Miller Multiple Choice Questions

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Contents.............................................................................................................................1 Chapter 1: Environmental Problems, Their Causes and Sustainability............................2 Chapter 2: Science, Systems, Matter, and Energy..........................................................6 Chapter 3: Ecosystems: What are They and How do They Work?...................................9 Chapter 4: Evolution and Biodiversity..............................................................................13 Chapter 5: Climate and Terrestrial Biodiversity...............................................................17 Chapter 6: Aquatic Biodiversity.......................................................................................20 Chapter 7: Community Ecology.......................................................................................24 Chapter 8: Population Ecology........................................................................................28 Chapter 9: Applying Population Ecology: The Human Population and Its Impact..........32 Chapter 10: Sustaining Terrestrial Biodiversity: The Ecosystem Approach....................36 Chapter 11: Sustaining Biodiversity: The Species Approach..........................................40 Chapter 12: Sustaining Aquatic Biodiversity....................................................................44 Chapter 13: Food, Soil Conservation, and Pest Management........................................48 Chapter 14: Water............................................................................................................52 Chapter 15: Geology and Nonrenewable Mineral Resources.........................................56 Chapter 16: Nonrenewable Energy.................................................................................59 Chapter 17: Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy..................................................62 Chapter 18: Environmental Hazards and Human Health................................................65 Chapter 19: Air Pollution..................................................................................................69 Chapter 20: Climate Change and Ozone Depletion........................................................72 Chapter 21: Water Pollution.............................................................................................75 Chapter 22: Solid and Hazardous Waste........................................................................78 Chapter 23: Sustainable Cities........................................................................................81 Chapter 24: Economics, Environment, and Sustainability...............................................84 Chapter 25: Politics, Environment, and Sustainability.....................................................87 Chapter 26: Environmental Worldviews, Ethics, and Sustainability................................90

Miller Multiple Choice
From: G. Tyler Miller Jr.; Living in the Environment: Principles, Connections, and Solutions; 15th Edition ©2007 Chapter 1: Environmental Problems, Their Causes and Sustainability
1. ______is an interdisciplinary subject that combines information from the physical sciences and the social sciences to learn how the earth works. a. Ecology b. Environmentalism c. Environmental science d. Conservation 2. ______Which of the following does not represent an aspect of an environmentally sustainable society? a. protecting biodiversity b. recycling c. solar power d. soil erosion 3. ______Natural capital consists of ______ and ecological services. a. resources b. economic services c. climate change d. gross national product 4. ______The human population is increasing a. at a faster rate than ever before. b. by 1.2 billion people per year. c. exponentially. d. arithmetically.

5. ______Approximately how many new people were added by world population growth in 2005? a. about 81 million b. about 354 million c. about 129 million d. about 1.1 billion 6. ______Economic growth requires all of the following factors except a. an increase in production. b. population growth. c. population decrease. d. an increase in consumption. 7. ______On which of the following factors does the United Nations not classify a nation as developed or developing? a. population size b. degree of industrialization c. per capita GNI (GNP) 8. ______Economic development is a. the same as economic growth. b. improvement of living standards by economic growth. c. a measure of income per capita. d. none of the choices. 9. ______Which of the following is considered a nonrenewable resource? a. biological diversity b. solar energy c. fresh air d. metallic minerals 10. ______ The tragedy of the commons refers to the overuse of

a. common-property or free-access resources. b. solar capital. c. governmental regulation. d. synthetic chemicals. 11. ______ An ecological footprint is a. a measure of the earth's biological capacity. b. a measure of a person's contribution to creating a sustainable environment. c. the amount of biologically productive land and water needed to support each person. d. the amount of wilderness available on the earth. 12. ______ The total ecological footprint of the United States is ______ times that of India. a. about 2 b. more than 3 c. more than 4 d. about 5 13. ______ Nonrenewable resources a. can be exhausted within dozens or hundreds of years. b. exist in a fixed quantity. c. are renewable, but only over millions or billions of years. d. all of the choices. 14. ______ Nonpoint pollution sources a. are identified more easily and cheaply than point sources. b. come from sources that are impossible to locate. c. are dispersed and difficult to identify. d. may come from a smokestack or a drainpipe. 15. ______ Which of the following is not one of the five basic causes of environmental problems?

a. public policy b. population growth c. poverty d. unsustainable resource use 1. ______ The three factors affecting the environmental impact of the population in developing and developed countries are: e. population plus consumption minus technology impact. f. population times consumption times technology impact. g. population times technology impact minus consumption. h. population plus consumption plus technology impact. 16. ______ Which of the following characterized the frontier environmental worldview? a. A high level of federal regulation b. Moving as needed to find food for survival c. Alarm at the squandering of resources and wilderness d. Vast resources available for human use 17. ______ An example of environmentally sustainable economic development is a. pollution prevention. b. increased use of resources. c. population growth. d. burying waste.

Chapter 2: Science, Systems, Matter, and Energy
1. ______ Easter Island is an example of a. the result of immigration. b. a frontier mentality. c. the tragedy of the commons. d. the ecological footprint. 2. ______ What is the first step in the scientific study of a phenomenon? a. Ask a question b. Carry out a test c. Devise a hypothesis d. Develop a model 3. ______ Science is a. based on the fundamental assumption that events in the natural world follow orderly patterns. b. an attempt to discover order in the natural world. c. an effort to describe what is likely to happen in nature. d. all of the choices. 4. ______ Which of the following is not true of a scientific theory? a. It is verified. b. It may be based in speculation. c. It is credible. d. It is widely accepted. 5. ______ A scientific ______ is a description of what we find happening in nature over and over in the same way. a. outcome b. theory c. hypothesis

d. law 6. ______ An ion is a. the smallest unit of matter. b. a combination of two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds. c. an electrically charged atom or combination of atoms. d. a radioactive element. 7. ______ Matter is a. anything that has mass and takes up space. b. anything solid. c. anything that gives off energy. d. all of the choices. 8. ______ What does the law of conservation of matter tell us? a. Energy is neither created nor destroyed in a physical or chemical reaction. b. We cannot create or destroy atoms. c. When energy changes from one form to another, energy quality decreases. d. None of the choices. 9. ______ Which of the following describes a nuclear change in which two isotopes form a heavier nucleus? a. nuclear fission b. nuclear fusion 10. ______ Which of the following is an example of a chemical reaction? a. A piece of coal is broken into small fragments. b. Ice is melted to form water. c. Water evaporates. d. Coal combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide.

11. ______

The insecticide DDT is an example of a ______ pollutant. a. degradable b. nondegradable c. slowly degradable d. nonpersistent

12. ______

A nuclear power plant carries out controlled a. nuclear fission. b. nuclear fusion.

13. ______

Which term describes the capacity to do work and transfer heat? a. temperature b. entropy c. energy d. radiation

14. ______

Still water stored behind a dam has a large amount of a. kinetic energy. b. potential energy. c. chemical energy. d. heat energy.

15. ______

Which law of thermodynamics states that energy can be neither created nor destroyed? a. The first law of thermodynamics b. The second law of thermodynamics

16. ______

The best long-term solution to the constraints imposed by the laws of conservation of matter and energy is a ______ society. a. high consumption b. high-throughput c. matter-recycling d. low-throughput

Chapter 3: Ecosystems: What are They and How do They Work?
1. ______ A(n) ______ consists of species interacting with each other and their environment. a. habitat b. population c. community d. ecosystem 2. ______ Which of the following is an example of a population? a. bass in a lake b. an ocean c. a patch of woods d. predator and prey in a grassland 3. ______ Which of the following levels of organization is the most inclusive? a. community b. biosphere c. population d. ecosystem 4. ______ The biosphere a. is the portion of the earth in which living organisms exist. b. includes none of the hydrosphere. c. includes all of the lithosphere. d. includes some of the mantle. 5. ______ Which of the following is not one of the three interconnected factors upon which life on earth depends? a. matter cycling b. the one-way flow of energy from the sun

c. entropy d. gravity 6. ______ Most of the solar energy that passes through the atmosphere is a. captured by green plants. b. reflected back into space. c. degraded into infrared radiation. d. used to generate wind. 7. ______ According to the ______, there is a range for physical conditions and concentrations of substances beyond which no members of a particular species can survive. a. limiting factor principle b. law of tolerance c. law of conservation of mass d. first law of thermodynamics 8. ______ Which of the following is a limiting factor for an aquatic life zone? a. depth of water b. number of species c. size of population d. dissolved oxygen content 9. ______ Which of the following is not a component of biodiversity? a. chemical diversity b. genetic diversity c. ecological diversity d. species diversity 10. ______ Phytoplankton in an open water ecosystem are a. secondary consumers. b. primary consumers. c. producers.

d. tertiary consumers. 11. ______ A decomposer is a type of a. primary consumer. b. secondary consumer. c. producer. d. detritivore. 12. ______ The percentage of usable energy transferred as biomass from one trophic level to another is called a. energy flow. b. the limiting factor. c. biomass. d. ecological efficiency. 13. ______ Which of the following is not one of the most productive ecosystems? a. swamp b. temperate grassland c. tropical rain forest d. estuary 14. ______ Soil a. filters and cleans water. b. provides most of the nutrients plants need. c. is renewable only over a very long period of time. d. all of the choices. 15. ______ A soil horizon consists of a. the horizontal layers in mature soil. b. the surface litter layer. c. the top layer of soil in which plants live. d. only the B and C layers of soil.

