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Professional Knowledge HR MCQ Questions For PNB Jobs Officer (HRD) and others
Professional Knowledge HR MCQ Questions For PNB Jobs Officer (HRD) and others Model test paper Containing questions on HR MCQ objective Questions Online Free test For All jobs Containing Objective test of HR HR PG level test Questions 1.Which of Following is Not an assessment method for analysis of employee behaviour ? (a) Role-play Exercises (b) Group Discussion (c) Written Case Analysis (d) Medical Reports Ans : d 2.Campus Recruiting does not have the advantage of ? (a) High Intellectual capacity (b) Higher understanding of organization (c) High level of curiosity (d) High potential Ans : b 3 µAppreciative inquiry¶ a term coined by David Cooperrider is based on «« principles (a) Five (b) Six (c) Seven (d) Eight Ans : a 4 Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model that was introduced by (a) W. Edwards Deming and Walter Shewart (b) Jerry W. Gilley and NathanielW. Boughton (c) David B. Peterson and Mary Dee Hicks (d) Jerry W. Gilley and Ann Gilley Ans : a 5 CROSS-TRAINING means (a) Employees giving training to each other (b) Training in Similar Industry for employee

(c) Employee required to perform other job functions (d) Training using cross reference Technique Ans : c 6.Emotional intelligence is 1 is IQ of the person 2. is capcity to correspond with relating well to people 3. is about dealing with environmental demands Which of The Above Statements are Correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans : c 7. The highest order need in Maslow¶s Hierarchy is? (a) Esteem (b) Self-actualization (c) Social (d) Safety Ans : b 8.Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is a /an (a) Objective skill Test (b) personality questionnaire (c) IQ test of Reasoning Ability (d) Consists of All of the above Ans : b 9. Performance coaching (a) Provides assessment of employees strengths, weaknesses, and areas for improvement. (b) Frames plans for growth and development. (c) Encourages feedback for improvement (d) All of Above Ans : d 10 Validity in evaluation consists of following types except (a) Content Validity (b) Predictive Validity (c) Concurrent Validity (d) Job Based Validity

Ans : d

Professional Knowledge HR HRD Free Online test Solved Questions For PNB exam Officer (HRD) and others
Professional Knowledge HR HRD Free Online test solved Questions For PNB exam Officer (HRD) and others Free online HRD MCQ Test Very useful For MCQ Exams HRD Professional Knowledge Test Online HR Test For PNB Bank Officer Jobs Q1. Which one of the following is a clear and distinct line of authority among the positions in organizations? (a) Organizational design (b) Chain of command (c)Hierarchy (d) Departmentalization Answer:.(c) Q.2. Task achievement and excellence of performance in accomplishing a task are emphasized sometimes at the expense of obedience to one¶s superior which one of these has the above as a principle feature? (a) Closed model organization (b) Open model organization (c) Bureaucratic organization (d) The newer tradition organization Answer: (b) Q.3.Which one of the following is NOT correct in relation to the meaning of delegation? (a) Entrustment of responsibility to another, for performance (b) Entrustment of power and rights, or authority, to be exercised (c) Creation of an obligation or accountability, on the part of the person accepting the delegation to perform in terms of the standards established (d) Shifting of workload without transferring corresponding authority to make decision Answer: (d)

Q.4. which one of the following is the main cause of the scalar system? (a) Unity of command (b) Hierarchy (c)Delegation (d) Coordination Answer: (a) Q.5. which one of the following statements illustrates the principle of span of control? (a) The levels of management connote no inherent superiority and inferiority (b) Automation, mechanization and specialization have brought about a sea Change in decision making (c) The old concept of one single superior for each person is seldom found (d) The ever increasing role of administration has focused attention on unity in the administrative process Answer: (b) Q.6. Consider the following statements: 1. Auxiliary agencies have no execution or operative responsibilities. 2. Staff agencies are attached to the line agencies at different levels in the hierarchy 3. Line agencies provide channels of communication Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1L, 2, and3 (b) 1 and2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Answer: (c) Q.7. which of the following are intrinsically linked with administrative accountability? 1. Hierarchy 2. Span of control 3. Unity of command 4. Orders Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2and 4 (b) l, 2and 3 (c) 2,3and 4 (d) 1,3and 4 Answer: (b) Q.8. Coordination requires 1. Acquisition of resources to accomplish a specific objective 2. Integration of resources of the organization into a dynamic system

3. Mastering the totality of the job that needs to be done 4. Funneling of the work done by functional specialists through the project Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2,3and4 (d) l,2,3and4 Answer: (b) Q.9. Staff agency is of the nature of (a) Executive control over administration (b) Parliamentary control over administration (c) In-built control over administration (d) Quasi-judicial control over administration (a) 1, 2and4 (b)¶ l, 2and (c) 2,3and4 (d) 1, 3and 4 Answer: (a) Q.10. Consider the following: 1. Consultation and training 2. Coordination 3. Fact finding and research 4. Planning Above are the main functions of which of the following? (a)Staff agencies (b)Auxiliary agencies (c)Line agencies (d) Independent regulatory bodies Answer: (a) Q.11. Consider the following statements An organization is 1. A blend of inter-dependent parts 2. A mass of people inside it 3. A framework of authority and responsibility 4. A system in the service of outsiders Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) l and2 (b) 2,3and4

(c) 1, 3and4 (d) l, 2,3and 4 Answer: (c) Q.12.Which one of the following is a distinctive feature of a formal organization? (a) Common rules of behavior (b) Common code of behavior (c) Common values of workers (d) Common ambitions of workers Answer: (a) Q.13.Which one of the following is NOT the view of closed model in relation to role of organizations? (a) Rationality has been the organization¶s sole prerogative (b) In the organization most men enjoy work and tend to be creative (c) A rigid, hierarchical structure with heavy formalism would improve the efficiency of the organization (d) Organizational order, maintenance of discipline comes from the top of the organization, not out of spontaneous human behavior. Answer: (b) Q.14. Who amongst the following introduced the concept of µZone of indifference¶ in an organization? (a) Herbert Simon (b) Douglas McGregor (c) Chester I. Bernard (d) Chris Argyris Answer: c Q.15. Who of the following did NOT accept the principle of unity of command in the functioning of an organization? (a)Henry Fayol (b) Luther Gulick (c)J.D. Mooney (d) F.W. Taylor Answer: (d) Q.16. An organization exists when the following conditions are fulfilled 1. There are persons able to communicate with each other 2. They are willing to contribute to the action 3. They attempt to accomplish a common purpose

Who amongst the following proposed these conditions? (a)E. Mayo (b) C.l. Bernard (c) Max Weber (d) Henry Fayol Answer: (b) Q.17. Consider the following statements: Human behavior in terms of decision making 1. is totally rational 2. is totally irrational 3. Depends upon degree of satisfaction 4 depends upon degree of dissatisfaction Which of these statements is/are correct? (a)1 only (b) l and3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Answer: (d) Q18.According to Lopez, which of the following is the primary purposes of performance evaluation? 1. Information 2. Control 3. Review 4. Motivation 5. Development Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) l,2and3 (b) 2,3and4 (c) l,4and5 (d) 3,4and5 Answer (a) Q.19. Basic assumptions of the principle of hierarchy and that at various level of nature of three of the following four 1. Responsibilities 2. Salary Scales 3. Quality of man 3. Authority What are the three that the relevant? (a) , 2and3 (b) l, 3and4

(c) l, 2and4 (d) 2,3and4 Answer: (c) Q.20.Which one of the following constitutes the solution to the dilemma of classical theorists who emphasized the importance of unity of command over functionalisation? (a) Delegation and decentralization (b) Interaction and influencing system (c) The Concept of staff (d) The concept of the linking-pin structure Answer: (b) Q.21.Which of the following can widen the span of control? 1. Delegation 2. Informal organization 3. Planning 4. Unity of command (a) 3and4 (b) land2 (c) 2and3 (d) land4 Answer: (b) Q.22. Behavioral approach recognizes three major factors in decision-making process. These are (a) legal-rational authority values and influence (b) Values, facts and policies (c) Purpose, place and people (d) Goals, policies and orders Answer: (b) Q.23. which one of the following is NOT a method for promoting participatory leadership? (a)Quality circles (b) Suggestion scheme (c)Work study (d) Brainstorming session Answer: (c) Q.24. In the training sessions for leadership development mentioned below, which is the one having the least degree of direct impact in leadership development? (a) Group exercise to promote mutual understanding so as to promote a climate of trust and cooperation

(b) Group work to encourage the involvement of all, including the most shy persons (c) Repeated exercises in statistical methods, to ensure adequate skill development in the same so as to promote objectivity in decisions (d) Repeated exercises in communication to ensure skill development in understanding and transacting feelings and messages. Answer: (b) Q.25. Identify the correct observation from among the following Leadership theories seek to (a) Provide up to date information technology required by those in positions of control so as to make their grip over the others more complete (b) Provide systematic explanation on the shifting market trends so as to be properly guided in investment decisions in the Public Sector Units (c) Establish a rational framework for defining the ends of social justice and to design appropriate systems and procedures to ensure the same so as to help the emergence of good leaders from the down-trodden (d) Systematically explain the causes and pattern of influence over individuals and groups with the help of sound as and empirical data Answer: (d) Q.26. Neo-human relation/behavioral school thinkers like McGregor, Argyris and Rensis Likert who have conceptualized control over employees with a view to higher performance and need fulfillment have emphasized new techniques and strategies for supervisors. Identify these techniques from those given below and select the correct answer using the given codes 1. Exerting heavy pressure on subordinates to get work done 2. Giving little freedom of action to employees and not reposing trust and confidence in them 3. Earning the confidence and trust of the subordinates and delegating functions and power to them 4. Increasing the achievement orientation of subordinates by motivating them to accept and work for higher goals (a) l and 2 (b) 2and3 (c) 3and4 (d) 1 and3 Answer: (c) Q.27. The principle of span of control has come under revision due to (a) High degree of unionism among employees (b) Increasing resort to automation and mechanization (c) High level of education among public employees (d) Obedience and loyalty generated by conduct rules Answer: (b)

Q.28.Who among the following said that in a hierarchy every employee tends to rise to his level of incompetence? (a) Frederick W. Taylor (b) Mary P. Follett (c) Peter F. Drucker (d) Laurence L Peter Answer: (d) Q.29.Consider the following statements: Advantages of the principle of hierarchy are that it 1. Enables to fix the responsibility at each level 2. Leads to centralized decision making at top level 3. Provides a channel of command/communication 4. Binds all units into an integrated whole Which of these is/are correct? (a)Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (e) l,3and4 (d) 2,3and4 Answer: (c) Q.30 .The principle of Unity of Command ensures (a) Accountability (b) Acceptability (c) Specialization (d) Coordination Answer: (a) Q.31.Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of centralization? (a) It provides for maximum control in organization (b) It ensures uniformity in administration (c) It enhances flexibility in the organization (d) It prevents abuse of authority in administration Answer: (c) Q.32. Consider the following statements Centralization and decentralization have a situational relevance and depend upon 1. Responsibility factor 2. Stability factor 3. Functional factors 4. Moral factors Which of these are correct?

