choking due to foreign body airway obstruction? A. Cyanosis of face and lips C. Protrusion of eyeballs B. Pulseless D. Clenching of neck 18. The patient is coughing due to foreign body airway obstruction, what initial step should be done to assist the patient to be relieved from the obstruction? A. Perform CPR C. Perform Heimlich maneuver B. Encourage her to cough D. call for help Scenario: A school bus full load of children ran over a café. Obvious damages are seen, START and jumpSTART triage is to be done to quickly transport victims to hospitals for directive and definitive care. Your assessment reveals: 19. A young boy is found lying away from the bus, with RR of 10/min, good distal pulse and groans to painful stimuli. A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Black 20. An adult kneels on the sidewalk, shaking his head and says he is too dizzy to walk. RR 20, Capillary refill of 2, obeys command. A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Black 21. A school age girl, crawling out of the wreckage, stood up and walks towards you crying. A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Black 22. A toddler lies with his lower body trapped underneath the seat. Apneic, remains apneic with jaw thrust, no pulse. A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Black 23. A toddler lies along the wreckage with RR of 50, palpable distal pulse and withdraws from painful stimuli. A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Black CPR 24. A nurse finds out that a patient is unresponsive. The client is obviously not breathing and don’t have a pulse. The nurse calls for help. The next action would be to: A. Ventilate with a mouth to mask device B. Start chest compressions C. Give the client oxygen D. Open the airway 25. The nurse is performing CPR to an adult client. The nurse understands that to give effective compressions the nurse should depress the sternum A. ½ to ¾ inch C. 1 ½ inch to 2 inch B. 1 inch D. at least 2 inches 26. The nurse is teaching community folks CPR, the nurse describes why finger sweeps are not recommended for infants and children. The nurse determines they understands this reason if they make which statement? A. The object may be forced farther back in the throat B. The mouth is too small to see the object C. The object may have been swallowed
D. The infant might bite down the finger 27. The nurse understands that the AED automatically discharges shock to the patient if it identifies which of the following dysrhythmia to the client? A. Normal sinus C. Asystole B. Ventricular fibrillation D. Sinus tachycardia 28. You are assisting a physician in defibrillating the patient, the physician says first charge, you are aware that the defibrillator is set to how many joules of electricity? A. 100 J B. 200 J C. 300 J D. 360 J 29. After a series of three shocks you assess the patient and finds him to be still pulseless, what is your next intervention? A. Declare the patient dead, and talk to the relatives B. Perform CPR for 1 minute and deliver another 3 shocks C. Give another 360 J shock to the patient D. Assess the pulse of the patient Natural disasters 30. The government unit announced a level 2 alert on a certain community affected with flood. As a responder you understand that the primary cause of mortality among patients during flood is: A. Drowning B. Dehydration C. Stress D. Electrocution 31. The government unit announced a level 2 alert on a certain community affected with flood. As a responder you understand that after a flood the most common medical problem of the people is? A. Infection B. diarrhea C. dehydration D. Drowning 32. A fire occurred at your building, fire extinguisher is present, how is the fire extinguisher recommended to be used? A. P A S S B. P A S C. A S S D. S S A P 33. You are teaching school aged children about earthquake. At the jolt of the beginning earthquake what is the best thing to teach the children while they are in their classrooms? A. Calmly go to open spaces C. Activate the EMS B. Dock hold and cover D. seek on sturdy support like walls and posts Poisoning 34. The substance that’s most common among inhalation injury is? A. Carbon dioxide C. Carbon monoxide B. Ammonia D. Argon 35. Antidotes are given as first aid for any types of poisoning, the primary action of antidote is to: A. Facilitate the excretion of the poison B. Counteract the action of poison C. Lessen the effects of the poison D. Treat the patient from the effects of the poison 36. The patient attempted to commit suicide through ingestion of a corrosive substance. The goal is to remove the poisonous substance to limit the effect of the poison. As a nurse you are aware that the next step is to: A. Prepare laxatives C. Prepare emetics B. Prepare NGT for lavage D. Prepare antidotes 37. A young boy comes in the ED with his mother, and the mother stated that the patient was stung by a bee, upon assessment the boy is fully conscious but complains of sharp pain, erythema on the sites of bee sting and wheezes upon auscultation. What drug will be best given to the patient? A. Benadryl C. Epinephrine B. Ibuprofen D. Ranitidine 38. A patient comes in due to lead poisoning, a chelation therapy was immediately ordered to the patient. Prior to the administration of this therapy what organ function should be assessed in the patient? A. Liver function B. Kidney function C. GI function D. Oral function Musculoskeletal