16. ______ Which biogeochemical cycle is involved in producing fossil fuels? a. the water cycle b. the nitrogen cycle c. the carbon cycle d. the phosphorus cycle 17. ______ Which of the following is often the limiting factor for plant growth on land? a. phosphorus b. sulfur c. nitrogen d. carbon 18. ______ What is systems analysis? a. Observations of food webs b. Modeling ecosystem function c. Generating maps with GIS d. Applied field research 19. ______ What does the "H" stand for in the scientific acronym "HIPPO," which describes the five major causes of species decline and premature extinction? a. Health concerns b. Habitat destruction and degradation c. Human intervention d. Hunting and exploitation

Chapter 4: Evolution and Biodiversity
1. ______ Which of the following is not an evolutionary trait that helped humans to survive and flourish? a. opposable thumbs b. exceptional sensory powers c. complex brains d. the ability to walk upright 2. ______ Most of what we know of the earth's life history comes from a. fossils. b. DNA analysis. c. ice cores. d. chemical analysis. 3. ______ Evolution refers to a. changes in an individual's traits over time. b. the survival of the fittest. c. changes in a population's genetic makeup through successive generations. d. extinction of species that can no longer compete. 4. ______ ______ is the term used to describe the small genetic changes that occur in a population. a. The theory of evolution b. Macroevolution c. Chemical evolution d. Microevolution 5. ______ Genetic variability in a population arises through a. mutation. b. genetic drift. c. gene flow. d. natural selection.

6. ______

In order for natural selection to occur a. the trait must not be heritable. b. there must be uniformity for a trait in a population. c. the trait must lead to differential reproduction. d. offspring must be larger than their parents.

7. ______

Which of the following processes involves changes in the gene pool of more than one species? a. convergent evolution b. diversifying selection c. coevolution d. mutation

8. ______

Ecologists say that a niche is like a species' ______, while habitat is like its ______. a. appearance; physiology b. occupation; address c. family history; occupation d. education; occupation

9. ______

A species' realized niche is ______ than its fundamental niche. a. smaller b. larger

10. ______ A(n) ______ always has a narrow niche. a. keystone species b. generalist species c. alien species d. specialist species 11. ______ Which of the following is a specialist species? a. tiger salamanders

b. housefly c. raccoon d. white-tailed deer 12. ______ The first phase of speciation is a. background extinction of predators. b. reproductive isolation. c. geographic isolation. 13. ______ Biologists estimate that ______ of the species that ever existed are now extinct. a. 10 percent b. 30 percent c. 50 percent d. 99 percent 14. ______ How does a mass depletion differ from a mass extinction? a. During a mass depletion, populations are reduced but species do not become extinct. b. Mass depletions involve fewer species extinctions than do mass extinctions. c. Mass depletions involve more species extinctions than mass extinctions. d. Mass depletions are local, whereas mass extinctions are global. 15. ______ Traditional artificial selection is a. the process of cross-breeding species. b. now possible because of genetic engineering. c. the process of breeding to change the genetic characteristics of a population. d. the same as cloning. 16. ______ Which of the following is not a concern about genetic engineering? a. It is too expensive to apply genetic engineering to agriculture.

b. It is unpredictable. c. It raises privacy and ethical issues. d. It may harm the environment in ways we cannot foresee. 17. ______ ______ is the process of using genetically engineered animals as biofactories for producing drugs, hormones, chemicals, and human body organs. a. Breeding b. Cloning c. Natural selection d. Biopharming 18. ______ The ability to apply genetic engineering to extending the human lifespan raises questions about a. human population control. b. costs. c. health insurance coverage. d. safety.

Chapter 5: Climate and Terrestrial Biodiversity.
1. ______ What are the two main factors determining climate? a. average temperature and amount of cloud cover b. proximity to a body of water and average temperature c. the jet stream and average amount of precipitation d. average temperature and average precipitation 2. ______ Which of the following is not a factor in how air circulates over the earth's surface? a. uneven heating of the earth's surface b. the jet stream c. the rotation of the earth on its axis d. properties of air, water, and land 3. ______ Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? a. carbon dioxide b. water vapor c. carbon monoxide d. methane 4. ______ A(n) ________ is a terrestrial region consisting of communities of organisms that are adapted to the region. a. biome b. ecosystem c. climate d. latitude 5. ______ The Mojave is a a. temperate grassland. b. cold desert. c. tropical desert.

d. temperate desert. 6. ______ Deserts take a long time to recover from disturbance because of their a. slow plant growth. b. high species diversity. c. fast nutrient cycling. d. permafrost. 7. ______ Most grasslands are found a. in the interiors of continents. b. along the coast of continents. c. in North America. d. in areas where trees will not grow. 8. ______ Permafrost underlies regions of a. tropical grasslands. b. arctic tundra. c. temperate grasslands. d. chaparral. 9. ______ Which type of forest contains the largest diversity of plant species? a. boreal forest b. temperate forest c. tropical rain forest d. chaparral 10. ______ Boreal forests are also called a. evergreen coniferous forests. b. temperate deciduous forests. c. tropical rain forests. d. temperate rain forests. 11. ______ Mountains are ecologically important because they

a. release water into streams. b. contain the majority of the earth's forests. c. reflect solar radiation back into space. d. all of the choices. 12. ______ Which of the following is a type of tropical grassland often dotted with widely scattered clumps of trees? a. temperate grassland b. taiga c. tundra d. savanna 13. ______ Temperate shrublands, or chaparral, are often located near what geographic feature? a. arctic regions b. interior plateaus with high precipitation c. coastal areas that border deserts d. tropical forests 14. ______ Temperate deciduous forests are characterized by having a. moderate average temperatures that change with the season. b. abundant precipitation spread evenly through the year. c. broadleaf trees that lose their leaves and become dormant in winter. d. All choices are true. 15. ______ Which of the following is not a type of natural capital degradation to grassland biomes? a. conversion to tree plantations b. overgrazing by livestock c. conversion to cropland d. oil production in artic tundra

Chapter 6: Aquatic Biodiversity.
1. ______ Which of the following is not an identified form of plankton? a. photoplankton b. ultraplankton c. phytoplankton d. zooplankton 2. ______ An example of nekton is a a. plankton. b. barnacle. c. sea worms. d. sea turtle. 3. ______ Where does photosynthesis occur in aquatic life zones? a. benthic zone b. euphotic zone c. bottom zone d. middle layer 4. ______ Which of the following covers the greatest percentage of the earth's surface? a. ocean b. desert c. tropical forest d. grassland 5. ______ Where are estuaries found? a. in the abyssal zone b. on the continental slope c. where rivers and streams flow into the ocean d. along rocky shores

6. ______

Most oceanic species live in the a. coastal zone. b. open seas.

7. ______

Atlantic City, NJ, is built on a a. mangrove forest. b. barrier island. c. salt marsh. d. rocky shore.

8. ______

How many of the world's coral reefs are protected as reserves or parks? a. 75 b. 300 c. 150 d. 600

9. ______

The three vertical zones of the ocean are the: a. euphotic, bathyal, and abyssal zones. b. benthic, nektic, and euphotic zones. c. benthos, nekton, and plankton zones. d. coastal, reef, and deep ocean zones.