(a) 1.2 and 3 (b) 1, 2.3 and 4 (c) 2,3and4 (d) l and 4 Answer: (b) Q.33.Which one of the following statements provided evidence that shows the meaning of authority and power differs from each other? (a) Power means delegation of functions and authority means making new policies (b) Power means supervision while authority means sanction of finances (c) Power means the competence to do something and authority means the right to order action by others (d) Power means authorizing a person while authority means integrating the activities of his subordinates Answer: (c) Q.34. Consider the following: 1. Effective leadership. 2. Hierarchy 3. Administrative skills 4. Cooperation According to Gulick, lack of which of these is/are hindrances to coordination? (a)Only 1 (b) 1 and3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4 Answer: (c) Q35. The most logical criterion to distinguish line function from staff is (a) The authority relationships (b) end-means relationship (c) The grouping of functions (d) The departmentalization Answer (b) Q.36. Which of the following characteristics are found in the concept of authority? 1. Directive component 2. Independence 3. Statutory safeguard 4. Prestige differential (a)1 and2 (b) 2and3

(c) 3and4 (d) l and 4 Answer: (a) Q.37. Which of the following are the limiting factors in the development of coordination? 1. Time 2. Size 3. Authority 4. Informal organizations (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2and3 (c) 3and 4 (d) l and 4 Answer: (a) Q.38. Consider the following statements The extent of delegation depends upon 1. Nature of the problem 2. Circumstances prevalent 3. Responsibilities involved 4. Organizational history Which of these are correct? (a) 1, 2and3 (b) 2,3and4 (c) 1,3and4 (d) 1, 2.3 and 4 Answer: (d) Q.39. Consider the following statements: The acceptance of a communication as authoritative by individuals in organizations depends upon I. zone of indifference to the nature of authority 2. Its clarity for purpose of understanding 3. Its incompatibility with personal interests 4. Its inconsistency with organizational purpose Which of these are correct? (a) l and2 (b) 2and3 (c) 1.2and3 (d) 2,3and4 Answer: (a)

Q.40. Consider the following statements The great illumination experiment led to the discovery, that for higher productivity of an organization 1. Relations between workers and supervisors are important. 2. Relations between the workers are important 3. Working conditions are important 4. Social security is important Which of these are correct? (a) l and 2 (b) 1,2and3 (c) 1, 2and4 (d) 2,3and4 Answer: (b) Q.41. Consider the following statements 1. The effectiveness of control mainly depends on the acceptance by the subordinates. 2. Control may stifle the initiative on personal responsibility, but this can be fixed in all cases. 3. Control is an expensive process involving a lot of time and effort. 4. Control helps in improving the performance of subordinates. Which of these are correct? (a) l,2,3 (b) 1,3 , 4 (c) 2, 3,4 (d) 1,2 ,4 Answer: (b) Q.42. Consider the following statements The system of Performance Appraisal of employees 1. Provides systematic judgment for purpose of promotion, salary increases, transfers, demotions etc. 2. Acts as a means of informing a subordinate as to how he is doing and where he needs to improve 3. Helps in determining the training needs to individual employees 4. Facilitates a healthy dialogue between the employer and employees Which of these statements are correct? (a)1,2,3and4 (b) l and 4 (c) l,2and3 (d) 2,3and4 Answer: (a) Q 43. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the Position Classification Plan?

(a) Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Standardization, Position allocation (b) Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Position allocation (c) ,Grouping of Position, Job analysis; Position allocation, Standardization (d) Position allocation, Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions Answer: (b) Q.44. Consider the following 1. Functional foremanship 2. Unity of command 3. Centralization 4. Time and Action study Which of these are associated with Scientific Management Movement? (a) 12and3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and3 (d) 1and 4 Answer: (d) Q.45. Consider the following features 1. Facilitates delegation of authority 2. Provides for a channel of communication 3. Makes consensus possible Which of these features are true of hierarchy? (a) land2 (b) 2and3 (c) land3 (d) l, 2and3 Answer: (a) Q.46. µUnity of Command¶ does NOT (a) Mean that one subordinate receive only one order (b) Mean that a subordinate will, have only one superior (c) Mean that all units are put under one head (d) Result into a shrinking apex of an organization Answer: (a) Q.47 The µAcceptance¶ concept of authority was given by (a)Lyndal Urwick (b) L.D. White (c)Henry Fayol (d) Chester Barnard

Answer: (d) Q.48. The Integration of the several parts into an orderly whole to achieve the performance of the undertaking -implies (a) Division of work (b) Coordination (c) Span of control (d) Hierarchy Answer: (b) Q.49. Consider the following statements 1. Coordination and cooperation are synonyms. 2. Coordination is of the work of subordinates by a superior officer. 3. Cooperation is interpersonal relationship between two or more similar individuals or units 4. Coordination and cooperation is not the same thing Which of these statements are correct? (a) l and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c)1 and 3 (d) 2,3and 4 Answer: (d) Q.50. Consider the following factors 1. Organizational policies, rules and regulations 2. Lower level of ability of subordinates 3. Hierarchical system of the organization 4. Personality of the delegator Which of these factors act as obstacles in delegation? (a) l and 2 (b) 2and3 (c)2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Answer: (a)

General Awareness quiz on world organizations like UN SAARC G15 etc
General Awareness quiz on world organizations like UN SAARC G15 etc General Knowledge : International Organizations : Online Test International Organizations Quiz Important International Organisations General Knowledge Quiz 1. Which of the following are true regarding the U.N.? 1. It promotes world peace.

2. It fosters free trade. 3. It encourages socialism. 4. It secures, disarmament. (a) 1 and 4 (b 2 and 3 (c) l, 2 and 3 (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (a) 2. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC? (a) Bangladesh (b) Afghanistan (c) Pakistan (d) Nepal (e) Bhutan Ans. (b) 3. The United Nations is considered as a universal organisation. Which organ of the United nations fully represents the fact ? (a) The General Assembly (b) The Security Council (c) The Economic and Social Council (d) The Secretariat Ans. (a) 4. G-15 is a group of (a) developing countries (b) developed countries (c) non aligned countries (d) Companies Ans. (a) 5. Which org of the United Nations has ceased to be operational? (a) Economic and Social Council (b) Trusteeship Council (c) International Court of Justice (d) Secretariat Ans. (b) 6. The headquarters of UNESCO is at (a) Rome (b) Geneva (c) Paris (d) New York Ans. (c)

7. The SAARC movement was launched for (a) political alliances (b) military strategy (c) regional cooperation (d) cultural exchanges Ans. (c) 8. How many countries are presently members of the Non Aligned Movement? (a) 118 (b) 119 (c) 110 (d) 107 Ans. (a) 9. Which of the following is used by the International Court of Justice in disputes concerning parian rights? (a) Helsinki Agreement (b) Paris Agreement (c) Reykjavik Agreement (d) Geneva Agreement Ans. (c) 10. Which of the following international organizations has started the scheme Partnership for µPeace¶ for a group of nations? (a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) (b) Organisation of African Unity (OAU) (c) Organ of Petroleum Exporting Countries(OPEC) (d) Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific (ESCAP) (e) South -East Asia Treaty Organisation (SEATO) Ans. (a) 11. Which of the following are special agencies of the 1. WHO 2. OPEC 3. IMF 4.FAO (a) l & 2 (b) 2 & 3 (c) l, 3 & 4 (d) 2, 3 & 4 Ans. (c) 12. Which of the following describes correctly the Group of seven countries (G-7)? (a) They are countries who can launch their own satellites. (b) They are developing countries. (c) They are industrialized countries.

(d) They are holding Atomic Bomb technology. (e) None of these Ans. (c) 13 United Nations adopted a Charter of Economic Rights in the year (a) 1956 (b) 1964 (c) 1969 (d) 1974 Ans. (d) 14. ICOMOS -International Council for Monuments and Sites, a wing of UNESCO, included which monument as world heritage? (a) Khajuraho of Madhya Pradesh (b) Sanchi Stupa (c) Brihadisvara temple of Tamil Nadu (d) None of these Ans. (c) 15. G-7 includes (a) India (b) Australia (c) Italy (d) South Africa Ans. (c) 16. Vietnam joined U.N.O in the year (a) 1974 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (b) 1970 Ans. (c) 17. What is the number of non -permanent members of the Security Council? (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 Ans. (c) 18. The international township built near Pondicherry in India in collaboration with NESCO is (a) Broadway (b) Gayaville (c) Auroville (d) Elbaville Ans. (c)

19. The International Court of Justice is located at (a) Geneva (b) Hague (c) Amsterdam (d) Vienna Ans. (b) 20. In acronym SAARC, µC stand for (a) Committee (b) Common wealth (c) Conference (d) Cooperation Ans. (d) 21. Which of the following countries, is not a member of G-15? (a) Jamaica (b) Indonesia (c) Peru (d) Columbia Ans. (d) 22. Permanent Secretariat to coordinate the implementation of SAARC programme is located at (a) Dhaka (b) New Delhi (c) Colombo (d) Kathmandu Ans. (d) 23. Who was the first Indian to be the President of UN General Assembly? (a) Ramesh Bhandari (b) V.K. Krishna Menon (c) Natwar Singh (d) Mrs. Vijay Lakshmi Pandit Ans. (d) 24. What is the main objective of the UN Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific (ESCAP) at present? (a) Providing UN assistance for cultural ex change among the countries located in Asia and Pacific region (b) Reconstruction of war -devastated countries located in Asia and Pacific region (c) Recommending UN assistance to the countries located in Asia and Pacific region (d) Helping in social and economic development for the countries located in Asia and Pacific region (a) 15 (b) 11 (c) 7

(d) 5 Ans. (d) 25. Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United Nations organizations? (a) General Assembly (b) Security Council (c) International Court of Justice (d) International Labour Organisation Ans. (d) 26. OECD is engaged in which of the following activities? (a) Privatization and reconstruction of the east block countries (b) Environmental protection (c) To optimize population growth in some European countries having negative population growth. (d) Encouraging world trade and economic progress and aid under developed nations Ans. (d) 27. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is located at which of the following places? (a) Vienna (b) Rome (c) Paris (d) Geneva (e) Montreal Ans. (d) 28. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) has how many member countries? (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10 Ans. (b) 29. The five permanent members of the UN Security Council are (a) Canada, China, France, RUSSIA and U.S.A (b) China, France, U.S.S R, U.K. and U.S.A (c) Japan, Germany, RUSSIA., U.K. and U.S.A (d) West Germany, China, RUSSIA., U.K. and U.S.A Ans. (b) 30. Headquarters of the World Health Organisation is located at (a) Rome (b) New York (c) Geneva

(d) Washington D.C. Ans. (b) 31. The headquarters of the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is located in which city? (a) Paris (b) New York (c) Geneva (d) Madrid (e) Switzerland Ans. (c) 32. Amnesty International has its headquarters at (a) New York (b) London (c) Washington (d) Berlin Ans. (c) 33. How is the new membership of United Nations affected? (a) The admission of any state as member will be affected by a decision of the Security Council on the recommendations of the General Assembly. (b) The admission of any state as member will be affected by a decision of the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council. (c) The admission of any state as member will be affected by a decision of the Security Council and General Assembly. (d) The admission of any state as member will be affected by a decision of new membership Council followed by a voting in General Assembly. Ans. (b) 34. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC? (a) Maldives (b) Myanmar (c) Bhutan (d) Sri Lanka Ans. (b) 35. When was SAARC founded? (a) 1982 A.D. (b) 1983 AD. (c) 1984 AD. (d) 1985 A.D. Ans. (d) 36. Which of the following is not a member of G-7? (a) Italy