39. A patient was diagnosed of strain after playing basketball. You know that a strain is an injury involving the muscles and: A. Tendons B. Ligaments C. Bones D. Muscles only 40. You respond to a patient who fell from a flight of stairs he complains of pain in the ankles, you are in doubt if the patient had sprain, strain or fracture. What is the best intervention to do? A. Assess neurovascular status C. Encourage the patient to walk B. Splint the area D. Transport the patient 41. A patient experienced multiple fractures from a vehicular accident, what fracture would yield the highest amount of blood loss? A. Rib B. tibia C. femur D. humerus 42. What would be the best nursing intervention to perform in a patient with sprain and strain to promote faster healing and recovery of the injured parts? A. Rest B. Ice C. Compression D. Elevation 43. A professional runner complains of pain, immobility after completing a 25 kilometer run, upon further assessment swelling and discoloration of the foot, what type of fracture does the patient probably have? A. Spiral B. Comminuted C. Open D. Stress Burns 44. A client was admitted to the ED due to second degree burns. Which of the ff areas of the body is affected? A. Epidermis C. Epidermis and dermis B. Skin, subcutaneous fat and muscles D. Skin, subcutaneous fat, muscles and bones 45. The most common recommended route of giving pain medications during the emergent and acute phase would be? A. Rectal B. Oral C. IV D. SC 46. The weight of the patient prior to burns is 90 kg, his present weight is 83 kg. The surface area of burns is 83%, using the Parkland(Baxter) method, how much fluid will the patient receive in the first 8 hours? A. 3735 ml B. 7470 ml C. 14940 ml D. 29880 ml 47. In the acute phase of burns, the dietician prepared food for the patient, you are aware that the dietician should have prepared foods high in? A. Calorie and CHON C. Calorie and CHO B. CHON and Fats D. CHON and CHO 48. Wound care is given to the patient via the closed method, dressings applied will be changed every: A. Hourly B. 8 hours C. 24 hours D. as needed Abdominal, Facial Trauma 49. A barbeque stick was accidentally impaled in the boy’s left eye, after securing with stick for immobilization, what would be the next step to be done? A. Cover the affected eye C. Irrigate the eyes B. Cover both eyes D. Prepare for X-ray 50. Chemical was splashed to the eyes of a construction worker in the field of work, irrigation of the eye is promptly done, the best solution to be used is: A. 2 L of PLRS C. large quantities of cool running water B. Milk D. lukewarm water for at least 10 minutes 51. Blunt trauma to the abdomen of the patient is suspected after a MVA, what sign present to the patient would indicate an internal bleeding? A. Cullen’s sign C. Turners’ sign B. Coopernail’s sign D. Braxton Hicks 52. A patient experienced blast injury to the abdomen, evident evisceration is present, the patient is not breathing and is pulseless as a first responder to the scene what would be the best action? A. Rescue breathing only C. CPR without compressions B. CPR D. Position to side lying 53. A patient was exposed to flames in the face, actions to be given to the patient is all EXCEPT:
A. Establish airway B. Administration of O2 Respiratory Emergencies
C. Submerged in a cool water D. Extrication of fire
54. Pleurisy is a secondary problem caused by many pulmonary diseases, what is the best observation that the patient has pleurisy? A. Pleuritic chest pain B. Dyspnea C. Tachypnea D. Hypoxia 55. While transporting a patient with a sucking stab wound to the chest, how will you position the client? A. High fowlers B Semi fowlers C. lying on the affected side D. Lying on the unaffected side 56. Paradoxical respirations was observed in a patient who experienced chest trauma, the patient is most likely having what type of chest injury? A. Rib fracture B. Flail chest C. Pulmonary contusion D, Pneumothorax 57. You are caring for a patient with acute pulmonary edema. To immediately relieve the patient from dyspnea, you should first? A. Administer O2 C. Perform chest physiotherapy B. Position on high fowlers position D. have the patient perform DBE and coughing exercises 58. After covering the wound of the patient from open pneumothorax, the patient is transported to the hospital. You anticipate that the next intervention to the patient would be? A. Chest X ray C. Thoracentesis B. Administration of bronchodilators D. Maintaining in high fowlers position Anthrax and Radiation 59. You are caring for a patient with suspected anthrax, what precaution is needed in the care of the patient? A. Airborne precaution C. Contact precaution B. Standard precaution D. Isolation precaution 60. There are three primary methods of anthrax infection, which of the ff results in the most severe clinical manifestations: A. Inhalation B. Skin contact C. GI ingestion 61. The hallmark sign of anthrax, which if appears almost and consistently progresses to imminent death: A. Flu-like symptoms B. dyspnea C. respiratory distress D. mediastinitis 62. A radiation exposure is threatening a certain community , the intake of at least 2 grams of iodized salt was advised by the EMS, the local people asked you the purpose of it, the best response would be? A. Iodine is the antidote for radiation B. To increase the immunity of the person C. To avoid damage to the brain D. To protect the thyroid gland 63. The clothes of a patient that was suspected of having exposed to radiation was removed to limit further contact, as the nurse assisting the patient, you would place the clothes in what color coded container? A. Orange B. Blue C. Green D. Red