10. ______ Freshwater is defined as having less than ______% dissolved salt concentration by volume. a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 10 11. ______ Which of the following is not likely to create a depression that may later become a lake? a. glaciation

b. runoff c. crustal displacement d. volcanic activity 12. ______ Which of the following lake zones is comparable to the coastal zone of the ocean? a. the profundal zone b. the limnetic zone c. the littoral zone d. the benthic zone 13. ______ A newly formed lake is a. oligotrophic. b. eutrophic. 14. ______ Which of the following is not considered a wetland habitat? a. arctic tundra in summer b. prairie pothole c. swamp d. barrier island dune 15. ______ Which part of a river would have the least sediment load and coldest water? a. source zone b. transition zone c. the flood plain zone d. the wetland zone 16. ______ The best way to protect a stream or river system is to a. manage and direct its flow. b. protect the land around it. c. implement pollution cleanup measures. d. limit recreational use.

17. ______ How much of the inland wetlands of the U.S. have been lost in the lower 48 states? a. 13% b. 33% c. 50% d. 73%

Chapter 7: Community Ecology
1. ______ Which of the following characteristics does an ecologist not use to describe a biological community? a. species diversity b. physical appearance c. elevation d. niche structure 2. ______ Which of the following factors most affects terrestrial species diversity? a. latitude b. longitude c. elevation d. depth 3. ______ According to the theory of island biogeography, a ______ will have the greatest number of species. a. small island, distant from the mainland b. large island, close to the mainland c. small island, close to the mainland d. large island, distant from the mainland 4. ______ Without the presence of sea otters, sea urchins would otherwise overgraze kelp beds, dramatically changing the marine community of which the urchins and otters are a part. For this reason, sea otters are considered a. generalist species. b. keystone species. c. indicator species. d. alien species. 5. ______ Trout are an excellent ______ because they are very sensitive to water quality. a. keystone species

b. generalist species c. indicator species d. alien species 6. ______ Which of the following are indicator species of particular current interest to biologists? a. amphibians b. insects c. birds d. reptiles 7. ______ Skimmers, flamingos, diving duck, and heron can coexist in a coastal wetland as a result of a. exploitation competition. b. symbiosis. c. interference competition. d. resource-partitioning. 8. ______ Parasitism occurs when a. both of these choices. b. one species feeds on part of another organism. c. the parasite benefits and the host is harmed. d. neither of these choices. 9. ______ Which of the following represents a mutualistic species interaction? a. ferns growing on a tree branch b. fleas on a dog c. bees pollinating flowers d. lions eating a dead gazelle 10. ______ Which of the following is a pioneer species? a. redwood tree b. oak tree

c. holly shrub d. lichen 11. ______ As succession proceeds, ______ increases and ______ decreases. a. species diversity, net primary productivity b. net primary productivity, stratification c. plant growth rate, net primary productivity d. stratification, species diversity 12. ______ Facilitation occurs when a. species are unaffected by new arrivals. b. early species inhibit the growth of other species. c. one species makes an area suitable for species with different niche requirements. d. an ecosystem changes because of environmental conditions. 13. ______ The ability of a living system to bounce back after a disturbance that is not too drastic is called a. primary succession. b. inertia. c. constancy. d. resilience. 14. ______ Which of the following is not an example of an aspect of stability in living systems? a. extinction b. inertia c. constancy d. resilience 15. ______ A grassland has a. low resilience. b. low inertia.

c. high species diversity. d. all of the choices.

Chapter 8: Population Ecology
1. ______ Biotic potential and ______ determine ______. a. environmental resistance; intrinsic rate of increase b. intrinsic rate of increase; carrying capacity c. carrying capacity; environmental resistance d. environmental resistance; carrying capacity 2. ______ A J-shaped curve is characteristic of a. zero population growth. b. logistic growth. c. exponential growth. d. a population that has overshot its carrying capacity. 3. ______ With ______ the growth rate decreases, as the population gets larger. a. exponential growth b. logistic growth c. zero population growth d. dynamic growth 4. ______ Three general patterns of population dispersion are a. clumping, gathering, and spreading. b. uniform dispersion, random dispersion, and heterogeneous dispersion. c. biotic potential, intrinsic rate of increase, and carrying capacity. d. clumping, uniform dispersion, and random dispersion. 5. ______ Competition for resources, predation, parasitism, and disease are examples of ______ population controls. a. density-dependent b. density-independent 6. ______ A population ______ follows a period of ______ in a population.

a. scarcity, dieback b. logistic growth, exponential growth c. dieback, overshoot d. increase, scarcity 7. ______ Which of the following is not one of the four types of population fluctuations? a. irruptive b. stable c. regular d. cyclic 8. ______ Which of the following types of reproduction is more beneficial in a potentially-changing environment? a. sexual b. asexual 9. ______ Which of the following species is a K-selected species? a. mouse b. blue whale c. dandelion d. cockroach 10. ______ Generally, a species with a high intrinsic rate of increase will a. be a K-selected species. b. reproduce late in life. c. be a specialist. d. produce many small offspring. 11. ______ Which of the following is an r-selected species? a. red-tailed hawk b. redwood tree c. black bear

d. ragweed 12. ______ Annual plants and most invertebrates have ______ survivorship curves. a. early loss b. late loss c. constant loss d. no loss 13. ______ Population change equals births plus immigration minus which of the following? a. deaths + immigration b. deaths + emigration c. deaths only d. emigration only 14. ______ Which of the following is a density-independent population control? a. fire b. parasitism c. disease d. none are true 15. ______ ______ reproduction is where the offspring are exact copies of a single parent. a. Sexual b. Asexual c. K-selected species d. Stable 16. ______ A ______ shows the projected life expectancy and probability of death for individuals at each age in a survivorship curve (insurance companies often use these to determine policy costs for customers). a. survivorship curve b. life expectancy curve c. life table

d. benefits table

Chapter 9: Applying Population Ecology: The Human Population and Its Impact
1. ______ Which of the following shows the ranking of regions by crude birth rate, from highest to lowest? a. Europe, Africa, Latin America, Asia b. Latin America, Asia, Europe, Africa c. Asia, Africa, Latin America, Europe d. Africa, Latin America, Asia, Europe 2. ______ Human populations grow or decline through the interplay of births, deaths, and a. family planning. b. illness. c. migration. d. level of economic development. 3. ______ Since 1963, the rate of the world's annual population growth rate has a. dropped by almost one-third. b. dropped by almost one-half. c. doubled. d. tripled. 4. ______ Since 1963, the world's population has risen a. 15 percent. b. 35 percent. c. 70 percent. d. 100 percent. 5. ______ The world's most populous country is a. Nigeria. b. India.

c. China. d. Bangladesh. 6. ______ Replacement level fertility is ______ in developing countries than in developed countries. a. higher b. the same as c. lower 7. ______ The average total fertility rate in developing countries is ______ in developed countries. a. one tenth that b. half that c. approximately equal to d. twice that 8. ______ Average total fertility rates are highest in a. Europe. b. Asia. c. Latin America. d. Africa. 9. ______ Factors that affect birth rates and fertility rates include all except which of the following factors? a. cost of raising children b. immigration rate c. infant mortality rate d. availability of private and public pension systems 10. ______ If age structure diagrams were drawn for the following countries, which would have the broadest base? a. Nigeria b. Austria c. Sweden

d. United States 11. ______ Labor shortages and increased per capita health care costs are associated with a. slow population decline. b. rapid population growth. c. slow population growth. d. rapid population decline. 12. ______ As countries become more industrialized, first their ______ rates decline and then their ______ rates decline. a. birth, immigration b. immigration, death c. death, birth d. birth, death 13. ______ The demographic transition model is based on data from a. Western Europe in the 19th century. b. the United States in the 20th century. c. Asia in the 18th century. d. Africa in the 20th century. 14. ______ Family planning programs have increased the proportion of married women of reproductive years using modern contraception to a. 15%. b. 26%. c. 51%. d. 82%. 15. ______ Population experts anticipate that China's population will peak around a. 2010. b. 2040. c. 2070.

d. 2090. 16. ______ Which of the following is cited as a reason why India's family planning program has not been as successful as it could be? a. The low status of women in India b. The preference in India for girl children c. The lack of widespread knowledge of contraceptive methods d. All of the choices 17. ______ At the 1994 United Nations Conference on Population and Development, a major goal was to stabilize the world's population at ______ billion by 2050. a. 6.8 b. 7.8 c. 8.8 d. 9.8