(b) Japan (c) Canada (d) France (e) Russia Ans. (e) 37. Pakistan had pulled itself out of Commonwealth in the year (a) 1972 (b) 1975 (c) 1978 (d) 1981 Ans. (a) 38. The working language (s) of the UNESCO is/are (a) English only (b) French only (c) English and French (d) English, French and Russian Ans. (d) 39. Which of the following countries is not a member of Group 15 developing countries? (a) Mexico (b) Egypt (c) Malaysia (d) Brazil (e) UK Ans. (e) 40. The International Human Rights Convention adopted by the United Nations in 1990 relates to (a) children (b) disabled (c) state less persons (d) migrant workers Ans. (a) 41. The first Secretary General of UNO was (a) U .Thant (b) Trygve Lie (c) Kurt Waldheim (d) Dag Hamarskjoeld Ans. (b) 42. The main aim of SAARC is (a) Peaceful Coexistence (b) Regional cooperation

(c) Non -alignity (d) Non -interference in other¶s internal affairs Ans. (b) 43. How many former republics of RUSSIA. have become members of the Commonwealth of Independent States? (a) 9 (b) l0 (c) l1 (d)12 Ans. (c) 44 The Indian Red Cross Society was established in the year (a) 1890 (b) 1920 (c) 1932 (d) 1945 Ans. (b) 45. The office of the UN General Assembly is (a) Vienna (b) Paris (c) New York (d) Zurich Ans. (c) 46. The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific (ESCAP) is located at (a) Bangkok (b) Singapore (c) Kuala Lumpur (d) Manila Ans. (a) 47. First Indian to make a speech in Hindi before the UN General Assembly is (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri (b) A.B. Vajpayee (c) Lal Krishna Advani (d) Morarji Desai Ans. (b) 48. Which one of the following statements regarding the µ power in the Security Council is correct according to the United Nations Charter? (a) The decisions of the Security Council on all non procedural matters must be made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring votes of the permanent members of the Council. (b) Every permanent member of the Security Council can prevent any decision from being

accepted, by vetoing it. (c) The term veto was used in Article 27 of the United Nations Charter to enable any per permanent member of the Security Council to prevent any resolution from being passed by the majority. (d) Any member of the Security Council can prevent any resolution from being passed by voting against it. Ans. (b) 49. The following persons had served as Secretary Generals of the U.N. 1. Trygve Lie 2. Dag Hamarskjoeld 3. U. Thant 4. Kurt Waldheim The correct chronological order in which they held that post is (a)1,2,3,4 (b) 1,2,4,3 (c) 2,1,3,4 (d) 2;l,4,3 Ans. (a) 50. People¶s Republic of China was awarded China¶s seat in the United Nations by UN General Assembly Resolution 2758 in year (a)1968 (b) 1969 (c) 1970 (d) 1971 (d)

SYLLABUS OF SSC Sub Inspector CPOs Exam & Model paper General Knowledge and General Awareness
SYLLABUS OF SSC Sub Inspector CPOs Exam : Written Examination. Paper-I : 200 Questions General Intelligence and Reasoning General Knowledge and General Awareness Numerical Aptitude English Comprehension Paper-II English language & Comprehension 200 questions Sample paper For General Knowledge and General Awareness

1. Which city in India is the largest according to 1991 census? (a) Delhi (b) Calcutta (c) Bombay (d) Madras Ans. (c) 2. If India¶s population continues to grow at the rate of 2% per annum, the population will be doubled of its present size in next (a) 25 years (b) 30 years (c) 35 years (d) 40 years Ans. (d) 3. Food grain production of India in million tones is nearest to the figure of (a) 120 (b) 150 (c) 200 (d) 280 Ans. (c) 4. What is the correct descending order of the following states on the basis of their territorial area? 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Bihar 3. Madhya Pradesh 4. Uttar Pradesh (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2 (c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1 Ans. (b) 5. India marked a negative growth rate of population in the census year (a) 1901 (b) 191I (c) 1921 (d) 195l Ans. (c) 6. According to the recent census, which of the following is the approximate density of population of our country? (a) 220 (b) 240 (c) 270

(d) 300 (e) 325 Ans. (c) 7. According to 1991 census, which of the following statements about literacy figures is not true? (a) Only those above 7 years of age were considered for calculating the literacy rate. (a) In absolute numbers there is an increase in the literate population. (c) There is an increase in the population of illiterates. (d) Kerala has the highest literacy rate. (e) None of these Ans. (e) 8. The population of India, as per the recent estimate, is increasing at an average rate of how many births per minute? (a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 4l (d) 48 Ans. (a) 9. Which one of the following groups of cities has crossed the 1000000 mark of population for the first time in 1991? (a) Surat, Jaipur, Bhopal, Varanasi (b) Jaipur. Patna, Varanasi, Madurai (c) Surat, Coimbatore, Patna, Bhopal (d) Lucknow, Nagpur. Cochin, Indore Ans. (c) 10. In India, the adverse female-male ratio is due to (a) female mortality (b) death of women at pregnancy (c) excess males at birth (d) None of these Ans. (d) 11. µShankul¶ is the name of (a) India¶s surface to a missile (b) India¶s newly developed main battle tank (c) India¶s second indigenously built submarine (d) India¶s second indigenously built missile boat Ans. (c) 12. Which of the following animals was not native to India? (a) Elephant (b) Horse (c) Rhinoceros

(d) Tiger Ans. (b) 13. Jamshedpur is situated near river (a) Ganga (b) Kosi (c) Mahanadi (d) Damodar (e) Subarnarekha Ans. (e) 14. In which state of India dry farming is not practised? (a) Assam (b) Maharashtra (c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan Ans. (a) 15. Which of the following States is highly flood prone as well as drought prone? (a) West Bengal (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Bihar Ans. (c) 16. ««««.the world¶s last Shangri- La, nestled in the Himalayas, it is a jewel of environmental preservation. Its pristine forests, sparkling icy peaks and rare flora and fauna have caused the World Wildlife Fund to dub it as one of the ecological wonders of the world. The place referred to here is (a) Ladakh (b) Bhutan (c) Sikkim (d) Siachen Ans. (a) 17. The confluence of Alakhananda and Bhagirathi takes place at (a) Karnaprayag (b) Devaprayag (c) Rudraprayag (d) Rishikesh Ans. (b) 18. The Abors tribe is mainly found in (a) Goa (b) Kerala (c) Assam

(d) Manipur (e) Karnataka Ans. (c) 19. Meghalaya is an exclusive tribal state of which of the following groups of tribals? (a) Garos, Pangs and Himaro (b) Khasis, Usharis and Lakhirs (c) Khasis, Pawis and Maras (d) Khasis, Jaintias and Gatos (e) Jaintias, Gatos and Kurkis Ans. (d) 20. The Indian subcontinent was originally part of a huge landmass called? (a) Gondwana continent (b) Indiana (c) Jurassic land mass (d) Aryavarta Ans. (a) 21. Which city is on the banks of Kaveri? (a) Mysore (b) Bangalore (c) Madras (d) Hyderabad (e) Tiruchirapalli Ans. (e) 22. The indigenously developed multi barrel rocket system is known as (a) Agni (b) Arjun (c) Sankul (d) Pinaka Ans. (d) 23. Consider the following factors: 1. Sedimentation of the channel 2. Shrinkage of the hinterland 3. Low discharge of river Hooghly Calcutta port is considered to be a problem port because of (a) l and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) l and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d)

24. The famous Vale of Kashmir refers to (a) a longitudinal valley in the Himalayas (b) a valley which had been a lake till Pleistocene (c) occupying an anticline on the back of a nappe (d) all the above Ans. (b) 25. The southern part of India is considered to be less prone to earthquake because (a) it has a thick layer of heavy lava. (b) it has a rigid stable block. (c) it has old crystalline igneous rocks. (d) it is a rigid unstable block. Ans. (b) 26. Sardar Sarovar Project is a part of (a) Silent Valley Project (b) Damodar Valley Project (c) Canal Project (d) Narmada Sagar Valley Project Ans. (d) 27. Arunachal Pradesh, has borders with (a) Bangladesh, China and Myanmar (b) Bhutan, China and Myanmar (c) Bhutan, China and Bangladesh (d) Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar Ans. (b) 28. The Kakrapar Atomic Power Plant has been supplying electricity to all the members of which of the following groups of states? (a) Karnataka, Maharashtra, Goa (b) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra (c) Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasthan (d) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh (e) Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh Ans. (d) 29. A tourist flying between two cities in India observed the following vegetation types in that order: 1. Monsoon forests 2. Deciduous forests 3. Mangrove forests (a) Madras to Calcutta (b) Bombay to Madras (c) Goa to Calcutta

(d) Thiruvanantapuram to Goa Ans. (b) 30. In 1967, an earthquake took place at (a) Assam (b) Bihar (c) Cachar (d) Koyna Ans. (d)

Model paper Airman Group Y in the IAF Indian Air Force
Model paper Airman Group µY¶ in the IAF Indian Air Force Prepare for jobs in Indian Air Force Online Free preparation material for IAF Airman jobs Solved paper General Awareness for IAF Jobs 1. As per 1991 census reports, which of the following is not true? (a) The country¶s population was enumerated at 844 million. (b) India and China together account for more than 1/3rd of the world¶s population. (c) There is a deterioration in the number of females per thousand males (d) Average annual population growth rate is 2.35 percent (e) None of these. Ans. (d) 2. The area declared as a µBiosphere Reserve¶ is (a) Nilgiris (b) Gulf of Mannar (c) Nokrek (d) Manas Ans. (a) 3. Which state has proportionately the largest area covered by forests? (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland Ans. (c) 4. Which of the following statements regarding the natural vegetation of India are true? 1. The high rainfall areas have dense tropical forests. 2. The moderate rainfall areas have monsoon forests. 3. The low rainfall areas have temperate grasslands. (a) l, 2, 3 (b) l and 2 (c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 Ans. (a) 5. The tropical ever forest in India is found in (a) Kerala (b) Gujarat (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu & Kashmir Ans. (b) 6. Canal irrigation is largely practised in (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu Ans. (c) 7. The Himalayas are formed by (a) orogenic forces (b) centrifugal forces (c) tectonic forces (d) epirogenic forces Ans. (c) 8. The Indian Wild Ass, largely confined to the Rann of Kutch, is fast becoming an endangered species because of (a) insufficient vegetation (b) large scale domestication (c) excessive depredation (d) poaching Ans. (a) 9. The dense vegetation in Rajasthan is found in (a) the Chambal valley (b) Central Rajasthan (c) along the Indira Gandhi canal (d) Aravalli ranges Ans. (d) 10. The most important fisheries in India are (a) off-shore (b) natural inland (c) deep sea (d) cultural inland Ans. (a)

11. Indian forests with conifers are largely distributed in the state of (a) Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, UP. (b) M.P., Maharashtra, Kerala (c) Assam, West Bengal, Gujarat (d) Tripura, Orissa, Tamil Nadu Ans. (a) 12. Which of the following river groups flows into the Bay of Bengal? (a) Narmada, Ganga, Bhramaputra (b) Krishna, Godavari, Tapti (c) Ganga, Yamuna, Ravi (d) Godavari, Bhramaputra, Ganga (e) Kaveri, Krishna, Narmada Ans. (d) 13. India¶s first launch vehicle SLV-3 was launched from SHAR centre at (a) Ahmedabad (b) Car Nicobar (c) Sriharikota (d) None of these Ans. (c) 14. The Korba, the Super Thermal Power Station, which has become the largest in the country, is located in (a) Goa (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Orissa (d) Maharashtra Ans. (b) 15. Among the marine fishes of Bombay, one of the common variety is (a) Mackerel (b) Sardine (c) Catfish (d) Soles Ans. (a) 16. To which of the following types does the natural vegetation in the Western Ghats belong? (a) Deciduous (b) Alpine (c) Evergreen (d) Mangrove (e) None of these Ans. (c)

17. The state of Madhya Pradesh has common borders with (a) 5 states (b) 6 states (c) 7 states (d) 8 states Ans. (d) 18 The only state in India to have a common border with the state of Sikkim is (a) Assam (b) Bihar (c) West Bengal (d) Arunachal Pradesh Ans. (c) 19. Indira Gandhi Canal originates from (a) Gandhi Sagar Dam (b) Hirakud Dam (c) Harike barrage (d) Bhakra Dam Ans. (c) 20. Which of the following is correctly matched? (a) Kolhapur : Maharashtra (b) Shimoga : Kerala (c) Allepey : Karnataka (d) Murshidabad : Gujarat Ans. (a) 21. In the Deccan peninsula, the natural vegetation is mainly controlled by (a) altitude. (b) soil conditions (c) rainfall (d) irrigation Ans. (c) 22. Marble is mainly found in (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan Ans. (d) 23. Which one of the following was earlier known as the Lushai Hills District? (a) Meghalaya (b) Tripura (c) Nagaland

(d) Mizoram Ans. (d) 24. Which of the following is the largest district of Rajasthan? (a) Jaipur (b) Bikaner (c) Jodhpur (d) Jaisalmer Ans. (d) 25. Which of the following states has the maximum urban population? (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Tamil Nadu (d) West Bengal Ans. (a) 26. Which of the following is correctly matched? (a) Nasik : Gujarat (b) Ernakulam : Andhra Pradesh (c) Bolangir : Orissa (d) Mandya : Rajasthan Ans. (c) 27. India¶s feeder airline is known as (a) l. A (b) Vayudoot (c) Air Asiatic (d) U.B. Air Ans. (b) 28. In Rajasthan, rich deposits of marble mostly occur in the district of (a) Ajmer (b) Kota (c) Nagaur (d) Bikaner Ans. (c) 29. The Terai areas of North India have over- abundance of surface water because of (a) the heavy rains throughout the year (b) abundance of natural springs (c) rivers with flat valleys spread water over large areas (d) large scale seepage of water from Bhabars in north Ans. (b)

30. I. R. S ± l B is (a) a research station set up by India in Antarctica (b) an Indian space station in Bangalore (c) an Indian remote sensing satellite (d) None of these Ans. (c) 31. Obra, where a large thermal power station has been built, is in (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar Ans. (c) 32. Which of the following mountain ranges is spread over only one state in India? (a) Sahyadri (b) Ajanta (c) Satpura (d) Aravalli Ans. (b) 33. River Chambal flows through (a) U.P., Rajasthan and Gujarat (b) U.R, M.P. and Bihar (c) U.P., M.P. and Rajasthan (d) Maharashtra, UP. and Gujarat Ans. (c) 34. Which of the following best describes Vikram Immarsat? (a) India¶s first indigenously built satellite (b) India¶s newly acquired RADAR system (c) India¶s first Inter Continental Ballistic Missile (d) India¶s first satellite mobile communication land-earth station Ans. (d) 35. India¶s first Ladies Special¶ suburban train was started by which of the following zones of Indian Railways? (a) Northern (b) Central (c) Western (d) Southern (e) Eastern Ans. (c) 36. The most advanced launch vehicle in India incorporating cryo-engine technology is going to be

(a) SLV (b) ASLY (c) GSLV (d) PSLV Ans. (c) 37. The Narmada originates in (a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat (c) Rajasthan (d Madhya Pradesh (e) Karnataka Ans. (d) 38. The Them dam is built on (a) Sutlej (b) Chenab (c) Jhelum (d) Ravi Ans. (d) 39. Consider the following two statements: 1. Development of the Luni river in western Rajasthan is aided by the German Development Bank. 2. Some water supply projects in Kerala are assisted by the Dutch Government. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) None Ans. (c) 40. Given below is a list of ports of the western coast of India: 1. Marmugao 2. Ratnagiri 3. Quilon 4. Okha Which of the following represents them in their logical order from north to south? (a) l, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1 (c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3 Ans. (d)

GK TEST for RBI Executive interns exam
GK TEST for RBI Executive interns exam General Awareness Sample paper Prepare for RBI executive interns exam Free online Solved GA paper for RBI jobs 1. Which of the following missiles and their respective ranges have been paired wrongly here? (a) Akash ± 27 km (b) Nag ± 2500 km (c) Prithvi ± 150 km (d) Trishul ± 9km Ans. (c) 2. India¶s first nuclear explosion was conducted in (a) Trombay, Maharashtra (b) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan (c) Pokharan, Rajasthan (d) Rann of Kutch, Gujarat Ans. (c) 3. Match of the following:Tribe State A. Bhils 1. Bihar B. Santhals 2. Rajasthan C. Todas 3. Madhya Pradesh D. Gonds 4. Tamil Nadu ABCD (a) 1 2 4 3. (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 Ans. (d) 4. Paradeep is a (a) thermal power station (b) port on the eastern coast of India (c) port on the western coast of India (d) None of these Ans. (b) 5. The missile µAgni¶ was launched from (a) Maharashtra (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Kerala (d) Orissa Ans. (d)

6. The indigenously built missile recently inducted into the Indian Army is known as (a) Akash (b) Agni (c) Trishul (d) Prithvi Ans. (d) 7. All the following cities are located on the banks of river Ganga except (a) Calcutta (b) Kanpur (c) Haridwar (d) Mathura Ans. (d) 8. India¶s biggest nuclear research reactor is known as (a) Purnima (b) Apsara (c) Dhruva (d) Cirus Ans. (c) 9. India¶s first long range missile is (a) Nag (b) Trishul (c) Prithvi (d) Agni Ans. (d) 10. Which one of the following places is well known for diamond cutting and polishing industry? (a) Surat (b) Jaipur (c) Kanchipurarn (d) Bombay Ans. (b) 11. NEFA is the old name of (a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Nagaland (d) Arunachal Pradesh Ans. (d) 12. From the following, the tribals of Tamil Nadu living in Nilgiris are (a) Uralis (b) Kolam (c) Todas

(d) Chenchus Ans. (c) 13. Nilgiri, Himgiri and Beas are (a) aircraft carrier ships (b) frigates (c) nuclear submarines (d) Oil tankers of ONGC Ans. (b) 14. Kaiga in Karnataka is famous for (a) nuclear plant (b) ancient fort (c) fertilizer plant (d) cement plant Ans. (a) 15. Kuki Tribes which were recently in the news, are mainly inhabited in which of the following states? (a) Nagaland (b) Manipur (c) Assam (d) Sikkim (e) Arunachal Pradesh Ans. (b) 16. Which one of the following is not situated on the bank of river Godavari? (a) Nanded (b) Khammam (c) Rajamundry (d) Nasik Ans. (b) 17. The ballistic missile Agni tested by India has a maximum range of (a) 1000 km (b) 1500 km (c) 2000 km (d) 2500 km Ans. (b) 18. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is (a) iron & steel plants (b) roadways (c)railways (d) airways Ans. (c)

19. Which is India¶s main battle tank inducted in the army recently? (a) Trishul (b) Arjun (c) Nag (d) Lakshya Ans. (b) 20. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in decreasing other of the population sizes of the given cities as per the 1991 census. (a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras, Delhi (b) Bombay, Calcutta, Madras, Delhi (c) Calcutta, Bombay, Delhi, Madras (d) Bombay, Calcutta, Delhi, Madras Ans. (d) 21. Which of the following states has achieved the highest literacy rate? (a) Haryana (b) West Bengal (c) Kerala (d) Maharashtra Ans. (c) 22. During the 1981-1991 period, the population of which one of the following states had registered the maximum growth rate? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Meghalaya (c) Nagaland (d) Sikkim Ans. (c) 23. Which of the following is the second most literate state? (a) Kerala (b) West Bengal (c) Karnataka (d) Mizoram Ans. (d) 24. What is the approximate literacy rate as per 1991 data? (a) 43% (b) 48% (c) 53% (d) 58% (e) 65% Ans. (c)

25. According to the recent survey, -which state has the highest per capita income? (a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Delhi (d) Maharashtra Ans. (c) 26. The total population of India according to 1991 census is (a) 841 million (b) 842 million (c) 843 million (4) 844 million Ans. (d) 27. Which one of the following is correctly matched in the light of 1991 census? (a) Andhra Pradesh : Land-man ratio is lowest (b) West Bengal : Sex ratio is highest (c) Kerala : Density of population is highest (d) Tamil Nadu : Sex ratio is lowest Ans. (a) 28. According to the figures of the 1991 census, the total male population in India was nearly (a) 30.7 crore (b) 35.7 crore (c) 43.7 crore (d) 45.7 crore Ans. (c) 29. Which of the following states has the slowest rate of population growth as per 1991 census? (a) West Bengal (b) Kerala (c) Goa (d) Nagaland Ans. (b) 30. Which one of the following is the group of states that have shown a net rise in population during 1981 ± 91 according to 1991 census? (a) Punjab, Gujarat and Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Gujarat (c) Maharashtra, Gujarat and Kerala (4) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Punjab Ans. (d) 31. As per the recent data available (1991 census), which of the following represents the national average of tribal literacy in India? (a) 10.92%

(b) 16.85% (c) 19,90% (d) 20.35% (e) None of these Ans. (e) 32. The population of India as per 1991 census reports is increasing at an average annual rate of (a) 2.11 (b) 2.35 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.7 Ans. (a) 33. In India, women workers constitute approximately what percent of the total women population as per the latest figures available (1991 census) (a) 21.40 % (b) 22.69 % (c) 26.80 % (d) 31.74 % (e) 42.26 % Ans. (b) 34. Among the following groups of states, which one is having literacy rate in the range of 38% ± 44%? (a) Rajasthan, West Bengal, UP., Bihar (b) Bihar, Karnataka, U.P., M.P (c) Bihar, UP., M.P, Rajasthan (d) Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Orissa Ans. (c) 35. The growth rate of population in India between 1981 and 1991 was (a) 19.95% (b) 23.85% (c) 27.15% (d) 31.85% Ans. (b) 36. According to the recent survey, which state has the highest per capita income? (a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Delhi (d) Maharashtra Ans. (c) 37. Which of the following states in India is least populated as per the l991 census? (a) Mizoram