Chapter 10: Sustaining Terrestrial Biodiversity: The Ecosystem Approach
1. ______ Which of the following is not a direct result of human activities? a. changes in number and distribution of species b. climate change c. alteration of natural chemical cycles d. pollution 2. ______ ______ is a value based on the willingness of people to pay to protect natural capital for use by future generations. a. Existence value b. Intrinsic value c. Aesthetic value d. Bequest value 3. ______ Which of the following are the most restricted-use lands? a. National Wilderness Preservation System Areas b. National Forests c. National Wildlife Refuges d. National Resource Lands 4. ______ Which type of forest would probably contain stands of trees that grew following a fire? a. tree farm b. old-growth forest c. second-growth forest d. none of the choices 5. ______ Which of the following describes clearcutting? a. Increases biodiversity b. Increases timber yield per acre

c. Reduces soil erosion d. Increases recreational value 6. ______ Which of the following is a more sustainable method of clearcutting? a. strip cutting b. shelterwood cutting c. seed-tree cutting d. high grading 7. ______ What type of fire is the most ecologically damaging? a. surface b. natural c. crown d. ground 8. ______ What is an alternative to harvesting timber? a. Clear cut forests b. Reduce tree harvesting subsidies c. Certify sustainable lumber d. Make paper from non-tree sources 9. ______ In ______, participating countries act as custodians for protected forest in return for foreign aid or debt relief. a. conservation easements b. a debt-for-nature-swap c. full-cost pricing d. biocultural restoration 10. ______ Which of the following is a major problem of U.S. national parks? a. too much land area to manage b. lack of management plans c. wildfires d. popularity

11. ______ According to conservation biologists, how much of the Earth's land surface should be strictly protected? a. 5% b. 20% c. 25% d. 40% 12. ______ We can best protect a biosphere reserve by surrounding it with ______. a. human settlement b. buffer zones c. resource extraction d. another biosphere reserve 13. ______ Which country has created megareserves to sustain 80% of its biodiversity? a. United States b. Brazil c. Costa Rica d. China 14. ______ Where is most of the protected wilderness in the United States? a. Hawaii b. California c. Florida d. Alaska 15. ______ According to E.O. Wilson, which of the following is not a strategy we should employ to protect ecosystems and species? a. Stop logging of all second-growth forests b. Preserve biological hot spots c. Map the world's biodiversity d. Protect and restore rivers and lakes

16. ______ ______ are managed grasslands or enclosed meadows usually planted with domesticated grasses or other forage, and are sustainable if managed properly. a. Rangelands b. Pastures c. Cropland d. Taiga 17. ______ Which of the following is not a problem associated with overgrazing of grasslands? a. Increased soil erosion b. Increased soil compaction (holds less water) c. Increases net primary productivity d. Increases invading species that can't be eaten by grazers 18. ______ One solution to overgrazing is to confine cattle to one area for a short time and then move them to another before overgrazing take place. This method is called a. rotational grazing. b. no-till agriculture. c. rangeland control. d. riparian zones.

Chapter 11: Sustaining Biodiversity: The Species Approach
1. ______ Which of the following did not contribute to the extinction of the passenger pigeon? a. uncontrolled hunting b. DDT-induced weakening of egg shells c. habitat loss d. a natural instinct for flocking 2. ______ Which term describes the situation where a species no longer exists in a given area, but still occurs in other areas? a. biological extinction b. ecological extinction c. local extinction d. background extinction 3. ______ What is the difference between an endangered species and a threatened species? a. A threatened species is becoming endangered specifically because of human activities. b. A threatened species was previously labeled endangered but has increased its numbers. c. There is no difference. The two terms are interchangeable. d. A threatened species is still abundant now but likely to become endangered in the near future. 4. ______ Why should we preserve wild species? a. All of the choices. b. They provide important economic and ecological services. c. Wild species allow us to learn how nature works and use that information for genetic research. d. They provide recreational pleasure.

5. ______

Which of the following represents the greatest threat to wild species populations? a. habitat loss b. hunting for sport c. genetic engineering d. collecting for zoos and botanical gardens

6. ______

Which of the following is a basic cause of deleting and premature extinction of species? a. tropical deforestation b. habitat loss c. population growth d. nonnative species

7. ______

The kudzu vine is an example of ______. a. an indicator species b. an endemic species c. a keystone species d. a nonnative species

8. ______

______ is/are a common source of the introduction of nonnative species. a. Ballast water b. Pet shops c. Poaching d. All of the choices

9. ______

The ______ has been almost eliminated because ranchers have poisoned them. a. coyote b. prairie dog c. kudzu vine d. feral boar

10. ______ Which of the following restricts the international trade in endangered species? a. The Lacey Act b. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) c. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) d. The Endangered Species Act (ESA) 11. ______ What does the Endangered Species Act do? a. All of the choices b. Makes it illegal to sell or buy any product made from an endangered or threatened species c. Requires the protection of critical habitat for endangered species d. Bases decisions about a species' status on biological criteria, not economic criteria 12. ______ Which of the following was not a recommendation by the National Academy of Sciences to make the Endangered Species Act more effective? a. Increase funding for the ESA b. Develop recovery plans more quickly c. Eliminate habitat conservation subsidies to private landowners d. Create a core emergency habitat when species are first listed 13. ______ The world's botanical gardens and arboreta contain what percentage of the world's rare and threatened plant species? a. 3% b. 10% c. 33% d. 50% 14. ______ ______ farms are protecting species of this organism. a. Passenger pigeon b. Lion c. Butterfly

d. Crocodile 15. ______ What is the definition of reconciliation ecology? a. Establishing and maintaining new habitats for species diversity in places where people live and work b. Paying a fee for the destruction of habitat c. Replacing destroyed habitat, such as wetlands, with newly created habitat d. Establishing remote "reservations" for species diversity

Chapter 12: Sustaining Aquatic Biodiversity
1. ______ Octopuses are a source of a. antibiotics. b. adhesives. c. anticancer chemicals. d. hypertension medications. 2. ______ ______ destroys bottom habitats. a. Trawling b. Gill net fishing c. Bycatch d. Overfishing 3. ______ When overfishing takes place, which of the following happens first? a. commercial extinction b. local extinction c. biological extinction d. population rebound 4. ______ As large fish become less available and the fishing industry turns to fishing smaller fish, what will happen? a. Food webs will begin to unravel as the smaller fish, which are food for larger fish, become unavailable. b. Jellyfish and barnacles will become extinct. c. Food webs will begin to unravel. d. Bycatch will become less of a problem. 5. ______ Most fish extinctions in the U.S. are caused by a. sport fishing. b. exotic species. c. water pollution.

d. global warming. 6. ______ One reason that protecting marine biodiversity is difficult is that a. humans are aware of the damage being done but are helpless to stop it. b. the seas are an inexhaustible resource. c. coastal areas are being protected. d. most of the oceans lie outside of the legal jurisdiction of any one country. 7. ______ ______ are required by offshore shrimp trawlers. a. TEDs b. Drift nets c. Longlines d. Purse seines 8. ______ Which of the following cetaceans is classified as a baleen whale? a. sperm whale b. humpback whale c. killer whale d. beluga whale 9. ______ Which of the following countries is working to reverse the IWC ban on commercial whaling? a. The United States b. China c. Japan d. Australia 10. ______ Whale harvesting is a classic example of a. sustainable resource use. b. aquaculture. c. bycatch.

d. the tragedy of the commons. 11. ______ What is a marine protected area? a. An area of ocean protected from some or all human activities b. The area offshore of a country that is considered sovereign to that country c. An exclusive economic zone d. An endangered coastal region 12. ______ How far offshore does a country's exclusive economic zone extend? a. 12 miles b. 60 miles c. 200 miles d. 100 miles 13. ______ Fishery biologists now rely on ______ to project populations of commercial fish. a. optimum sustained yield b. maximum sustained yield c. multispecies management d. large marine system management 14. ______ In the U.S., a federal permit is required to dredge or fill wetlands occupying more than ______ acres. a. 1 b. 3 c. 10 d. 25 15. ______ Why are zebra mussels a problem in the Great Lakes? a. They secrete a neurotoxin that kills fish and sickens humans. b. Their unchecked growth clogs pipes. c. Their excrement causes eutrophication in the lakes.