(b) Nagaland (c) Goa (d) Sikkim (e) Arunachal Pradesh Ans. (e) 38. Ratio of women to men in India according to 1991 census is (a) 0.921 (b) 0:929 (c) 0.936 (d) 0.942 Ans. (a) 39. As per the 1991 census, Kerala registered the lowest fertility rate among the states in India. This has been attributed to the (a) small population of child-bearing age (b) high overall literacy rate (c) high rate of literacy among women (d) high level of urbanization Ans. (b) 40. As per the 1991 census, what percentage of the total population was in the urban areas? (a) 11 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 25 (e) 26 Ans. (e)

objective PUB ADM objective PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
objective PUB ADM objective questions of Public Administrations Objective Public Administration for exams online free Public Administration for test 1. Which of the following was not identified by the Santhanam Committee as a major cause of corruption in India? (a) Administrative delays (b) Scope for personnel discretion in the exercise of powers (c) Cumbersome procedures (d) Absence of regulatory functions of the government Ans. (d) 2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List ± I List -II (Commission) (Recommendation)

A. Macaulay Committee 1. Classification of civil services B. Aitchison Commission 2. Changes in staffing pattern of Central Secretariat C. Tottenham Committee 3.Competitive examination for recruitment to civil services commission D. Islington 4. Establishment of Public Service Commission 5. Promotion of provincial civil services members to ICS. Code: ABCD (a) 3 1 2 5 (b) 5 4 2 3 (c) 5 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 5 2 Ans. (a) 3. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides provision for the creation of All India Services? (a) Article 300 (b) Article3I2 (c) Article 320 (d) Article 321 Ans. (b) 4. Which of the following trends are emerging in Public Sector Enterprises in India due to the impact of liberalization? 1. Strengthening the operational autonomy 2. Encouraging competition with private sector 3. Motivating competition among public enterprises themselves Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Code: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Ans. (d) 5. Which among the following countries does not have a Central Civil Service Commission charged with the responsibility for recruitment to the higher civil service? (a) Canada (b) Great Britain (c) USA (d) France Ans. (b) 6. Recruitment to the higher civil service in India is based on the recommendations of which of the following Committee/Commission Reports? 1. Paul Appleby

2. Macaulay 3. Hanumanthaiah 4. D. S. Kothari Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Code: (a) l, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 only (c) l, 3 and 4 only Ans. (d) 7. A member of the UPSC may be removed on the ground of misbehavior by (a) both the Houses of Parliament by way of impeachment (b) the President on the basis of enquiry by the Supreme Court (c) the Chairman of UPSC (d) the Prime Minister on the basis of the recommendation of the Cabinet. Ans. (b) 8. Which one of the following features does not necessarily apply to generalist administration in India? (a) They are trained professionals in administration (b) They have been educated in technical disciplines (c) They can head or work in-any government department (d) They have a broader view of administration. Ans. (b) 9. Which of the following statements with respect to state level directorate is/are correct? 1. It is always headed by a ³specialist.´ 2. It is a line organization. Code: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these Ans. (b) 10. The Administration Reforms Commission (1966) recommended the establishment of ¶Lokpal¶ in India on the lines of Ombudsman of which of the following countries? 1. Finland 2. Denmark 3. Norway 4. Switzerland (a) l, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) l, 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4 Ans. (c) 11. Which of the following are the functions of the Cabinet according to the Haldane Committee Report (1918)? 1. The final determination of the policy to be submitted to the Parliament 2. The Supreme control of the National Executive in accordance with the policy agreed by the Parliament. 3. Recommendation of important policies to the Prime Minister for his/her final decision. 4. The continuous coordination and delimitation of the authority of the several departments of the state. Code: (a) All of above (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Ans. (a) 12. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the Governor¶s Ordinance-making power? (a) It is exercised only when the Legislature is not is session (b) It is a discretionary power which need not be exercised with the aid and advice of ministers. (c) The Governor himself is competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time. (d) The scope of the Ordinance-making power is limited to subjects in List II and Schedule VII Ans. (b) 13. µWhich one of the following statements, with regard to the State Legislature, is not correct? (a) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Governor (b) Under Article 167 of the Constitution of India, the Chief Minister has to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation. (c) Once the Governor reserves a Bill for the consideration of the President, the subsequent enactment of the Bill is in the hands of the President and the Governor shall have no further part in its career. (d) The executive power of the State is vested in the Governor and all executive actions of the State have to be taken in the name of the Governor. Ans. (a) 14. Which one of the following recommended the separation of regulatory and development functions at the district level? (a) Dantwalla Committee (b) Hanumantha Rao Committee (c) Administrative Reforms Commission (d) G.V. K. Rao Committee Ans. (d)

15. Consider the following statements: State Finance Commission 1. receives grants directly from the Finance Commission set up by the Union Government. 2. reviews the economic conditions of the various Panchayati Raj Institutions and Municipal Bodies in the State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these Ans. (b) The following items consist of two statements, One labeled the µAssertion A¶ and the other labeled the Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide whether the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly: Codes: (a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 16. Assertion (A): Governor can withhold non-Money Bill passed by the legislature. Reason (R): Governors are empowered by the Article 200 of the Constitution of India to do so. Ans. (c) 17. To which of the following, the 74th Constitutional Amendment has not paid attention? 1. Municipal personnel system 2. Constitution and composition of municipality 3. Relations between elected executive and bureaucracy 4. Relations between municipal government arid para-statals Code: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) l, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) l, 2 and 3 only Ans. (b) 18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List ±I List-II (Item) (Article as per the 74th constitutional Amendment Act) A. Constitution of municipalities 1. Article243Q B. Reservation of seats 2. Article 243 T C. Finance Commission, etc. 3. Article 243 Y

D. Duration of Municipalities 4 Article 243 U Code: ABCD (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 2 4 Ans. (b) 19. Mayor-in-Council form of Municipal Corporation is (a) brought by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (b) based on the theory of separation of powers (c) akin to cabinet form of government (d) based on the American local government pattern. Ans. (d) 20. Consider the following statements: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provided 1. for 27% reservation of seats at the Panchayats for the Other Backward Castes (OBCs) 2. that the Chairpersons of the Panchayats at intermediate or district level, shall be elected by, and from amongst the elected members thereof Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 only (d) None of these Ans. (b) 21. What age is prescribed for a person to qualify for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India? (a) Not below 30 years on the date of appointment (b) Not below 35 years on the date of appointment (c) Not below 40 years on the date of appointment (d) It is determined in such manner as Parliament may, by law, provide Ans. (d) 22. Which of the following Union Ministries / Office / Commission in India publishes the Economic Survey? (a) Ministry of Finance (b) Ministry of. Statistics and Programme Implementation (c) Planning Commission (d) Cabinet Secretariat Ans. (a) 23. Which of the following form a part of the terms of reference of the newly constituted Commission on Centre State Relations by the Government of India?

1. Panchayati Raj institutions 2. Communal violence 3. An integrated domestic market 4. Central Law Enforcement Agency Select the correct answer using the code given below² (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) l, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) 24. Who among the following was the Chairman of the ³National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution´ constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000? (a) A.M. Ahmadi (b) A.S. Anand (c) M.N. Venkatachalaiah (d) J.S. Verma Ans. (c) 25. Which of the following in respect of the enlargement of Fundamental Rights were recommended by the ³National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution´ constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000 ? 1. Every person has a right to respect for his private and family life. 2. Every person has a right to leave the territory of India and every citizen shall have the right to return to India, 3. Every person who has been illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty shall have an enforceable right to compensation. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) l, 2 and 3 Ans. (d) 26. The States¶ Debt Consolidation and Relief Facility 20052010 was introduced by the Central Government on whose recommendations 7 (a) 11th Finance Commission (b) 12th Finance Commission (c) National Development Council (d) Planning Commission Ans. (b) 27. Which of the following issues will be dealt with by the 13th Finance Commission as per the terms of reference?

1. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State. 2. Methods needed to augment the financial resources of the State Universities by funding from the University Grants Commission. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) l only (b) 2only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (a) 28. Recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission will cover a period of five years commencing from which date? (a) 1-4-2008 (b) 1-4-2009 (c) 1-4-2010 (d) 1-4-2001 Ans. (c) 29. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists² List ±I List-II (Commission/Post of the Union of India) (Article of the Constitution of India) (a) Finance Commission 1. 148 (b) Union Public Service Commission 2. 280 (c) Election Commission 3. 315 (d) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India 4. 324 Code: ABCD (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3 Ans. (b) 30. Under which Union Ministry does the National River Conservation Directorate function ? (a) The Ministry of Agriculture (b) The Ministry of Water Resources (c) The Ministry of Rural Development (c) The Ministry of Environment and Forests Ans. (d) 31. Consider the following statements about the Scheme for strengthening of Revenue Administration and Updating of Land Records (SRA & ULR)² 1. The scheme is being implemented by the State Governments. 2. The scheme is financed by the Centre and States on 50 : 50 funds sharing basis.

3. Union Territories are being provided full central assistance. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) l, 2 and 3 Ans. (d) 32. The Department of Land Resources is a part of which one of the Union Ministries? (a) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (b) Ministry of Rural Development (c) Ministry of Earth Sciences (d) Ministry of Environment and Forests Ans. (b) 33. Effective public participation in development projects majorly needs which of the following? 1. Occasional consultation 2. Active association with the whole project cycle 3. Administrative initiative more than people¶s initiative 4. Gender sensitivity 5. Poverty sensitivity Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) l, 4 and 5 Ans. (b) 34. Which one of the following is the correct statement? The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is fully owned by² (a) The Government of India only (b) The Government India and the Reserve Bank of India (c) The Reserve Bank of India only (d) The Government of India and the Life Insurance Corporation of India Ans. (b) 35. Who is vested with powers to make regulations as to conditions of service of Members and staff of the Union Public Service Commission? (a) President of India (b) Parliament (c) Union Minister of Law (d) Chairman, Union Public Service Commission Ans. (a) 36. Consider the following statements² 1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India under which the President of India may

entrust, with the consent of the Government of a State, to that Government. functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends. 2. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, only legislature of a State can by law alter the name of that State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (d) 37. Who makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts ? (a) Finance Commission of the concerned State (b) Legislature of the State (c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (d) District Collector Ans. (b) 38. Consider the following statements in respect of the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF): 1. RIDF-I was launched in the year 2000-2001 2. Presently, only State Governments are eligible to borrow out of the RIDF on project basis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (c) Both l and 2 (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) 39. Which of the following functions have been laid down in the 12th Schedule of the Constitution of India for the municipalities? 1. Urban poverty alleviation. 2. Planning for economic and social development. 3. Regulation for tanneries. 4 Urban forestry. Select the correct answer using the code given below² (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) l and 4 only (d) l, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) 40. Consider the following statements² 1. The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 16 Articles and a new Schedule in the Constitution of India. 2. The Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 18 Articles but no new

Schedule in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both l and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (a) 41. Who among the following choose a member of the Council of States to be its Deputy Chairman (a) The President (b) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs (o) The Prime Minister (d) The Council of States Ans. (d) 42. The Second Schedule of the Constitution of India does not contain the provisions as to who among the following? (a) The President (b) The Speaker of the House of People (c) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (d) The Chairman, Union Public Service Commission Ans. (d) 43. Which one of the following is not a part of the State list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India? (a) Relief of the disabled and unemployable (b) Taxes on lands and buildings (c) Prisons (d) Stock exchanges Ans. (d) 44. Consider the following statements; 1. The National Commission for Women was created by an amendment of the Constitution of India. 2. Like the Chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission, the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women is appointed by the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b)

45. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the terms of reference of the sixth Central Pay Commission? (a) Structure of pension to the present and former Central Government employees appointed before the implementation of the Fifth Central Pay Commission ie;1.1.1996 (b) Harmonization of the functioning of the Central- government organisation with the demands of globalization (c) Determining structure of pay of the Central Government employees which include those of Union Territories (d) Determining the desirability of introducing Productivity Linked Incentive Scheme Ans. (b) 46. Which of the following were recommended by he Fifth Central Pay Commission to be introduced as new All- Indian Services? 1. Indian Medical Service 2. Indian Engineering Service 3. Indian Education Service 4. Indian Environment Service Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4only (d) 1, 2 and 4 Ans. (a) 47. Consider the following statements² 1. Same procedure for cadre allocation is used for directly recruited and promote officers of the All India Services 2. Indian Economic Service is included in the Central Civil Services Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) The following items consist of two statements, One labeled the µAssertion A¶ and the other labeled the Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide whether the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly: Codes: (a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 48. Assertion (A) : The (First) Administrative Reforms Commission¶s recommendation that a

part of the recruitment process to the IAS and other services should be made on the lines of the Method I Examination (used in the UK for selection for the Civil Service) was not accepted by the Kothari Committee. Reason (R) The Kothari Committee considered the element of subjectivity on the part of examiners in the Method H Examination too great to be acceptable. Ans. (c) 49. During the period of British rule in India, the Rules made under which one of the following were known as the Devaluation Rules? (a) Government of lndia Act, 1919 (b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (c) Government of India Act, 1892 (d) Government of India Act, 1935 Ans. (d) 50. Consider the following statements: 1. The Kothari Committee on Recruitment Policy and Selection Methods recommended that service allocation on the basis of the Civil Services Examination be determined by the total of the marks of the Civil Services Examination determined by the total of the marks of the Civil Services Examination (Written and Interview) and the Post Training Test at the National Academy of Administration. 2. The (First) Administrative Reforms Commission recommended against the institution of a single Civil Services Examination for all the services covered by it Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) 51. The Committee appointed by the Government of India in the year 1971 under the Chairmanship of Dr. M.S. Gore dealt with which one of the following subjects? (a) Training Academy for the there of the Indian Forest Ser (b) Police training (c) Introduction of modern management and statistical techniques in the Central Secretariat (d) Recruitment policy for teachers in the Central Universities Ans. (b) 52. Consider the following statements: The President of India is empowered by the Constitution of India to make regulations specifying the matters on which it is not necessary to consult the Union Public Service Commission 2. The reasons for non-acceptance of the advice of the Union Public Service Commission have to be laid before each House of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) l only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) 53. Consider the following statements: 1. The first Public Service Commission in India was ± set up in the year 1926 on the recommendations of the Lee Commissions on the Superior Civil Services in India. 2. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for setting up of public service commissions at both the federal and provincial levels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both l and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) 54. Consider the following statements: I. A new all-India service can be created if both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha declare by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so. 2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India as to what level of authority can dismiss a member of a civil service of the Union oran all-India service or a civil service of a State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (d) 55. Consider the following statements² 1. There is bar to the selection of a Governor of a State from amongst the members of the Legislature of the State 2. The original plan in the Draft Constitution of India was to have an elected Governor but in the Constituent Assembly it was replaced by the method of appointment by the President of India 3. The method of appointment of a Governor of a State by the President of India is repugnant to the prevailing. Practice in the federal systems of the United States of America and Australia Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 ,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Ans. (d) 56. Assertion (A) : No criminal proceedings can be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his tenure of office. Reason (R) There is a provision under the Constitution of India for such protection to the

President of India and governor of a State. Ans. (a) 57. Consider the following statements: 1. As regards legislative powers, the governor of a State is not a part of the State legislature. 2. The Governor of a State has no emergency powers to meet t situation arising from external aggression. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)l only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) 58. Who among the following created the office of a District Collector in India? (a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Warren Hastings (c) The Royal C on Decentralization (d) Sir Charles Metcalfe Ans. (b) 59. Which one of the following is not correct? Part IX A of the Constitution of India pertaining to the Municipalities provides² (a) that Grants-in-aid be made to the Municipalities from the Consolidated Found of the State (b) for setting up a separate Finance Commission for the Municipalities (c) for setting up Committee for District Planning (d) for setting up Committee for Metropolitan Planning Ans. (b) 60. Which one of the following is not correct? (a) Part IX of the Constitution of India pertaining to the Panchayats provided for setting up of a Finance Commission (b) Part IX of the Constitution of India pertaining to the Panchayats provided for vesting all elections to the Panchayats in a Sate Election Commission (c) Part IX of the Constitution of India pertaining of the Panchayats provided for reservation of posts of chairpersons at the village level or any other level for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women. (d) Organisation of Village Panchayats is not included in the Directive Principles of State policy Ans. (d)

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1. Which one of the following is not an element of direction? (a) Planning and organizing various resources for doing work (b) Continuous training activity in which subordinates are instructed to carry out a particular assignment (c) Motivation of subordinates to try to meet the expectations of manager (d) Maintaining discipline and rewarding those who perform properly Ans. (a) 2. Consider the following statements in respect of PERT 1. PERT is a variation of milestone budgeting. 2. PERT employs probabilistic estimate of time required for completion of an activity. 3. PERT also includes the transfer of resources for reduction of duration of completion of a project. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) l and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) l and 3 Ans. (c) 3. Some organizations have escalator clause in their labour agreements. What does this clause provide for? (a) Automatic increase in wage/salary depending on seniority (b) Wage increase depending on output per day by the worker (c) Automatic increase in wage/salary depending upon increase in price index (d) Automatic increase in wage/salary depending on increase in profits of the firm Ans. (c) 4. What is an organization structure in which each employee reports to both a functional (or division) manager and to a project (or group) manager, known as? (a) Strategic business unit (b) Departmentation by customer (c) Matrix structure (d) Departmentation by territory Ans. (c) 5. According to force-field theory, every behavior is the result of equilibrium between which of the following? (a) Push and pull effect (b) Strong and weak forces (c) Positive and negative forces Ans. (c) 6. In case of any default made in complying with the provisions relating to the postal ballot, the officer on default will be punishable with which one of the following fines? (a) Rs. twenty thousand in respect of each such default

(b) Rs, fifty thousand in respect of each such default (c) Rs, one lakh in respect of each such default (d) Rs. two lakh in respect of each such default Ans. (b) 7. What is Director Identification Number (DIN)? (a) An identification number which the individual company allots of the intending director (b) A number which the Central Government allots to any individual intending to be appointed as director or to any existing director of a company (c) A number which the SEBI allots to any individual intending to be appointed as director or to any existing director of a company (d) A number which the Central Govemment allots to retired directors so as to build data base Ans. (a) 8. Small shareholders¶ director is to be appointed by which of the following companies? (a) Public companies having Rs. 5 crores or more of paid up capital and minimum 1000 small shareholders (b) Public companies having Rs. 10 crores or more of paid up capital and a minimum of 1000 small shareholders (c) Public companies having Rs. 1 crore or more of paid up capital and a minimum of 100 small shareholders (d) Public companies having Rs. 5 crores or more of paid up capital and a minimum of 100 small shareholders Ans. (a) 9. Which of the following companies do not have the obligation to get its Articles of Association registered along with the Memorandum of Association? (a) Public Company limited by shares (b) Unlimited companies (c) Private companies limited by shares (d) Companies limited by guarantee Ans. (a) 10. Assertion (A) : A company is accountable to the society since it makes use of communityowned assets and other infrastructural facilities and enjoys concessions provided by State from tax-payers¶ money. Reason (R): The best way of social responsibility reporting is to prepare a value added statement which shows the income earned by all the stake holders. Codes: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true Ans. (c)

11. Members of a company may apply to which one among the following for relief under the companies Act, 1956 in cases of oppression? (a) Central Government (b) High court of Judicature (c) National Company Law Tribunal (d) National Company Law Appelate Tribunal Ans. (c) 12. Which of the following is not a part of the usual contents of the current file and audit working papers? (a) A copy of accounts on which auditors are reporting (b) Audit programme (c) Minutes of the meetings (d) Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association Ans. (d) 13. A company limited by shares has to call the statutory meeting within a period of not less than one month and not more than six months. This period is counted with reference to which one of the following? (a) The date of incorporation (b) The date at which the company is entitled to commence business (c) The date of actual receipt of certificate of incorporation (d) The date of actual commencement of business Ans. (b) 14. Under which one of the following is the term µDominant Undertaking¶ defined? (a) M.R.T. P. Act (b) FEMA (c) Companies Act (d) SEBI Ans. (a) 15. Which of the following represents corporate sustainable reporting? (a) Publishing annual financial statement only (b) Publishing annual financial statements and social / accounts (c) Publishing social and environmental accounts annually (d) Publishing annual financial statements incorporating economic, social and environmental performances Ans. (d) 16. Assertion (A): The scope of audit of accounts of a limited company may be restricted by the Board of Directors. Reason (R): The Board of Directors is responsible for adherence to Accounting Standards in preparation of financial statements. Codes: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true (d) Ans. (d) 17. For how many years the books of accounts of a company have to be preserved in good order? (a) For a period of not less than eight years immediately preceding the current year (b) For a period of not less than five years immediately preceding the current year (c) For a period of not less than six years immediately preceding the current year (d) For a period of not less than four years immediately preceding the current year Ans. (d) 18. When does a body corporate become capable forthwith of exercising all the functions of a company? (a) On finalizing Memorandum of Association (b) On obtaining certificate of commencement of business (c) On obtaining certificate of incorporation (d) On having convened its first Annual General Meeting Ans. (b) 19. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List-II (Activity) (Account) A. Admission of a partner 1. Capital Accounts B. Partnership dissolution 2. Suspense C. Rectification 3. Revaluation Account D. Transfer of realization profit 4. Realization Account Code: AB C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 4 3 1 Ans. (a) 20. Consider the following statements: 1. Inventory of by-product should be valued at lower of cost and net realizable value. 2. Inventory of reusable waste should be valued at raw material cost ignoring the reprocessing cost where facilities for reprocessing exist. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (a)