d. They prevent the growth of native water plants. 16. ______ Which of the following strategies has not been tried to restore wild salmon populations? a. Building more dams to control water flow and release it steadily b. Releasing extra water to wash juvenile salmon downstream c. Transporting salmon by truck d. Add hatchery salmon to under-populated streams

Chapter 13: Food, Soil Conservation, and Pest Management
1. ______ Which of the following is not one of the three primary crops that feed the world? a. soybeans b. rice c. corn d. wheat 2. ______ Which of the following supplies most of the world's food? a. rangelands b. croplands c. ocean fisheries d. freshwater fisheries 3. ______ Which of the following describes the first green revolution? a. Discovery that wild plants could be cultivated as a dependable food supply b. Export of dwarf varieties of rice and wheat to tropical developing countries c. Using high inputs or pesticides and fertilizers to increase crop yields in developing countries d. Introduction of new food plants to developed countries 4. ______ Of the following, which is the main agent of erosion? a. climate change b. wind c. agriculture d. flowing water 5. ______ One way to reduce soil desertification is to a. control rainfall patterns. b. reduce overgrazing.

c. remove trees that require large amounts of water. d. move from polyculture to monoculture. 6. ______ Salinization of soil can be a by-product of a. composting. b. contour farming. c. irrigation. d. crop rotation. 7. ______ Compared to conventional-tillage farming, conservation tillage a. reduces soil erosion. b. requires more fuel. c. releases more carbon dioxide to the air. d. reduces crop yields. 8. ______ Green manure is a. inorganic fertilizer. b. organic matter such as leaves, food wastes, and paper that are broken down by microorganisms. c. animal manure that is fresh. d. freshly cut or growing green vegetation plowed into the soil. 9. ______ A person who receives an adequate number of calories but whose diet is deficient in protein and other essential nutrients suffers from a. undernutrition. b. malnutrition. c. overnutrition. d. macronutrition. 10. ______ Which of the following is not a way in which food production impacts the environment? a. It increases salt buildup in soils. b. It increases soil erosion.

c. It decreases biodiversity. d. It increases surface water quality. 11. ______ Which of the following is the most controversial method of increasing food production? a. Crossbreeding b. Genetic engineering c. Putting more land into production d. Introducing new foods 12. ______ Which of the following is not a method of maintaining the availability of fish and seafood? a. Fish ranching b. Harvesting at sustainable yield c. Increasing the use of drift nets d. Decreasing allowable bycatch levels 13. ______ Environmentalists believe that agricultural subsidies should be used for a. elimination of agricultural pests and predators. b. draining wetlands to increase productive land. c. keeping water prices artificially low so farmers can irrigate more land. d. protecting soil quality. 14. ______ ______ pesticides are toxic to many species. a. Persistent b. Selective c. Broad-spectrum d. Natural 15. ______ Which of the following is not considered to be a problem with pesticides? a. They are especially damaging to genetically-engineered crops. b. They kill beneficial insects. c. They threaten human health.

d. They are more likely to end up in our air, water, and soil than on the pests. 16. ______ Another name for organic farming is a. high-input agriculture. b. low-input agriculture. c. high-yield agriculture. d. low-yield agriculture. 17. ______ One approach to phasing in more sustainable agriculture is to a. establish more monoculture farms. b. fund research on genetic crop engineering. c. increase subsidies for it. d. none of the choices. 18. ______ Which of the following is not true of livestock production? a. Uses large amounts of water. b. Feedlots require the use of antibiotics. c. Cattle produce large amounts of methane, a greenhouse gas. d. Globally, nearly all livestock waste is returned to the soil as nutrient rich fertilizer. 19. ______ According to the FAO, as much as ______ of the food produced worldwide is lost through spoilage, inefficient processing and preparation, and plate waste. a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 70%

Chapter 14: Water
1. ______ Much of the world's fresh water is unavailable to us because a. it is in deep and inaccessible aquifers. b. it exists in the form of water vapor. c. it is mixed with saltwater. d. it is locked up in ice caps or glaciers. 2. ______ Which country has more fresh water, Canada or China? a. Canada b. China 3. ______ About 2/3 of the world's annual runoff is lost by ______ and is not available for human use. a. evaporation b. percolation into the ground c. pollution of the water supply d. seasonal floods 4. ______ Most water is withdrawn from surface waters and aquifers for a. drinking water. b. industrial manufacturing. c. irrigation of crops. d. cooling power plants. 5. ______ Porous, water-saturated layers of sand, gravel, or bedrock through which groundwater flows make up a(n) a. aquifer. b. watershed. c. zone of aeration. d. eutrophic zone.

6. ______

One trend in managing water resources is a. privatization. b. government seizure of privately-held water supplies. c. public utility ownership. d. none of the choices.

7. ______

Diversion of water from the Aral Sea has led to a. decrease in its salinity. b. increased crop yields in the neighboring areas. c. extinction of native fish species. d. more moderate temperature and increased rain.

8. ______

Which of the following is not a stated means of preventing groundwater depletion? a. Reduce stream flow levels b. Ban new wells c. Tax water pumped from wells near surface water d. Switch to less water-intensive crops

9. ______

Which is the most efficient irrigation technique? a. gravity flow through ditches b. center pivot sprinkler systems c. surge valves d. drip irrigation systems

10. ______ ______ is reclaimed water from sinks, tubs, and washers. a. Sludge b. Brown water c. Gray water d. Treated water 11. ______ The removal of vegetation, especially on hillsides increases the risk of a. salinization.

b. groundwater overdrafts. c. saltwater intrusion. d. flooding. 12. ______ From an environmental viewpoint, the best approach to reducing flood risks is a. floodplain management. b. channelization. c. artificial levees. d. flood control dams. 13. ______ Which of the following is not one of the causes of water scarcity? a. dry climate b. erosion c. desiccation d. drought 14. ______ Which of the following is not a stated concern about China's Three Gorges Dam? a. The reservoir will force the displacement of over a million people. b. The reservoir will flood important archaeological sites. c. The dam may not be able to withstand the impact of an earthquake. d. The dam will increase China's dependence on coal. 15. ______ Which of the following is not a main factor in water scarcity? a. dry climate b. increased damming of rivers and building of reservoirs c. drought d. too many people using reliable water source 16. ______ Which of the following is a strategy to use water more sustainably? a. Build more dams and levees b. Regulate withdrawals to prevent depletion of renewable aquifers

c. Slow the rate of ozone depletion d. Increase efficiency and productivity in livestock production

Chapter 15: Geology and Nonrenewable Mineral Resources
1. ______ The Earth's innermost zone is the ______, surrounded by the ______. a. core, mantle b. mantle, core c. core, crust d. mantle, crust 2. ______ At a ______, plates slide past one another as they move in opposite directions. a. divergent plate boundary b. convergent plate boundary c. transform fault d. subduction zone 3. ______ A trench normally forms at a a. transform fault. b. convergent plate boundary. c. divergent plate boundary. d. mantle plume. 4. ______ Which of the following causes physical or mechanical weathering? a. frost wedging b. lichen c. roots d. carbon dioxide 5. ______ Which kind of rock is formed by cooling lava? a. igneous b. metamorphic c. sedimentary d. shale

6. ______

Which of the following classifications of mineral resources describes mineral deposits known to exist in a certain place, quantity, and quality? a. identified resources b. reserves c. undiscovered resources d. extractable reserves

7. ______

Which of the following is not considered to be a mineral resource? a. coal b. sand c. barium d. aluminum

8. ______

In the United States, about 90% of the mineral resources are extracted by a. surface mining. b. subsurface mining. c. mountaintop removal. d. open-pit mining.

9. ______

Compared to surface mining, subsurface mining a. produces more waste material. b. removes more resources from the ground. c. is safer and less expensive. d. disturbs less land surface.

10. ______ Which of the following is not a result of extracting, processing, and using mineral resources? a. large amounts of solid waste b. soil buildup c. increase in water pollution d. disturbance of land

11. ______ The ______ depletion time assumes no recycling or reuse of a mineral and no increase in reserves. a. shortest b. longest 12. ______ One of the concerns about nanotechnology is that a. the technology is unlikely to produce anything particularly useful. b. smaller particles are more reactive and potentially more toxic. c. the technology promises to be much more expensive than conventional methods. d. it can never replace mineral resources we currently rely upon. 13. ______ Which of the following is a possible environmental effect of seabed mining? a. It can affect the salinity of the water in the area being mined. b. It may change the ocean temperature. c. It can stir up ocean sediments. d. It will affect migrating patterns of whales. 14. ______ Some analysts believe that even if supplies of key minerals become too expensive or scarce from unsustainable use, human ingenuity will find a. new technologies for mining and extraction. b. better methods of recycling minerals. c. substitutes for scarce minerals. d. new deposits of scarce minerals.