21. Statutory meeting has to be called (a) within six months but not earlier than one month of certificate of incorporation. (b) within six months but not earlier than one month of certificate of commencement of business. (c) any time within six months of the certificate of commencement of business. (d) any time within three months of an annual general meeting. Ans. (b) 22. Under section 292 (A) of the Companies Act, 1956, in which among the following types of companies is constitution of an audit committee compulsory? Every public company having paid-up capital of not less than (a) rupees one crores. (b) rupees two crores. (c) rupees five crores. (d) rupees ten crores. Ans. (c) 23. In which one of the following ways can the Secretary of a company be removed from his office? (a) By a resolution passed in the meeting of the Board of Directors (b) By an order of the Registrar of the Companies (c) By a resolution passed in Annual General Meeting (d) By a special order of the SEBI Ans. (a) 24. Under section 233 (A) of the Companies Act, 1956, in which one of the following conditions special audits of a company¶s accounts may be ordered? (a). The financial position of the company is such as to endanger its solvency (b) The company is violating its articles of association (c) The memorandum of association is under dispute (d) The company has not appended its memorandum of explanation with the Balance Sheet Ans. (a) 25. Assertion (A) The name of a company be changed by ordinary resolution also. Reason (R): The change of name shall be complete and effective only on the issue of fresh certificate of incorporation. Code: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Ans. (d) 26. Assertion (A): The powers of the Board of Directors are coextensive with those of the company. Reason (R) The Board of Directors of company is entitled to do all such acts and things as the

company is authorized to do. Code: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Ans. (a) 27. A private company having been altered into a public company must file prospectus or statement in lieu of prospectus to the Registrar within a period of (a) thirty days. (b) twenty one days. (c) fifteen days. (d) seven days. Ans. (a) 28. In which one of the following meetings, the auditor of a company has the right to attend? (a) Every general meeting of the shareholder (b) Only those meetings where accounts are being discussed (c) Only annual general meetings of the company (d) Only those annual general meetings in which the Board of Directors wish to invite him Ans. (c) 29. Consider the following statements: 1. Law does not make it compulsory for a Partnership firm to be registered 2. A partner may be admitted to partnership without any capital contribution Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both l and 2 (d) Neither1 nor 2 Ans. (c) 30. If due to some circumstances, no appointment of a new auditor or reappointment of the old auditor has been made in the annual general meeting of a company, then the (a) old auditor will continue to work. (b) Board of Directors will appoint the new auditor. (c) Managing Director can appoint the auditor. (d) auditor may be appointed by the Central Government. Ans. (d) 31. For which one of the following purposes, the utilization of Capital Redemption Reserve Account is permitted? (a) Writing off part of current year¶s losses (b) Writing off miscellaneous expenditure like preliminary expenses (c) Declaring cash dividends

(d) Issuing of fully paid bonus shares Ans. (d) 32. An auditor is to be appointed by a special resolution (a) where 25% or more of the subscribed capital is held, singly or jointly, by a Public Financial Institution. (b) where 25% or more of the subscribed capital is held by Central or State Government. (c) where 25% or more of the subscribed capital is held by other institution established by any Provincial or State Act in which State holds 51% subscribed capital. (d) in all of the above situations. Ans. (d) 33. When an auditor certifies financial statement, which one of the following does it imply? (a) The contents of the statement can be measured and the auditor has vouched and verified the exactness of the data (b) The auditor can only have an overall view of the accounts through normal audit procedure (c) In his opinion the financial statements exhibit a true and fair view of affairs of the organization under audit (d) The opinion of the auditor on the financial statements may be unqualified Ans. (c) 34. Consider the following statements: Mutual funds help the investor in securing 1. diversification of risk. 2. steady appreciation. Which of the statements(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) 35. Purchases equal to (a) Cost of goods sold + Closing inventory ² Opening inventory (b) Cost of goods sold ² Closing inventory + Opening inventory (c) Opening inventory + Closing inventory ² Cost of goods sold (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 36. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (Method of Valuation) (Asset) A. Valued at cost 1. Trademark B. Valued at cost less amortization till date 2. Goodwill C. Valued at lower of cost and market price 3. Mines D. Valued at cost less depreciation on the 4. Marketable securities basis of actual depletion of reserves

Code: ABCD (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (a) 37. S Ltd has in stock goods worth Rs. 10000 supplied by its parent company H Ltd. on which the latter made a profit of 20% on cost. The controlling interest of H Ltd. in S Ltd is 80%. At which one of the following amounts, the stock should be shown in the Consolidated Balance Sheet? (a) Rs. 10000 (b) Rs. 8000 (c) Rs. 8400 (d) Rs. 7500 Ans. (c) 38. X Y Z Ltd. forfeited 5 shares of Rs. 10 each issued at 10% premium to Mr. Z (Rs. 9 called up) on which he had paid application and allotment money (including premium) of Rs. 2 and Rs. 3 per share respectively. Which one of the following is the amount transferred to Share Forfeiture Account? (a) Rs.10 (b) Rs.20 (c) Rs.45 (d) Rs.50 Ans. (b) 39. Which one of the following situations is correct when creditor¶s velocity or creditor¶s turnover is higher as compared to debtor¶s velocity? (a) Improve liquidity (b) Reduce liquidity (c) Higher velocity of gross assets block (d) No impact on liquidity Ans. (b)
October 4th, 2010 | Tags: Commerce | Category: Uncategorized | Leave a comment

indian history for exams
indian history for exams Indian History For Competitive Examination Online Practice Test MCQ on Indian History for UPSC IAS Exams Solved papers and study material for Civil Services and IAS exam :History indian history solved quiz Questions Answers for exams

1. Who united all the Sikhs and founded a kingdom in the Punjab? (a) Gum Nanak (b) Guru Gobind Singh (c) Maharaja Ranjit Singh (d) Guns Teg Bahadur Ans : c 2. The Mansahdari system introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system in (a)Turkey (b) Persia (c) Afghanistan (d) Mongolia Ans : b 3. Which of the following is wrongly matched with his contemporary Mughal king? (a) Rana Sanga -Babar (b) Prithvi Raj Chauhan -Akbar (c) Jujhar Singh -Shahjehan (d) Jaswant Singh -Aurangzeb Ans : b 4. In 1662 A.D., Mirjumla, the Mughal Viceroy of Bengal led a successful expedition to (a) Astern (b) Tibet (c) Orissa (d) Avadh Ans : a

5. In reforming land revenue system, Sher Shar Sun took which of the following steps? 1. He did away with the authority of the middle- men and established direct relations with the tenants. 2. He abolished jagirs and zamindari system. 3. He fixed the government¶s share of produce at less than one third of the produce. (a) l, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 Ans : a 6. Which of the following ports was the biggest port during the Mughal Period? (a) Hoogly (b) Chittagong (c) Balasore (d) Surat Ans : d 7. The East India Company was founded in India during the reign of (a) Jehangir (b) Akbar (c) Shahjehan (d) Aurangzeb Ans : b 8. The capital of the kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was (a) Patiala (b) Amritsar (c) Lahore (b) l and 2 (d) l and 3

(d) Kapurthala Ans : c 9. The Sikh Guru who fought Mughals was (a) Gum Nanak (b) Gum Arjun Dev (c) Gum Gobind Singh (d) Guru Teg Bahadur Ans : c 10. When Akbar was young, his guardian was (a) Hemu (b) Faiji (c) Abul Fazal (d) Bairam Khan Ans : d 11. Akbar assumed actual control over the administration of his empire in (a) 1556 (b) 1562 (c) 1558 (d) 1560 Ans : a 12. Babar won the Bank of Panipat mainly because of (a) his cavalry (b) his military skill

(c) Tulughma system (d) Afghan¶s disunity Ans : b 13. Who consolidated the Mughal Empire and gave it a unique multi-religious culture? (a) Akbar (b) Humayun (c) Jehangir (d) Aurangzeb Ans : a 14. During the Mughal period, under the Zabti sys tem, land revenue was assessed and was required to be paid (a) in cash or kind (b) only in cash (c) only in kind (d) by the Zamindar on the behalf of the peasants Ans : a 15. The British allowed Ranjit Singh to rule over the territories west of the Satluj because (a) they were afraid of his French trained army. (b) he proved to be a faithful ally. (c) he was amenable to British pressure. (d) they needed his help in conquering Afghanistan. Ans : a 16. In the Mughal administration, military recruit men was being looked after by the (a) Wazir (b) Kotwal

(c) Bakshi (d) Diwan Ans : c 17. Which of the following Rajput dynasties did not surrender to Akbar? (a) Parmar (b) Pratihara (c) Rathor (d) Sisodiya Ans: b 18. Who, among the following Mughal emperors, annexed Bijapur and Golconda to the Mughal Empire? (a) Jahangir (b) Akbar (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb Ans: d 19. Guru Gobind Singh sent Banda Bahadur to Punjab (a) to establish Sikh empire. (b) because he was a great warrior. (c) to crush the enemies of Khalsa. (d) to defeat the Hindus. Ans: c 20. Zawabits are concerned with (a) state laws

(b) laws regulating mansab system. (c) laws regulating mint house. (d) Agricultural taxes. Ans: c 21. The main object of introducing the Mansabdari system was to (a) placate the nobility (b) improve the judicial administration (c) organize the army (d) improve the land revenue system Ans : c 22. Akbar collected a very valuable library of manuscripts on all subjects because (a) he was a voracious reader (b) he wanted to write Akbarnapza (c) he had a great hunger for knowledge (d) he wanted to start a new religion, Ans : d 23. Which of the following was the main function of the Peshawar under Shivajiµs administration? (a) He was to look after the general interest and welfare of the state. (b) He advised the king about foreign affairs. (c) He was to fix dates for religious ceremonies. (d) He was in charge of all public finance and accounts of the kingdom. Ans : a 24. When did Vasco da Gama come to India?

(a) 1492 (b) 1498 (c) 1398 (d) 1542 Ans : b 25. The Maratha Chief, Sambhaji, was executed during the reign of (a)Jahangir (b) Shah Jahan (c) Aurangzeb (d) Mahabat Khan Ans : c 26. Which one of the following Saint¶s name is as associated with Shivaji? (a) Ramanand (b) Ram Das (c) Chaitanya (d) Tukaram Ans : d 27. Who was the ruler of an Indian state who allied himself with the French? (a) Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf (b) Alivardi Khan (c) Saadat Khan (d) Tipu Sultan Ans : d

28 The final defeat of the Maratha confederacy came during the time of (a) Wellesley (b) Minto (c) Hastings (d) Cornwallis Ans : c 29. The Island of Bombay was given to the English Prince Charles II as dowry by the (a) Danish (b) Dutch (c) Portuguese (d) English Ans : c 30. Who among the following rulers belonged to the Holkar dynasty? (a) Prithviraj (b) Ahalyabai (c) Tukoji (d) Shivaji Ans : c 31. When the East India Company came into existence, England was ruled by the (a)Smarts (b) Tudors (c) Hanoverians (d) Normans

Ans : a 32. Who laid the foundations of Portuguese power in India? (a)Vasco da Gama (b) Bartholomew Dias (c) Affonso de Albuquerque (d) none of these Ans : c 33. Which of the following is not true about Haider Ali? (a) Mysore under him was a cause of anxiety for British. (b) He was a tactful general. (c) He was an able administrator. (d) He was a profound scholar. Ans : d 34. Match the following Places A. Chandranagore B. Pulicat C. Diu D. Surat ABCD (a) 4 2 1 3 (c) 3 1 2 4 Ans : c Settlement 1.Dutch 2.Portuguese 3. French 4. English A BC D (b) 4 2 3 1 (d) 2 4 1 3

35 Bombay was taken by the English East India Company from (a)The Portuguese (b) Charles I (c) Charles II (d) the Dutch Ans : c 36 The immediate successors of Shivaji¶s descendants, who came to power in the Maratha kingdom, were the (a)Bhonsles (b) Peshawar (c) Holkars (d) Gaekwads Ans : b 37 Tipu Sultan was defeated in Third Mysore War in 1790 by (a)John Shore (b) Warren Hastings (c) Lord Cornwallis (d) Sir John McPherson Ans : c 38 Who among the following is known for his introduction of a new calendar, a new system of coinage and new scales of weights and measures? (a) Murshid Quli Khan (b) Tipu Sultan (c) Nizam-ul-Mulk AsafJah