Chapter 16: Nonrenewable Energy
1. ______ About what percentage of the world's commercial nonrenewable energy sources are from fossil fuels? a. 29% b. 50% c. 62% d. 78% 2. ______ The United States uses less ______ energy than the world average. a. coal b. biomass c. natural gas d. nuclear power 3. ______ Which of the following energy sources is the United States not expected to increase its dependence on in the next 15 years? a. natural gas b. oil c. coal d. solar 4. ______ Which of the following questions should we not ask when deciding which energy alternative to use? a. How much of the energy resource is likely to be available in the near future and the long term? b. What government research and development subsidies will be available? c. How vulnerable is the resource to terrorism? d. How much will it cost the consumer to purchase this energy resource? 5. ______ At current consumption rates, Saudi Arabia, with the world's largest crude oil reserves, could supply world oil needs for ______ years. a. 20

b. 50 c. 75 d. 10 6. ______ The Arctic National Wildlife Refuge a. contains enough oil to supply U.S. needs for 5-10 years. b. would bring more oil-related jobs to Alaska. c. is not likely to have an impact on wildlife, most of which do not live in the area. d. is an inexpensive way to get more oil for the U.S. 7. ______ Natural gas deposits occur in the greatest amount a. above reservoirs of crude oil. b. in methane hydrate ice crystals. 8. ______ One of the disadvantages of natural gas is a. it has a relatively low net energy yield. b. it is very difficult to transport from one country to another. c. it produces more air pollution than other fossil fuels. d. supplies are very low. 9. ______ Which of the following is not a pollutant released by the burning of coal? a. arsenic b. mercury c. iron d. sulfur dioxide 10. ______ Which is the world's most abundant fossil fuel? a. coal b. oil c. natural gas d. shale oil

11. ______ An advantage of synthetic natural gas and other synfuels is: a. No need for coal mining. b. Doesn't require a lot of water for extraction. c. Lower air pollution than coal. d. Lower carbon dioxide emissions. 12. ______ A disadvantage of nuclear power is a. low net energy yield. b. high risk of accidents. c. severe disruption of land. d. high level of water pollution. 13. ______ Which of the following is not a proposed method of storing or disposing of nuclear wastes? a. Bury it under the Antarctic ice sheet b. Bury it into descending subduction zones in the deep ocean c. Shoot it into space or into the sun using rocket ships d. Burn it at very high temperatures in specialized reactors 14. ______ Breeder reactors a. generate more nuclear fuel than they consume. b. convert plutonium into uranium. c. have a higher safety record than conventional nuclear power plants. d. could deplete our reserves of uranium very quickly. 15. ______ If nuclear fusion reactors could be built successfully, which of the following would not be one of their advantages? a. little risk from terrorism b. no carbon dioxide emissions c. low cost of operations d. lower levels of radioactive waste

Chapter 17: Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy
1. ______ Which of the following is a by-product of burning hydrogen, taken from water, as a fuel? a. water vapor b. carbon dioxide c. methane d. deuterium 2. ______ Which of the following would not be a result of reducing energy waste? a. Prolonging fossil fuel supplies b. Keeping more money in local economies c. Higher net energy d. Prolonging development of technological advancements in renewable energy 3. ______ Which of the following space heating energy systems has the highest net energy ratio over its estimated lifetime? a. a passive solar system b. an oil system c. a natural gas system d. electric resistance heating 4. ______ ______ is the name for a system that produces two useful forms of energy from one fuel source. a. Regeneration b. Cogeneration c. Degeneration d. Post-generation 5. ______ Which of the following is not a method for saving significant amounts of energy? a. Use cogeneration

b. Replace electric motors with adjustable-speed drive motors c. Lower CAFE standards d. Replace incandescent bulbs with fluorescent bulbs 6. ______ A fuel cell combines ______ and ______ to produce electricity. a. carbon dioxide, hydrogen b. a battery, gasoline c. water, ethanol d. hydrogen, oxygen 7. ______ A(n) ______ absorbs and stores heat from the sun directly within a structure. a. active solar heating system b. passive solar heating system 8. ______ Which of the following is a disadvantage of using solar energy to generate high-temperature heat and electricity? a. may disturb desert areas b. high carbon dioxide emissions c. low net energy d. takes 10-20 years to construct 9. ______ What form of energy has high cost of construction, high environmental impact, and the potential to force the displacement of people and wildlife? a. nuclear power b. wind power c. solar power d. hydropower 10. ______ Which form of power has more advantages and fewer disadvantages than any other energy source? a. wind power b. solar power c. fuel cell power

d. hydroelectric power 11. ______ What is the world's fastest growing source of energy? a. solar power b. wind power c. hydroelectric power d. fuel cell power 12. ______ Which of the following is not a possible disadvantage of using biomass as a form of energy? a. possibly nonrenewable b. soil erosion c. low potential supply d. low photosynthetic efficiency 13. ______ ______ is the most energy-efficient, cost-effective, and environmentally clean way to heat or cool a building. a. Passive solar b. Geothermal exchange c. Photovoltaic power d. Hydrogen power 14. ______ ______ is local, inexpensive, and modular. a. Solar power b. Hydrogen fuel cell power c. Wind power d. Decentralized micropower

Chapter 18: Environmental Hazards and Human Health
1. ______ Which of the following is a cultural hazard? a. tornado b. poisonous snake c. driving d. mercury 2. ______ Which of the following is responsible for the greatest number of deaths per year worldwide? a. tuberculosis b. AIDS c. pneumonia and flu d. malaria 3. ______ Viruses cause a. malaria. b. tuberculosis. c. AIDS. d. cholera. 4. ______ 5. ______ 4 Which of the following viruses is the biggest killer? a. HIV b. influenza c. hepatitis B d. ebola 6. ______ A chemical is considered a teratogen if it a. causes birth defects. b. causes cancer. c. can metastasize. d. increases the frequency of DNA mutations.

7. ______

Which of the following is not a hormone disrupter? a. DDT b. PCBs c. herbicide d. mercury

8. ______

A water-soluble toxic chemical can accumulate in the body ______ readily than a fat-soluble toxin. a. more b. less

9. ______

If a toxic chemical gets into an ecosystem, it may be found at higher concentration in tertiary consumers than in primary consumers as a result of a. biomagnification. b. solubility. c. bioaccumulation. d. synergistic effects.

10. ______ According to the EPA, children have ______ times the exposure risk of adults to cancer-causing chemicals. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 100 11. ______ What one factor has the greatest adverse effect on the average lifespan of people in the United States? a. smoking b. poverty c. drug abuse d. being born male

12. ______ A(n) ______ is a large-scale outbreak of an infectious disease in an area or country. a. epidemic b. pandemic c. bioaccumulation d. pathogenic 13. ______ The new interdisciplinary field of ______ is devoted to tracking down the connections between wildlife and humans, and looks for ways to slow or prevent the spread diseases such as avian flu. a. genetic engineering b. gene therapy c. ecological or conservation medicine d. holistic medicine 14. ______ ______ is a widely used chemical building block in certain plastics used in a variety of products including water bottles, baby bottles, food storage containers, and dental fillings that acts as an estrogen mimic that may cause adverse effects in humans. a. Bisphenol-A (BPA) b. DDT c. Dioxin d. Lead 15. ______ ______ is the science that examines the effects of harmful chemicals on humans, wildlife, and ecosystems. a. Risk assessment b. Toxicology c. Ecological or conservation medicine d. Ecology 16. ______ Exposure to low levels of air pollution from an industrial site would be an example of what type of risk? a. chronic b. exposure

c. catastrophic d. minimal

Chapter 19: Air Pollution
1. ______ The temperature changes that occur from one layer of the atmosphere to another are caused by differences in a. atmospheric pressure. b. absorption of incoming solar energy. c. density of the air. d. gravitational pull. 2. ______ Ninety-nine percent of the volume of air in the troposphere consists of oxygen and a. nitrogen. b. argon. c. carbon dioxide. d. water vapor. 3. ______ The composition of the stratosphere is similar to that of the troposphere except there is a a. higher concentration of water vapor. b. lower concentration of nitrogen. c. higher concentration of ozone. d. higher concentration of CO2. 4. ______ Soot is an example of a a. primary pollutant. b. secondary pollutant. 5. ______ Which chemical do most scientists think should be added to the EPA lists of six criteria air pollutants? a. mercury b. carbon dioxide c. radon d. formaldehyde

6. ______

What compound gives photochemical smog its brownish yellow color? a. sulfur dioxide b. argon c. carbon dioxide d. nitrogen dioxide

7. ______

Industrial smog contains large amounts of a. ozone. b. nitrous oxides. c. sulfur dioxide. d. PANs.

8. ______

Which of the following countries currently has the worst problem with industrial smog? a. The United States b. China c. England d. Canada

9. ______

A(n) ______ can cause air pollutants at ground level to rise to harmful levels. a. offshore wind b. onshore wind c. temperature inversion d. rain shadow

10. ______ What is one problem associated with acid precipitation? a. It leads to an accumulation of calcium in the soil. b. It can promote the growth of mosses that kill trees. c. It can remove cadmium from the soil. d. On first exposure to the acid, plant growth is stunted.

11. ______ Which of the following is a way that acid deposition affects human health? a. It increases the risk of skin cancer. b. It contributes to respiratory problems. c. It blocks the actions of normal endocrine hormones. d. It damages the nervous system. 12. ______ The single best way to reduce acid deposition would be to a. reduce the use of coal. b. decrease emissions from automobiles. c. prohibit the construction of nuclear power plants. d. add limestone or lime to lakes and soil. 13. ______ Which of the following is not considered one of the four most dangerous indoor air pollutants by the EPA? a. formaldehyde b. cigarette smoke c. radon d. carbon monoxide 14. ______ In the U.S., the estimated number of deaths related to indoor and outdoor air pollutants is at least a. 60,000. b. 100,000. c. 150,000. d. 350,000. 15. ______ The Clean Air Acts of the United States required a. coal-burning power plants to trade emissions of sulfur dioxide. b. the use of unleaded gasoline in cities with high ozone levels. c. the EPA to set national ambient air quality standards for air pollutants. d. the abatement of radon in all public buildings.

Chapter 20: Climate Change and Ozone Depletion
1. ______ Scientists study climate change using all but which one of the following techniques? a. Analyzing ice cores from ancient glaciers b. Dissecting the leaves of tropical rain forest trees c. Studying historical records d. Analyzing pollen from the bottoms of lakes 2. ______ Global warming occurs in the ______ and ozone depletion occurs in the ______. a. troposphere, stratosphere b. stratosphere, lithosphere c. troposphere, lithosphere d. stratosphere, troposphere 3. ______ If the loop of water constantly moving through the oceans as a result of temperature differences were to slow or stop, what would happen? a. Europe would become much hotter. b. Europe would become much colder. c. Northeastern North America would become much hotter. d. North America would suffer floods and severe storms. 4. ______ Global warming could be accelerated if warming causes increased release of ______ from permafrost and wetlands. a. water vapor b. freon c. radon d. methane 5. ______ Rising sea levels would a. increase coastal property values. b. expose low-lying islands.

c. accelerate coastal erosion. d. cleanse coastal aquifers. 6. ______ The single most important step we can take to slow global warming is to decrease ______ emissions. a. carbon dioxide b. nitrous oxide c. methane d. sulfur dioxide 7. ______ The Kyoto treaty would require the United States to a. conduct emissions trading. b. dismantle its fossil fuel-based transportation system. c. assist developing countries through technology transfer. d. cut CO2 emissions to pre-1990 levels. 8. ______ The problem of climate change is a. something that individuals cannot help address. b. not evenly spread geographically. c. something the Kyoto Protocol can solve within a few years. d. stoppable with the right technology. 9. ______ President Bush objects to the Kyoto Protocol because a. it is too complicated. b. it does not require sufficient emissions reductions in large, developing countries. c. it is beneficial only to small, developed nations. d. it fails to set specific milestones. 10. ______ CFCs break down in the stratosphere under the influence of a. UV radiation. b. fluorine atoms. c. low air pressure.

d. higher levels of oxygen. 11. ______ Seasonal ozone loss appears to be greatest over a. the Arctic. b. the South Pacific. c. Africa. d. Antarctica. 12. ______ Which kind of skin cancer is most dangerous? a. melanoma b. squamous cell carcinoma c. basal cell carcinoma

Chapter 21: Water Pollution
1. ______ In the United States, the majority of water pollution of streams and lakes is from a. point pollution from sewage treatment plants. b. point pollution from abandoned mines. c. point pollution from factories. d. nonpoint pollution from agriculture. 2. ______ Which of the following is not listed as a major category of water pollution? a. plastics b. erosion c. acid deposition d. heat 3. ______ The oxygen sag curve is caused by a. inorganic wastes. b. oxygen-demanding wastes. c. sediments. d. plant nutrients. 4. ______ Cultural eutrophication of lakes is most often caused by input of a. nitrates and phosphates. b. selenium. c. PCBs. d. sediment. 5. ______ Groundwater cannot cleanse itself of degradable wastes quickly because of all but which one of the following reasons? a. It has a high concentration of dissolved oxygen. b. It flows slowly. c. It has small populations of decomposing bacteria.

d. Cold temperatures slow down decomposing chemical reactions. 6. ______ Which of the following is a major groundwater pollutant in parts of India and Bangladesh? a. fluoride b. arsenic c. selenium d. PCBs 7. ______ By weight, the bulk of the phosphates in Chesapeake Bay come from a. air pollution. b. shellfish farms. c. pesticide runoff. d. sewage treatment plants. 8. ______ Secondary sewage treatment a. removes about 60% of suspended solids from sewage. b. does not remove any phosphorous or nitrogen from sewage. c. utilizes aerobic bacteria. d. is a mechanical process. 9. ______ About ______% of sewage sludge is dumped in conventional landfills. a. 35 b. 45 c. 55 d. 65 10. ______ Using ______ would reduce the amount of sewage output from homes and businesses. a. tertiary sewage treatment b. composting toilet systems c. sludge digesters d. anaerobic digesters

11. ______ Scientists call for a ban on ______ in all new plumbing. a. copper b. selenium c. PVC d. lead 12. ______ ______ is/are bacteria that live in the colons and digestive tracts of humans and other animals and are often present in unsafe amounts in freshwaters. a. Viruses b. Shistosomiasis c. Fecal coliform d. Cholera

Chapter 22: Solid and Hazardous Waste
1. ______ Which country is the world's biggest per capita producer of solid waste? a. Germany b. The U.S. c. Australia d. Mexico 2. ______ The amount of solid waste generated per person in the U.S. is a. increasing. b. declining. c. the same as it has been since 1990. 3. ______ What makes up the largest share of solid waste in the U.S.? a. municipal solid waste b. agricultural solid waste c. mining and oil and gas production waste d. sewage sludge 4. ______ Paper makes up the largest share of waste in municipal landfills. What has the second largest share? a. food waste b. yard waste c. electronics d. plastics 5. ______ What component of municipal landfills is the fastest-growing solid waste problem in the U.S., and also contains toxic chemicals? a. disposable diapers b. motor oil c. electronics d. PCBs

6. ______

How much junk mail does the average American receive per year? a. 350 pieces b. 514 pieces c. 660 pieces d. 1320 pieces

7. ______

Which of the following is a high-waste approach to dealing with solid waste? a. Reuse products b. Consume less c. Incinerate waste d. Reduce packaging

8. ______

Which of the following is not one of the six principles for reducing solid waste? a. Consume less b. Treat waste to reduce toxicity c. Redesign manufacturing to reduce waste and pollution d. Design products to last longer

9. ______

The United States recycles about ______ of its plastics. a. 3% b. 10% c. 15% d. 30%

10. ______ Where are you most likely to find an open dump? a. in developed countries b. in developing countries 11. ______ Which of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste? a. toxic

b. ignitable c. corrosive d. radioactive 12. ______ The Superfund is paid for by a. taxpayers. b. polluters. c. both taxpayers and polluters. 13. ______ The food most likely to contain mercury is a. fish. b. beef. c. poultry. d. produce. 14. ______ What is a POP? a. a persistent organic pollutant b. a partially organic plastic c. plastic or paper d. a persistent organic pesticide 15. ______ There are three priorities in integrated hazardous waste management: Produce less waste, convert to less hazardous waste, and ______. a. put in perpetual storage b. use in chemical weapons c. sell to other countries d. reuse in industrial processes