(d) Saadat Khan Burhan-ul-Mulk Ans : b 39. The Maratha kingdom was founded by Shivaji during the reign of (a) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq (b) Akbar (c) Shahjehan (d) Aurangzeb Ans : d 40. Who among the following Maratha Generals restored Maratha control over the imperial Mughal govemmeat in Delhi in 1784? (a)Tukoji Holkar (b) Visaji Krishna (c) Ragunath Rao (d) Mahadji Sindhia Ans : d 41. Which of the following Peshawar preached the ideal of Hindu- Padpadshahi? (a) Balaji Vishwanath (b) Baji Rao I (c) Baji Rao II (d) Madhav Rao Ans : b 42. Who amongst the British Generals defeated Peshwa Baji Rao II? (a)Outram (b) Malcolm

(c) Elephantine (d) Kitchener Ans : b 43. Which Indian king requested Napoleon for help to drive the British from India? (a)Rani of ihansi (b) Jai Singh (c) Shivaji (d) Tipu Sultan Ans : a 44 Who succeeded Siraj-ud-Daulah as Nawab of Bengal after the Battle of Plessey? (a)Aliwardi Khan (b) Mir Jafar (c) Mir Kasim (d) Shuja-ud-Daulah Ans : b 46. Which one of the following is not correctly paired? (a) Peshwa-Poona (b) Gaekwad-Baroda (c) Bhonsle-Indore (d) Scindhia-Gwalior Ans : c 47 Tranquebar on the Tamil Nadu coast was a colonial outpost of the (a) Portuguese

(b) French (c) Dutch (d) Danish Ans : b 48 Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? (a) Battle of Buxar ± Mir Jafar vs. Clive (b) Battle of Wandiwash ± French vs. East India Company (c) Battle of Chilianwala ± Dalhousie vs. Marathas (d) Battle of Kharda ± Nizam vs. East India Company Ans : b 49 Shivaji was crowned as an independent king at (a)Poona (b) Surat (c) Raigarh (d)Singhagarh Ans : c 50 Development of architecture was at its peak during (a) Chola period (b) Mughal period (c) Gupta period (d) Pandya period Ans : c
October 1st, 2010 | Tags: History, India | Category: Uncategorized | 3 comments

Famous personalities of India GK Solved Objective Questions
Famous personalities of India GK Solved Objective Questions An MCQ Quiz on the famous,the renowned persons of India very useful for Competitions like UPSC PCS PO TGT PGT Solved objective questions on famous personalities of India Free GK Online Quiz 1. Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt, who has won the prestigious µGrammy Awards¶ is an exponent in which of the following musical instruments? (a) Sarod (b) Tabla (c) Violin (d) Guitar (e) Sitar Ans. (d) 2. Ms Kim Campbell is the first Prime Minister of (a) Congo (b) Canada (c) Portugal (d) Philippines (e) Switzerland Ans. (b) 3. Which among the famous danseuses is not an exponent of the Odissi dance style? (a) Sanjukta Panigrahi (b) Sonal Man Singh

(c) Madhavi Mudgal (d) Yamini Krishnamurthy Ans. (d) 4. Limba Ram is associated with which of the following fields? (a) Motion pictures (b) Sports (c) Social service (d) Politics Ans. (b) 5. Who, among the following, is a social activist campaigning against child labour? (a) Baba Amte (b) Shabana Azmi (c) Mira Nair (d) Swami Agnivesh Ans. (d) 6. Ms. Meera Sahib Fathima Beevi is distinguished as the first lady (a) Judge of the High Court (b) Governor of a state (c) Judge of the Supreme Court (d) Gold medal winner in sports (e) Prime Minister of Bangladesh Ans. (c) 7. Ms. Hazel O¶Leary has a reputation in which of the following fields?

(a) Motion Picture (b) Literature (c) Photo journalism (d) Theatre (e) None of these Ans. (e) 8. Pandit K.G. Ginde, was well known for his contribution in which of the following. (a) Literature (b) Sanskrit (c) Ayurveda (d) Music (e) Dance Ans. (d) 9. Miss Universe 1995, Ms. Sushmita Sen hails from which of the following cities? (a) Bombay (b) Chandigarh (c) Bangalore (d) New Delhi Ans. (d) 10. Michael Jackson was a distinguished personality in which of the following fields? (a) Journalism (b) Acting (c) Pop music

(d) Sports Ans. (c) 11. Late Raja Ravi Verma, was an eminent figure in which of the following fields? (a) Dance (b) Politics (c) History (d) Painting (e) Music Ans. (d) 12. Bulo C. Rani was associated with which of the following fields? (a) Politics (b) Motion picture (c) Journalism (d) Sports (e) Social Service Ans. (b) 13. Which of the following is correctly matched? (a) Dr. Malcolm Adiseshiah (b) Dr. Pramod Karan Sethi (c) Dr. Kurien (d) Dr. Abdul Kalam Ans. (b) 14. Jude Felix has established reputation as an Indian player in which of the following games ? : Cooperative Movement : Jaipur Foot : Space Science : Development Economics

(a) Hockey (b) Volleyball (c) Football (d) Golf (e) Tennis Ans. (a) 15. Who among the following is the creator of the Rock Garden in Chandigarh? (a) Le Corbousier (b) Pupul Jayakar (c) Nek Chand (d) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay Ans. (c) 16. R.K. Laxman excelled as (a) Journalist (b) Writer (c) Cartoonist (d) None of these Ans. (c) 17. Dr. Joon Lew of Korea, the recipient of International Gandhi Award is known for his service in which of the following? (a) Eradication of leprosy (b) Campaign against AIDS (c) Elimination of child labour (d) Fight against drugs

Ans. (a) 18. Late Girilal Jain was a noted figure in which of the following fields? (a) Literature (b) Journalism (c) Politics (d) Social Service (e) Science & technology Ans. (b) 19. Dr. V. Kurien has distinguished himself in which of the following areas? (a) Poultry farms (b) Economic Reforms (c) Dairy development (d) Atomic Energy (e) Labour Movements Ans.(c) 20. Which of the following is correctly matched? (a) M.S. Swaminathan (b) TN. Kaul (c) Ganga (d) Astral Deboo Ans.(b) 21. Who is known as Indian Bismarck? (a) Nehru - Nuclear Scientist - Diplomat - Dancer - Cartoonist

(b) Rajaji (c) Patel (d) Kamraj Ans. (c) 22. The first Indian to swim across English Channel was (a) P. K. Banerji (b) Mihir Sen (c) V. Merchant (d) Arati Saha Ans. (b) 23. Who is considered as µTrimurti¶ (Trinity) of Carnatic Music? (a) Muthuswami Dikshitar (b) Thyagaraja (c) Swami Thirunal (d) Purandardasa Ans. (a) 24. Jamini Roy was a famous (a) Actor (b) Producer (c) Dancer (d) Painter (e) Sculptor Ans. (d)

25. Govind Talwalkar, recipient of the recently announced B. D. Goenka Award for excellence in Journalism, was the editor of which of the following newspapers? (a) Lok Satta (b) The Maharashtra Times (c) The Tribune (d) Nay Bharat Times (a) None of these Ans. (b) 26. Which of the following is not associated with vocal music? (a) Pandit Jasraj (b) Mallikarjun Mansur (c) Kishori Amonkar (d) Shiv Kumar Sharma (e) Bhimsen Josh Ans. (d) 27. Amjad All Khan is associated with which of the following musical instruments? (a) Violin (b) Sitar (c) Sarod (d) Veena Ans.(c) 28. Ms. Vijaya Mehta has earned distinction in which of the following fields? (a) Theatre (b) Journalism

(c) Classical dance (d) Film direction (e) Classical music Ans.(a) 29. Chandigarh was designed by (a) Le Corbusier (b) Edward Lutyens (c) Christopher Wren (d) Michelongo Ans.(a) 30. Shovna Narayan is a reputed personality in which of following fields? (a) Literature (b) Journalism (c) Painting (d) Classical music (e) Classical dance Ans.(e) 31. M Sham Lal has done commendable work in which of the following fields? (a) Social Service (b) Trade Unionism (c) Journalism (d) Politics (e) Rural Development

Ans.(c) 32. Which of the following names are associated with classical music? 1.Swami Haridas 2. Syama Shastri 3. Thyagaraja (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) l and 3 (d) l,2 and 3 Ans.(d) 33. Which music director had the distinction of being the first Asian to compose a symphony for Royal Philharmonic Orchestra of London? (a) Nadeem -Sharavam (b) Anand ± Milind (c) Shiv Hari (d) None of these Ans.(d) 34. Prof. Amartya Sen has earned worldwide distinction in which of the following fields/areas? (a) Economics (b) Geology (c) Biochemistry (d) Astrophysics (e) Electronics Ans.(a)

35. Who among the following was an eminent Painter? (a) Sarada Ukil (b) Uday Shankar (c) V. Shantaram (d) Yusuf Meherally Ans.(a) 36. Gum Gopi Krishna was a maestro of which of the following dance forms? (a) Manipuri (b) Bharatnatyam (c) Kuchipudi (d) Kathak (e) None of these Ans.(d) 37. Jamini Roy is a famous (a) dancer (b) magician (c) cartoonist (d) painter Ans.(d) 38. With which of the following was Satyajit Ray associated? (a) Commercial art (b) Classical music (c) Classical dance

(d) Direction of films Ans.(d) 39. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? (a) Lokmanya -Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) Netaji- Subhash Chandra Bose (c) Deshbandhu -Chittaranjan Das (d) Frontier Gandhi -Abul Kalam Azad Ans.(d) 40. A. Nageshwara Rao is associated with which of the following fields? (a) Sports (b) Social service (c) Literature (d) Politics (e) Motion Picture Ans.(e) 41. Ms Bachendri Pal had undertaken a unique expedition for focusing attention on which of the following themes? (a) National Integration (b) The Girl Child (c) Spirit of Adventure (d) One Nation One Family Ans.(c) 42.M.Ashok Pandit is known for his outstanding performance in which of the following ? (a) Swimming

(b) Wrestling (c) Shooting (d) Kabaddi (e) None of these Ans.(c) 43. Who among the following persons is called µDesert Fox¶? (a) Walter Scott (b) Gen. Rommel (c) Eisenhower (d) Bismarck Ans.(b) 44. Safdar Hashmi is a name associated with (a) Drawing and painting (b) Journalism (c) instrumental music (d) Cartooning (e) None of these Ans.(e) 45. Greto Garbo is a name associated with (a) Journalism (b) Literature (c) Acting (d) Classical dance

Ans.(c) 46. Who among the following is not a dramatist? (a) Girish R. Karnad (b) Hadal Sircar (c) Vijay Tendulkar (d) Jayanta Mahapatra Ans.(d) 47. Gum Kelucharan Mohapatra is a maestro of which of the following dance forms? (a) Kathak (b) Kuchipudi (c) Odissi (d) Kathakali (e) Bharatnatyam Ans.(a) 48. Consider the following statements about Dalai Lama: 1. After fleeing Tibet, he settled down in Dharamsala. 2. He was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1989. 3. His Government in exile has not been recognized by any country. 4. Karmappa of the Rumtek Monastery has been named as his successor. Of these statements, the correct ones are (a) 2 and 4 (b) l, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (b)

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