Chapter 23: Sustainable Cities
1. ______ ______ is an example of an ecocity. a. Sydney, Australia b. Curitiba, Brazil c. Copenhagen, Denmark d. Provo, Utah 2. ______ The world's 18 megacities have populations of more than ______ million people. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 3. ______ Which of the following is a push factor? a. low-priced food b. employment opportunities c. entertainment opportunities d. famine 4. ______ Between 1850 and 2006, the percentage of people living in urban areas increased from 2% to ______. a. 16% b. 26% c. 34% d. 49% 5. ______ In the U.S., ______ is an example of a megalopolis. a. Pittsburgh b. Bowash c. Chicago

d. Los Angeles 6. ______ Cities are generally ______ than suburbs and nearby rural areas. a. warmer b. dryer c. wealthier d. cooler 7. ______ Compared to highway travel, mass transit systems a. produce more air pollution. b. are more energy-efficient. c. cause more injuries and deaths. d. require more land area. 8. ______ Which of the following is not a tool of smart growth? a. Greenbelts b. High-density housing clusters c. Buying open space d. Increasing funds for highway construction 9. ______ Which country has taken the strongest stand against urban sprawl? a. China b. The United States c. Denmark d. Japan 10. ______ Which of the following is not a cause of urban sprawl? a. higher price of gasoline b. affordable land c. increased prosperity d. poor urban planning 11. ______ Which of the following is a disadvantage of urbanization?

a. Urban residents consume a disproportionate amount of the world's resources. b. Urban residents have shorter life spans than rural people do. c. The high population of urban centers is more stressful on wildlife habitats than low population rural living. d. Urban residents have higher infant mortality. 12. ______ Which is a cause of urban sprawl? a. motor vehicles b. air travel c. rural poverty d. all of the choices 13. ______ ______ is/are a way of encouraging environmentally sustainable development. a. All of the choices b. Purchasing new open space c. Greenbelt laws d. Tax breaks for cleaning up brownfields 14. ______ According to the ecocity concept, cities should be ______ oriented, not ______ oriented. a. retail, industrial b. people, car c. car, people d. nature, human

Chapter 24: Economics, Environment, and Sustainability
1. ______ In a ______, price is determined solely by supply and demand. a. capitalist economic system b. pure free-market economic system 2. ______ An economic system is a. the types of resources used to produce goods and services. b. the products produced with natural, human, and physical resources. c. wealth used to sustain a business or produce more wealth. d. the social institution through which goods and services are produced, distributed, and consumed. 3. ______ Ecological economists view ______ systems as subsets of ______ systems. a. environmental, economic b. economic, environmental 4. ______ Which of the following is not one of the strategies ecological economists think will help make the shift to an eco-economy? a. Monitor economic and environmental health with indicators b. Phase out subsidies and tax breaks to environmentally harmful industries c. Raise taxes on income and wealth d. Use eco-labeling 5. ______ In the United States, the GPI (genuine progress indicator) per person has steadily ______ since 1975. a. increased b. declined c. remained the same 6. ______ Which of the following is an external cost of car ownership?

a. the price of the gasoline needed to run the car b. the price of car repairs c. the markup paid to the car dealership d. the cost of adding pollutants to the air by driving 7. ______ With full-cost pricing, the cost of most goods and services would a. rise. b. decline. 8. ______ The goal of full-cost pricing is to have people and businesses pay a. the costs of harm they do to others and the environment. b. prices high enough to discourage further environmental abuses. c. only costs directly related to the production of goods and services. d. the minimum price possible for goods and services. 9. ______ A disadvantage of tradable environmental permits is a. they permit prices to be determined by market transactions. b. they are difficult to administer. c. self-monitoring promotes cheating. d. they are inflexible. 10. ______ According to the ______ theory, a growing economy helps the poor by creating jobs, enabling more wealth to reach workers, and providing greater tax revenues that can be used to help the poor. a. wealth gap b. sustainable economic c. trickle-down d. ecological economics 11. ______ Which of the following is not a method for creating more environmentally sustainable economies? a. Reward environmentally-friendly behavior b. Subsidize the use of nonrenewable resources

c. Use full-cost pricing d. Slow population growth 12. ______ Which of the following is an example of an ecologically friendly or "green" career? a. coal mining b. medical technology c. fuel cell technology d. oil and gas exploration

Chapter 25: Politics, Environment, and Sustainability
1. ______ Which of the following does not represent a shift in the type and focus of the environmental problems we face? a. Shift from global to regional concerns b. Increasing concern about the effects of humans on biodiversity c. Growing concern over climate change d. Relying more on the international community to deal with problems 2. ______ Which of the following is not an NGO? a. a university b. a labor union c. a chemical plant d. Sierra Club 3. ______ In evaluating environmental policy, which of the following principles should lawmakers not be guided by? a. The polluter pays principle b. The pollution clean-up principle c. The precautionary principle d. The reversibility principle 4. ______ ______ organizations use adaptive management strategies and information flows rapidly to all members. a. Network b. Hierarchical c. Democratic d. Grassroots 5. ______ The president is part of the ______ branch of government. a. legislative b. executive c. judicial

d. defense 6. ______ Policy is composed of ______, regulations, and funding. a. decrees b. laws c. ideas d. bills 7. ______ 8. ______ 9. ______ Election finance reform would benefit environmentalists. True False

10. ______ Biodiversity protection is currently in the ______ stage of the policy life cycle. a. recognition b. formulation c. implementation d. control 11. ______ The anti-environmental movement in America a. is a coalition of state and local governments. b. is funded entirely by contributions from citizens. c. seeks to weaken environmental laws and regulations. d. generally represent the views of most Americans. 12. ______ Without grassroots citizen groups that work to improve environmental quality a. world economies would be less efficient. b. governments would not do anything about environmental issues. c. HIV/AIDS would be a more severe problem globally. d. environmental laws would have been enacted anyway.

13. ______ Polls show that less than ______ of the U.S. public view the environment as one of the nation's most pressing problems. a. 10% b. 20% c. 50% d. 75% 14. ______ Which of the following is not a problem with international environmental treaties? a. Poorly monitored and enforced b. Lack of funding c. Treaties are not integrated d. Do not require full consensus

Chapter 26: Environmental Worldviews, Ethics, and Sustainability
1. ______ Which of the following aspects of Biosphere 2 was successful? a. Maintaining adequate oxygen b. Establishing carbon cycles c. Most of the animal species survived d. Wastewater was effectively recycled 2. ______ Because of their differing ______, people can look at the same data and arrive at different conclusions. a. approaches b. worldviews c. systems d. methods 3. ______ Which of the following views are consistent with a planetary management worldview? a. Nature exists for all of the Earth's species. b. The Earth's limited resources should be used sustainably. c. We are the planet's most important species. d. We must learn to cooperate with nature. 4. ______ Which of the following represents primarily intrinsic value? a. a wildflower blooming in a forest b. a road though a National Park c. a pound of boneless chicken d. a gold mine 5. ______ An anthropocentric worldview ascribes ______ value to humans and ______ value to the rest of nature. a. instrumental, inherent b. utilitarian, instrumental

c. intrinsic, instrumental d. intrinsic, inherent 6. ______ Most eco-feminists espouse a ______ environmental worldview. a. life-centered b. human-centered 7. ______ Voluntary simplicity is based on the principles of a. Rachel Carson. b. Aldo Leopold. c. Albert Einstein. d. Mahatma Gandhi. 8. ______ The environmental revolution that many environmentalists call for requires a. using economic systems to reward earth-sustaining behavior. b. increasing research into technologies for controlling natural processes. c. encouraging free market economies in the developing world. d. encouraging development of pollution cleanup technologies. 9. ______ Which of the following is not one of our basic needs? a. secure and meaningful employment b. a clean and healthy environment c. a higher standard of living d. a sense of belonging 10. ______ A sufficiency revolution involves a. trying to bring everyone up to the same standard of living. b. trying to bring everyone to the U.S. standard of living. c. trying to meet everyone' s basic needs. d. lowering the living standards of people in affluent countries. 11. ______ A solar-hydrogen world would rely on ______ for energy. a. photovoltaic panels

b. passive solar heating c. hydrogen fuel created from water d. solar-powered fuel cells

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